My Cards Flashcards
Onboarding with EASE- what does it stand for?
E- Encouragement (increases confidence)
A- Align (align team members)
S- Solve (potential problems)
E-End (end distractions)
What % of hospital budget is reasonable for training?
1-2%
70/20/10 Learning and Development Model
70 on the job, 20 coaching and 10 courses, lectures and formal training
How long should training sessions be?
No more than 20 min
What constitutes an emergency?
When no doctor is available immediately and one must be pulled from another client
How long should you keep time off requests?
As long as you keep employee file
When a doctor uses two exam rooms simultaneously is called:
High density scheduling
What are SMART goals?
Specific Measurable Agreed Realistic Time-Bound
Corrective Action using ABCDEF formula - what does it stand for?
Awareness, Behavior expectations, consequences, Decision confirmed, Employee involvement, Follow up
What are the top 3 causes of conflict in a practice?
Gossip, lack of training, lack of communication
HSA -What’s it stand for and who owns it?
Health Savings Account - Employee owns it
FSA - what’s it stand for and who owns it?
Flexible Spending Account - employer owns it
DEA
Drug Enforcement Agency
CSA
Controlled Substances Act
FDA
Food and Drug Administration
OSHA
Occupations Safety and Health Administration
OSHA Form 300
Log of work related injuries and illnesses
OSHA Form 301
Injury or Illness report - fill out within 7 days
OSHA Form 300A
Summary report of all illnesses and injuries from prior year, post Feb 1-April 30 of following year
What is the formula for calculating the cost of a service?
Cost of Service = ((Fixed costs/minute + Staff costs/minute) X (Length of procedure in staff minutes)) + ((DVM costs/minute) X (length of procedure in DVM minutes)) + (direct costs X 2) + Profit
What do you multiply by the sum of fixed costs and staff costs to calculate first part of the cost of service?
Length of procedure in staff minutes
What costs are included in the calculation of service costs?
- Fixed costs
- Staff costs
- DVM costs
- Direct costs
- Profit
In the cost of service formula, what does ‘DVM costs/minute’ refer to?
Costs associated with the DVM for each minute of the procedure
What is the purpose of multiplying direct costs by 2 in the cost of service formula?
To account for hidden inventory or additional expenses or mark-up
Formula short cut
(Fixed+ Staff X minutes) + (DVM X minutes) + (direct costs x 2+ profit)
True or False: The cost of service formula includes profit as a separate component.
True
What are fixed costs per minute?
Fixed costs per minute are determined from the P&L along with the number of billable minutes the hospital is open.
Fixed costs include administrative, facility, and DVM when paid on salary.
How many minutes is a practice open in a day if it is open 10 hours?
600 minutes per day
This is calculated as 10 hours multiplied by 60 minutes.
Calculate the total number of minutes a practice is open in a week if it operates 5 days.
3000 minutes per week
This is calculated as 600 minutes per day multiplied by 5 days a week.
What is the total number of minutes a practice is open in a month if 8-6 M-F?
12,000 minutes per month
This figure is derived by multiplying 3000 minutes per week by 4 weeks per month.
How do you calculate the fixed costs per minute?
Fixed costs- facility, admin and DVM if salary, divided by minutes open per month
This calculation provides the fixed cost per minute based on total fixed costs and total billable minutes.
How are staff costs per minute calculated?
All non DVM staff costs divided by the billable minutes the practice is open, multiplied by the number of non DVM staff members to complete the procedure, along with the number of minutes it takes to complete the task.
How are DVM costs per minute calculated?
Pull DVM wages from P&L, divide by number of minutes open. If you want costs per treatment, multiply by number of minutes on procedure
Which of the following statements are true about staff meetings: multiple choice
a. Appointing staff members to present topics during the staff meeting helps to develop leadership skills and a sense of pride among the staff?
B. A skilled facilitator can turn a gripe session into a positive, problem solving meeting
C. Meetings that begin with praise for accomplishments of team members or successful hospital initiatives will always end on a positive note
D. It’s not necessary to share the agenda ahead of time as how as notes from the meeting are shared after the meeting
A & B
True or False - Raises should always be tied to performance reviews to protect the practice against unemployment claims
False
What are the three most common types of performance reviews? Multiple Choice
A Behaviorally Anchored Ratings Scales
B. 360 Peer Review
C. Management by Objectives
D. Self Review
E. Job Satisfaction Survey
B, D, E
What is the best time frame for addressing conflict in the practice?
A. Immediately
B. within 24 hours
C. Within 2-3 days
D. No later than 7 days after discovering conflict
A
Which of these is not an example of grounds for immediate termination?
A. Insubordination
B. Time card Violation
C. Improper use of PPE
D. An employee performing poorly due to a death in the family
D
What is the ideal ratio if staff to veterinarians that allows the hospital to leverage veterinarians to perform tasks it takes a DVM degree to perform?
A. 4.2 to 1
B. 3 to 1
C. 3.4 to 1
D. 4 to 1
A
Which of these interviewing mistakes refers to allowing a candidate’s good qualities to overshadow the challenges they present as a candidate?
