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PATHOLOGY by JC > MUST KNOW!!!!!!!!!! > Flashcards

MUST KNOW!!!!!!!!!! Flashcards

0
Q

Grossly: Solid, airless lungs

Microscopically:
Pink necrotic cellular debris
Increased neutrophils

A

HYALINE MEMBRANE DISEASE

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1
Q 
Cataract
Deafness
Mental retardation
PDA
Blueberry muffin baby
A

CONGENITAL RUBELLA SYNDROME

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2
Q

What test determines whether respiration took place on a newborn before death?

A

FODERE’S TEST/ HYDRO STATIC TEST

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3
Q

What test involves floating of the stomach in water to determine the presence of air?

A

BRESLAU’S TEST

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4
Q

Cause by Vascular endothelial growth factor(VEGF)
Retinopathy of prematurity
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
Decrease in alveolar septation

A

COMPLICATIONS OF OXYGEN THERAPY

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5
Q

Breakdown of mucosal barrier function permits transluminal migration of bacteria?

A

NECROTIZING ENTEROCOLITIS

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6
Q

Bloody stools
Abdominal distention
Shock develop rapidly due to bleeding
Pneumatosis intestinalis (gas within intestinal walls)
Leading to bowel infarction and strictures

A

NECROTIZING ENTEROCOLITIS

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7
Q

Accumulation of edema fluid in the fetus during intrauterine growth?

A

FETAL HYDROPS

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8
Q

Prevention of Immune hydrops?

A

Administration of RhIg Ig to negative mothers at 28 weeks AOG Within 72 hours of delivery

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9
Q

Hyperplasia of bone marrow
Erythroblastosis fetalis
Large chorionic villi
Kernicterus ( > 20 mg/dl )

A

HYDROPS FETALIS

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10
Q

AR
Mutations of gene: phenylalanine hydroxylase
Inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine
Musty or mousy odor to affected infants
Brain damage and mental retardation

A

PHENYLKETONURIA

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11
Q

Most common variant of Galactosemia?

A

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

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12
Q 
Hepatomegaly
Cataract due to sorbitol accumulation
Failure to thrive
Mental ratardation
E. Coli septimecia
A

GALACTOSEMIA

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13
Q

AR
Loss of CFTR causes decreased Na and Cl reabsorption in sweat glands
Deletion of three nucleotides coding for phenylalanine at AMINO ACID POSITION 508

A

CYSTIC FIBROSIS

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14
Q

Most common lethal genetic disease that affect caucasian populations?

A

CYSTIC FIBROSIS

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15
Q 
AR
Infertility 
Meconium ileus
ATROPHY of exocrine pancreas
Respiratory infections due to P. AERUGINOSA
A

CYSTIC FIBROSIS

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16
Q

Most common cause of death of an infant younger than 1 year old which occur between 2 and 4 months?

A

SUDDEN INFANT DEATH SYNDROME

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17
Q

Most common tumors of infancy?

A

HEMANGIOMAS

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18
Q

Most common teratomas of childhood?

A

SACROCOCCYGEAL TERATOMAS

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19
Q

Most common extracranial solid tumor of childhood?

A

NEUROBLASTOMA

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20
Q

Neuropil ( faintly eosinophilic fibrillary material)
HOMER-WRIGHT pseudorosettes
Blueberry muffin baby

A

NEUROBLASTOMA

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21
Q

Homer-wright rosette is associated with?

A

NEUROBLASTOMA
MEDULLOBLASTOMA
PRIMITIVE NEUROECTODERMAL TUMORS

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22
Q

Flexner- Wintersteiner rosette is associated with?

A

RETINOBLASTOMA

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23
Q

Consist of tumor cells collected around a blood vessel

A

PERIVASCULAR PSEUDOROSETTE

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24
Q

Most common primary renal tumor of childhood?

