Mutations and control of gene expression Flashcards

1
Q

What is a gene mutation?

A

a change in the base sequence of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When do gene mutations happen?

A

during DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What types of gene mutation are there?

A

addition, deletion, substitution, inversion, duplication, translocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a mutagenic agent and give 2 examples?`

A

chemical or radiation that increases the rate of mutation - xrays/benzene deriviatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What happens during addition mutation?

A

one extra base is added, causes frameshift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What happens during a deletion mutation?

A

one base is deleted, causes frameshift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What happens during a substitution mutation?

A

one base is changed/swapped, doesn’t cause frameshift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why may a substitution mutation not have an impact?

A

genetic code is degenerate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is frameshift?

A

a change in all the codons after the point of mutation. can be to the left or right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens during an inversion mutation?

A

a section of bases detach from the DNA sequence and rejoin inverted, results in different amino acids being coded for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens during a duplication mutation?

A

one base is duplicated at least once, causing frameshift to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens during a translocation mutation?

A

a section of bases on one chromosome detached and attaches to a different chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a non-functioning protein?

A

a protein with a different primary and hence different tertiary structure. the shape is changed so it can no longer carry out it’s function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a tumour?

A

a mass of cells as a result of uncontrolled cell division, can be benign or malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a benign tumour?

A

non-cancerous, grows at a slower rate, surrounded by a membrane so don’t spread/metastasise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a malignant tumour?

A

cancerous tumour, grows rapidly, can grow projections and hence metastasise, can develop own blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is cancer?

A

malignant tumours that form due to uncontrolled cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is metastasis?

A

when cancer cells break off from the tumour, spreading to form secondary tumours in different tissues/organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are tumour suppressor genes?

A

genes that produce proteins to slow down cell division and cause cell death is DNA copying errors are detected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

the heritable change in gene function without changing the DNA sequence. caused by changes in the environment - change in phenotype without changing genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is hypermethylation?

A

an increased number of methyl groups attached to a gene, resulting in the gene becoming deactivated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the methylation of DNA and how does it inhibit transcription?

A

methyl groups attach to the cytosine base on DNA, which prevents transcriptional factors from binding by making the DNA-histone complex more tightly bound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How can oestrogen increase the risk of breast cancer?

A

oestrogen binds to a receptor site on a transcriptional factor, causing a change in shape so it can bind to the DNA to initiate transcription which can result in uncontrolled cell division, causing cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a stem cell?