A. Prejudice and Stereotypes
B. Leading Questions
C. Halo Effect
D. Armchair Psychology
C
When must OSHA Safety Training be completed for each new hire?
A. Within the first 72 hours of employment
B. By the end of the first day of employment
C. Before the new employee is released from onboarding to train with the team
D. Annually
C
Which question is permissible to ask during pre-employment screening:
A. In the past 7. Years, have you ever knowingly used any narcotics, amphetamines, or barbiturates, other than those prescribed to you by a physician?
B. Within the past 5 years, have you ever been convicted of a felony, or a misdemeanor in the last 2 years, or are you presently charged?
C. Within the past 3 years, have you ever been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor or are you presently charged?
B.
When it comes to scheduled drugs, drugs with the highest potential for abuse and the lowest potential for accepted medical use fall under schedule __”
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
A. I
Which agencies have a role in the rescheduling of a drug, in bringing in an unscheduled drug to control, or removing controls on a drug? (Multiple choice)
A. USDA
B. OSHA
C. DEA
D. CSA
E. Attorney General
C & E
Drugs that contain unsanitary components, lack adequate control in manufacturing, differ in strength from official compendium, or that are mixed with another substance are known as _________.”
A. Adulterated Drugs
B. Controlled Drugs
C. Misbranded Drugs
D. Legend Drugs
E. Compounded Drugs
A. Adulterated
Which of these is not a requirement for prescription drug labels:
A. The inclusion of the statement “Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian”
B. The inclusion of the statement “For sale only to licensed veterinarians”
C. The label must include the recommended dose and route of administration.
D. The quantities or proportion of each active ingredient
E. The names of all inactive ingredients if drug is for non-oral use
F. And the identifying lot or control number from which it is possible to determine the complete manufacturing history of the drug
B.
______ occurs when you know the ethically appropriate action to take but you are unable to do so, or you act in a manner that does not agree with your own personal and professional values:
A. Ethics Exhaustion
B. Moral Distress
C. Compassion Fatigue
D. Emotional Distress
B. Moral Distress
If a driver hits a loose dog with their car and brings the dog into your practice, does your veterinarian have a legal responsibility to stabilize that patient or euthanize to relieve suffering since the owner is unknown and a veterinary client patient relationship has not been established?
Yes or No?
No (But an ethically responsibility can be argued)
Having a client sign off on a surgical consent form is adequate proof of informed consent in a court of law? True or False?
False
Which of the following are among the most common complaints to the board of veterinary medicine? (multiple choice)
A. Cost of treatment
B. Unsatisfactory experience
C. Lack of communication
D. Unexpected death
E. Record keeping
F. Termination of VCPR by the veterinarian
B, C, D and E
In regards to a medical malpractice lawsuit if a client fails to confine a dog after surgery or there is proof of any degree of medical negligence by the client, it may eliminate financial recovery for the client and a lawsuit what supports this theory?
A duty negligence
B contributory, negligence
C negligent forbearance
B
Section _____ is the part of the IRS code that allows employees to pay some health care premiums as a pre-tax basis, which reduces the employee’s total taxable income.
A. 125
B. 401
C. 300
D. 529
A. 125
Which of the following health care plans operate with a “use it or lose it” rule at the end of the years?
A HSA
B FSA
C. IRA
D. COBRA
B. FSA
The Employment Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) of 1974 is enforced by:
A. The Dept of Treasury
B. The EEOC
C. The Dept of Labor
D. The Dept of Health and Human Services
C. The Dept of Labor
How much should a practice budget for CE on an annual basis?
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 5%
D. 5%
The ____ form should be stored separately from the employee’s other files:
A. W2
B. W4
C. I9
D. 1099
C I9
How long should records of job related injuries be kept?
A. 7 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 30 years
C 5 years
According to the AVMA, what is the average net profit of a general practice in a given year?
A. 20%
B. 10-12%
C. 12-15%
D. 15-20%
B. 10-12%
Doctors on salary, utilities, medical insurance and rent are all examples of what kind of expense?
A. Fixed
B. Variable
C. Average
A. Fixed
Financial reports should be generated and analyzed within ____ business days after the end of the month.
A. 30
B. 1-5
C. 5-10
D. 20
C. 5-10
Which payroll schedule offers 24 pay periods per year?
A. Bimonthly
B. Biweekly
C. Biannual
A. Bimonthly
More than ___ % of gross revenue is lost to embezzlement in small business annually
A. 7%
B. 3%
C. 5%
D. 9%
C. 5%
In the budgeting process, normalizing the hospital expenses refers to: Multiple choice:
A. Looking back at the past 3 years of revenue and expenses
B. Projecting the next 3 years of revenue and expenses
C. Removing any large one off expenses from a year’s expenses
D. Averaging the last 3 years expenses
B & C
Which of these is the correct formula for measuring profit?
A. Profit divided by revenue
B. (Expense divided by gross revenue) x 100
C. Revenue minus expenses
C
When budgeting for a start up practice, it is recommended to use the ___ percentile of industry benchmarks
A. 25th
B. 20th
C. 15th
D. 30th
A. 25th
When comparing revenue and expenses, is it more valuable to determine the % change or the dollar amount change year over year?