A

WILMS TUMOR

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25
Q 
2-5 years old
Mutations in WT1 gene
Involve both kidneys
Triphasic combination
Marked anaplasia
A

WILMS TUMOR

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26
Q 
Interfers with normal remodeling of epiphyses in children (LEAD LINES)
Ringed sideroblasts
Microcytic hypochromic anemia
Basophilic stippling
Peripheral demyelinating neuropathy
Saturnine gout
A

LEAD POISONING

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27
Q

What is the drug of choice for acute management of lead poisoning?

A

EDTA and DIMERCAPROL

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28
Q

What is the drug of choice for outpatient management of lead poisoning?

A

SUCCIMER

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29
Q 
Cerebral palsy
Deafness 
Blindness 
Mental retardation
Dental amalgams
A

MERCURY POISONING/ MINAMATA DISEASE

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30
Q

Curling ulcers = ___________
Marjolin ulcers = ___________
Cushing ulcers = ___________

A

GASTRIC ULCER
SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
INCREASED INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE

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31
Q

What anesthetic drugs are implicated in malignant hyperthermia?

A

HALOTHANE SUCCINYLCHOLINE

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32
Q

What is the drug of choice for malignant hyperthermia?

A

DANTROLENE

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33
Q 
Weight falls to 60% of normal
Deficiency of all nutrients
Growth retardation
Loss of muscle 
Extremities are emaciated
A

MARASMUS

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34
Q

Malnutrition
Edema
Anemia
Liver (fatty)

A

KWASHIORKOR

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35
Q

Amenorrhea
Severe exercise
Severe diet
Psychiatric disorder

A

ANOREXIA NERVOSA

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36
Q 
Sever dental carries
Erosion of tooth enamel (perimolysis)
Swollen salivary gland
Calluses on back of hands (Russell's sign)
Electrolyte imbalance
A

BULIMIA NERVOSA

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37
Q 
Genu varum (bow legs)
Rachitic rosary
Bleeding gums
Poor wound healing
Perifollicular hemorrhage
A

SCURVY/ vitamin c deficiency

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38
Q

Craniotabes
Rachitic rosary
Pectus carinatum
Genu varum

A

RICKETS

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39
Q

What potentially fatal neurologic complication of measles is prevented by vaccination?

A

SUBACUTE SCLEROSING PANENCEPHALITIS

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40
Q

Rash on the face down to the proximal extremities
Whitish ulcerated oral mucosa lesions near the opening of stensen duct (kopliks spot)
WARTHIN-FINKELDEY CELLS

A

MEASLES

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41
Q

Parotitis
Orchitis
Pancreatitis
Encephalitis

A

MUMPS

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42
Q

WARTHIN-FINKELDEY CELLS

A

MUMPS

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43
Q

COWDRY TYPE A BODIES ( large, pink to purple intracellular inclusion)

A

HERPES SIMPLEX INFECTION

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44
Q

Dorsal root ganglion cell necrosis
Dew drop on a rose petal appearance of rash
RAMSAY HUNT SYNDROME

A

VARICELLA

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45
Q

OWL’S EYE INCLUSION (intracellular basophilic inclusions surrounded by halo)

A

CYTOMEGALOVIRUS

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46
Q

Blueberry muffin baby
Heterophil negative
Owl’s eye inclusion

A

CYTOMEGALOVIRUS

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47
Q

Drug of choice for CMV infection?

A

GANCICLOVIR

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48
Q

Positive heterophil antibodies
Splenic rupture
DOWNEY CELLS (B lymphocytes)

A

EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS INFECTION

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49
Q

What malignancies are associated with EBV?

A

BURKITT’S LYMPHOMA

NASOPHARYNGEAL CANCER

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50
Q

Most common cause of mastitis?

A

STAPHYLOCCOCUS AUREUS

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51
Q 
Erthryogenic toxin
Strawberry tongue
Centrifugal rash ( sandpaper like )
Pastia's line
DICK TEST for susceptibility
A

SCARLET FEVER

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52
Q

Erysipelas, Pharyngitis and Scarlet fever is associated with etiologic agent?