A

undifferentiated cells that can continually divide and become specialised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Why are cells specialised?
to save energy - if all genes turned on in all cells the production of the proteins would waste lots of energy
26
What is a totipotent stem cell?
are found in early mammalian embryos, can differentiate into any type of body cell
27
What is a pluripotent stem cell?
found in embryos and can differentiate into nearly any type of body cell
28
What are pluripotent cells used for?
in research to help treat genetic disorders - ethical debates as embryo used is destroyed
29
What is a multipotent stem cell?
found in mature mammals in bone marrow, can differentiate into a limited number of cells
30
What is a unipotent stem cell?
found in mature mammals, can only differentiate into one type of cell
31
What is an oncogene?
a mutated version of a proto-oncogene, resulting in the constant initiation of DNA replication and mitosis, causing a tumour
32
Where can you find stem cells?
umbilical cord blood, placenta - multipotent stem cells bone marrow - adult stem cells
33
How do you obtain stem cells from IVF?
you can use spare embryos from IVF that aren't implanted - remove stem cells from inner blastocyst
34
What is an induced pluripotent stem cell?
produced from adult somatic cells using protein transcriptional factors
35
What is therapeutic cloning?
-producing genetically identical cells -nucleus of an ovum is removed and replaced with the nucleus of a cell from a patient, the cell is then delivered a small electric shock to start it dividing, then can be removed and cultured to produce genetically identical tissues for the patient
36
Why is it better to use embryonic stem cells instead of adult stem cells?
although they don't have ethical controversies, they are harder to extract and are not pluripotent so are limited
37
What is a transcriptional factor?
proteins that can bind to different base sequences on DNA that initiate transcription of genes
38
What is RNA interference?
the inhibition of the translation of mRNA, mRNA gets destroyed so it cannot be translated
39
How is RNAi used in medicine?
can be used to silence harmful genes
40
What is siRNA and what does it do?
small interfering RNA, cleaves mRNA molecules to prevent translation
41
How do cells become specialised?
by turning on/off particular genes so only certain proteins are produced
42
How does oestrogen regulate transcription?
-oestrogen is a lipid soluble molecule, and therefore diffuses easily through the phospholipid bilayer cell membrane -once inside the cytoplasm of the cell, oestrogen binds with a site on a receptor molecule of the transcriptional factor, as they are complementary -by binding with the site, the oestrogen activates it by changing the shape of the DNA binding site on the transcription factor to become complementary to the DNA -the transcriptional factor can now enter the nucleus through a nuclear pore and bind to specific base sequences on DNA at the promoter region -the combination of the transcription factor with DNA stimulates transcription of the gene by allowing RNA polymerase to bind
43
Describe siRNA
small, double stranded RNA molecules, used by protein complexes to break mRNA down
44
Name two key features of stem cells?
-can differentiate into specialised cells -can self replicate indefinitely
45
How does siRNA interfere with gene expression?
the enzyme dicer splits double stranded RNA into smaller pieces, then one strand forms a complex (RISC) with protein, the other is destroyed, the siRNA-protein complex binds to mRNA where it then cuts/cleaves it, leaving the mRNA strand to disintegrate, preventing translation and hence proteinsynthesis
46
What factors can affect epigenetics?
drugs, diet, stress, exercise, aging
47
How does epigenetic control work?
works through the attachment or removal of chemical groups to or from DNA or histones
48
Where does methylation occur?
DNA, to the cytosine bases
49
What affect does increased methylation of DNA have?
-inhibits the transcription of genes -prevents the binding of transcriptional factors to DNA, by attracting proteins that condense the DNA-histone complex, making the DNA inaccessible to transcriptional factors
50
Where does acetylation occur?
histones
51
What affect does decreased acetylation of histones have?
-inhibits transcription -increases the positive charges on histones and hence increases their attraction to the phosphate groups in DNA, so there is a stronger association between DNA and histones, so the DNA is not accessible to transcription factors
52
Where does the acetyl group come from?
the group donating the acetyl group is acetylcoenzyme A (involved in link reaction)
53
Are epigenetic changes permanent?
no
54
Can epigenetic changes be inherited?
yes if they occur in the germ cells
55
Why is epigenetics important in cancer research?
changes in tumour suppressor genes or proto-oncogenes can cause cancer
56
Evaluate the use of epigenetics in treating disease?
epigenetic changes are easier to treat than DNA sequence mutation as drugs can counteract the epigenetic changes that caused the disease by inhibiting certain enzymes involved histone acetylation or DNA methylation - but need to be very specific
57
How can epigenetic changes cause cancer?
DNA in promoter regions do not tend to have methylation, but in cancerous cells, sometimes the DNA there can become highly methylated, inhibiting transcription, leading to some protective genes being switched off leading to cancer
58
How may epigenetics be used to diagnose cancer?
identify acetylation and methylation relative to normal levels
59
How is SiRNA able to bind to mRNA?
SiRNA is only complementary to part of the base sequence of mRNA but it is enough to enable the protein-complex to bind with and destroy the target mRNA
60
How is SiRNA produced?
dicer cleavage of long double stranded RNA
61
What is the benefit of SiRNA not being completely double stranded?
they contain overhangs of approximately two nucleotides at each end which allows siRNAs to be recognised by a protein complex
62
What is a proto-oncogene?
stimulates cell division
63
What is a tumour suppressor gene?
slows/inhibits cell division
64
What can happen if there is a mutation in a proto-oncogene?
if a point mutation occurs, it can form an oncogene which stimulates excessive cell division leading to the formation of a tumour
65
What can happen if there is a mutation in a tumour suppressor gene?
if a point mutation occurs, it can cause the gene to become inactivated which allows the rate of cell division to increase unregulated
66
What is the difference between malignant and benign tumours?
malignant - rapid growth, tends to spread and form secondary tumours, can grow finger-like projections into surrounding tissue, more likely to reoccur benign - slow growth, doesn't usually spread, cells stick together as a primary tumour, very rare if reoccurs