A. % change
B. Dollar amount
A. % change
When it comes to marketing, the A in SMART
Goals stands for
A. Agreed
B. Attainable
C. Agreeable
D. Achievable
D
How many visit per year per client is a good metric to compare your practice’s performance with?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 10
D. 12
C. 10
What is the target budget to allocate for advertising retail products?
A. 4-5%
B. 2%
C. 1-3%
D. 3-4%
C. 1-3%
Which is not one of the 6 Cs of Client Relationship Management?
a. Consistency
B. Compassion
C. Care
D. Customer Service
E. Cost
F. Competence
C. Care
1) Veterinary Staff Ratio, Veterinary Production, Team
Member Production, and Staff Payroll Percentages are 4
of the Key Factors involved in considering when to hire,
what is the 5th Key Factor?
a. Percent of gross profit increase per quarter.
b. Liabilities as a percent of gross.
c. Square footage of building per DVM.
d. Hospital work flow.
D . Hospital work flow
_refers to the degree to which
the test actually measures what it claims to measure.
a. Validity
b. Tenability
c. Reliability
A. Validity
When should a pre-adverse action letter be used?
a. When considering not hiring a candidate due to details revealed in a pre-employment background check.
b. To advise a candidate they will not be hired due to details revealed in the pre-employment background check.
c. To request further detail/clarification on the candidate from the background investigation company when considering not hiring a candidate due to details on the initial background check.
A
When it comes to enhancing employee productivity, which of the below answers is NOT one of the suggestions?
a. Engage and Empower.
b. Personal Focus.
c. Accountability and Acceptance
d. Performance Standards
C.
When it comes to Individual Development Plans; what are the three main details that should be addressed?
a. Coaching, Training, Accountability.
b. Coaching, Training, Career Development
c. Development, Training, Career Management.
C.
On-board with EASE stands for Encouragement, Align, Solve, and
a. Elevate
b. End
c. Endorse
d. Embrace
B. End
A doctor is using 2 exam rooms simultaneously for appointments, what type of scheduling is this considered?
a. Ten Minute Flex
b. High Density
c. Concurrent
B. High Density
Regarding the practice client schedule; what is the definition of an emergency?
a. Where no doctor is immediately available, and one must be pulled from another client.
b. When the patient is triaged and determined to take priority over other patients.
c. Where the client arrives without an appointment for a legitimate patient concern.
A. Where no doctor is immediately available and one must be pulled from another client
Your practice has decided that they want clients to bond with the entire practice, what are the risks associated with that Bonding Philosophy (multiple Choice)?
a. The clients may not like all the doctors
b. Lack of continuity of patient care.
c. Doctors find it an unrewarding way to practice.
A & B
When empowering a team member, it is important to define the task/tasks with clarity. Which part of the SMART System will do that?
a. Specific
b. Agreed
c. Realistic
A. Specific
When it comes to management of daily work assignments
and
are the keys to a
successful veterinary practice.
a. Delegation and Instruction.
b. Delegation and Empowerment.
c. Delegation and Responsibility.
B. Delegation & Empowerment
The Benefits of Cross-Training include (Multiple choice);
a. Employee knowledge of the practice as a whole, and the roles of others in the practice, grows.
b. When team members are ill or absent, client service and wait times do not have to decline.
c. Places another level of employee accountability into the system, helping to reduce the occurrence of fraud and theft.
All of the above
True or False - Staff meetings are a good way to create team bonding and introduce new policies or products, but they rarely show a financial return on investment.
a. True
b. False
False
What are some ways to engage team members at a staff meeting? (Multiple choice)
a. Publicly praise work well done and celebrate successes
b. Do not allow meetings to turn into gripe sessions
c. Share important information, changes and progress towards goals so that people want to be at the meeting and not miss out on the announcements
d. Learning games or ice breaker exercises
All of the above
Training meetings should be 20 - 40 minutes long for attendees to remain engaged.
a. True
b. False
B. False (should be less than 20 mins max)
Employee Performance Reviews should include (multiple choice);
a. Conversations about wage and compensation structure.
b. Clarity about goals and direction
c. Addressing team member accomplishments
d. Address concerns over policy and procedures
B, C, D
One potential employee performance review pitfall is
a. Managements pre-conceived ideas or expectations.
b. Measuring the trivial.
c. Not giving the employee all the time they need to discuss their concerns.
B
Which element below is NOT included in the A B C D E F Formula?
a. Accountability
b. Decision Confirmed
c. Consequences
A. Accountability
Avoidance of the other person(s), personal attacks, hurtful gossip, barbed humor and lack of cooperation are all potential symptoms of what dynamic within your practice?
a. Vague guidelines/policies regarding conflict resolution.
b. Symptoms of conflict within the practice.
c. Lack of accountability and leadership.
B. Symptoms of conflict within the practice
A
C
D
C
A
B
C
B
A
A
B
D
C
B
B
B
B
B
D
D
D
C
A
C
B
A
A
D
A
A & C
D