A

STREPTOCOCCUS PYOGENES/ GABHS

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53
Q

Pseudomembrane
Myocarditis
Poyneuritis
Airway obstruction

A

CORYNEBACTERIUM DIPTHERIAE INFECTION

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54
Q

Gram positive intracellular bacilli in the CSF
Focal abscess
TUMBLING MOTILITY

A

LISTERIA MONOCYTOGENES

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55
Q

Swarming motility

A

PROTEUS SPP.

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56
Q

Shooting star motility

A

VIBRIO CHOLERA

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57
Q

Falling leaf motility

A

GIARDIA LAMBLIA

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58
Q

Mediastinal hemorrhage
Necrosis and exudative inflammation
BOXCAR SHAPED gram positive organism

A

BACILLUS ANTHRACIS

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59
Q

Beaded gram positive organism in branching filaments
Modified acid fast stain (Fite Faraco)
Suppurative response with central liquefaction
No GRANULOMAS

A

NOCARDIA ASTEROIDES

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60
Q

Which virulence factor causes whooping in pertussis infection?

A

TRACHEAL CYTOTOXIN

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61
Q 
Necrotizing pneumonia
Well demarcated necrotic and hemorrhagic oval skin lesions (Ecthyma gangrenosum)
Fleur de lis pattern
Hot tub vasiculitis
Malignant otitis externa
A

PSEUDOMONAS AERUGINOSA INFECTION

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62
Q

Painful genital ulcer (CHANCROID)

A

HAEMOPHILUS DUCREYI

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63
Q 
Beefy red ulcer 
Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia
DONOVAN BODIES ( encapsulated cocobacilli in macrophages)
A

KLEBSIELLA GRANULOMATIS INFECTION

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64
Q

Granuloma formation with caseation necrosis
Potts disease
Lymphadenitis
Used of carbol fucshin for primary stain in the identification of the bacteria

A

MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS

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65
Q

Most frequent presentation of extrapulmonary TB?

Scrofula in cervical region

A

LYMPHADENITIS

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66
Q

Most common site of intestinal tuberculosis?

A

ILEUM

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67
Q

Abundant acid fast bacilli with macrophage associated with AIDS patients with CD4 < 50

A

MYCOBACTERIUM AVIUM

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68
Q

Hypopigmented plaques
Painless lesion
Bacilli are almost never found
Paucibacillary

A

TUBERCULOID LEPROSY

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69
Q

LIPID LADEN MACROPHAGES
Globi
Ulnar and peroneal nerves
Sterility

A

LEPROMATOUS LEPROSY

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70
Q 
Palmar rash
Chancre
Condyloma latum
Gummas
Neurosyphillis
A

SYPHILLIS/ TREPONEMA PALLIDUM

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71
Q 
Bullos eruption with epidermal sloughing 
Osteochondritis and periostitis
Pale and airless lungs (pneumonia alba)
Hutchenson teeth
Diffuse hepatic fibrosis
A

CONGENITAL SYPHILLIS

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72
Q

Macrophage with red cells
Moderate splenomegaly
Acrodermatitis atrophicans

A

BORRELIA RECURRENTIS

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73
Q

Erythema chronicum migrans
Lyme arthritis
Lyme miningitis

A

BORRELIA BURGDOFERI

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74
Q

Dusk colored wedge shaped infarcts in the bowel
Enzymatic myonecrosis
Extensive fluid exudate with gas bubbles

A

CLOSTRIAL GAS GANGRENE

75
Q

Primary cause of epidymitis?

A

CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS

76
Q

Urethritis
Stellate abscess (Lymphogranuloma venereum)
Organism NOT VISIBLE in gram stain

A

CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS INFECTION

77
Q 
Hemorrhagic rash
Thrombosis of the small blood vessels (arterioles)
Brain microinfarcts
Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema
Rickettsia is the causative agent
A

ROCKY MOUNTAIN SPOTTED FEVER

78
Q

SOAP BUBBLE LESIONS

Thick gelatinous capsule

A

CRYPTOCCOCCUS NEOFORMANS

79
Q

RIGHT ANGLE BRANCHING of irregular wide fungal hypae

A

MUCORMYCOSIS/ Rizopus and Mucor

80
Q

Spherules in endospores?

A

COCCIDIOIDES IMMITES

81
Q

Intracellular yeast?

A

HISTOPLASMA CAPSULATUM

82
Q

Board based bud?

A

BLASTOMYCES DERMATIDIS

83
Q

Mariner’s wheel

A

PARACOCCIDIODES BRASILENSIS

84
Q

What is the drug of choice for radical cure of benign tertain malaria?

A

PRIMAQUINE

85
Q

Maltese cross patern (intraerythrocytic ring shaped trophozoites in tetrads)

A

BABESIA MICROTI

86
Q

MOTT cells( plasma cells containing globules filled with immunoglobulins)
Capillary loops
Leptomeningitis
Chancre

A

AFRICAN SLEEPING SICKNESS

87
Q

Myocarditis

CHAGAS DISEASE

A

AFRICAN SLEEPING SICKNESS

88
Q

What characteristic sign of chagas disease is associated with unilateral periorbital edema?

A

ROMANA’S SIGN

89
Q

What are complications associated with chagas disease?

A

MEGAESOPAHGUS
MEGACOLON
MYOCARDITIS

90
Q

MEGACOLON
MEGAESPOHAGUS
MYOCARDITIS

A

CHAGA’s DISEASE

91
Q

HYPERINFECTION is possible in this parasitic infection?

A

STRONGYLOIDES STERCOLARIS

92
Q

Fine sandlike sediment within the hydatid fluid
Rupture may lead to anaphylaxis
PAIR procedure is done

A

ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS

93
Q

Encyst in striated skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle
NURSE CELL
Myocarditis

A

TRICHINELLA SPIRALIS

94
Q

White pinhead size granulomas
Heme derived pigments
PIPE STEM fibrosis
Treatment is praziquantel

A

SCHISTOSOMA JAPONICUM

95
Q

Increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder?

A

HEMORRHAGIC CYSTITIS

96
Q

MEYERS KOUVENAAR BODIES

A

FILARIASIS

97
Q

River blindness
Onchocercoma
Lizard skin

A

ONCHOCERCA VOLVULUS

98
Q

What is the drug of choice for river blindness?

A

IVERMECTIN

99
Q

What complication may arise during initiation of treatment due to lysis of onchocercal worms?

A

MAZZOTTI REACTION

100
Q

ACUTE ANGLE branching of fungal hypae

TARGET LESIONS

A

ASPERGILLUS FUMIGATUS

101
Q

Most common type of esophageal atresia?

A

TYPE B (Proximal esophageal atresia with Distal tracheoesophgaeal fistula)

102
Q

Result of failed involution of the VITELLINE DUCT which connects the lumen of the developing gut to the yolk sac

A

MECKEL’S DIVERTICULUM

103
Q 
2% of the population
Abdominal pain and obstruction
Within 2 feet (85cm) of the ileocecal valve 
Approximately 2 inches (5cm) long
2x as common in males as in females
Symptomatic by age 2
A

MECKEL’s DIVERTICULUM

104
Q

Present in second or third week of life
OLIVE sized abdominal mass on physical exam
Non bilous vomiting
Associate with Turner syndrome and Trisomy 18

A

HYPERTROPHIC PYLORIC STENOSIS

105
Q

Result when the ganglion cells undergo premature death (AGANGLIONOSIS)

A

HIRSCHSPRUNG DISEASE

106
Q

Failure to pass meconium
Obstructive constipation
Explosive passage of flatus and feces
Enterocolitis

A

HIRSCHSPRUNG DISEASE

107
Q

Most common cause of esophagitis associated with HIV?

A

CANDIDA (MYCOTIC)

108
Q

Most frequent cause of esophagitis?

A

REFLUX ESOPHAGITIS

109
Q

Characterized by intestinal METAPLASIA within the esophageal squamous mucosa
Increased risk of esophageal adenocarcinoma

A

BARRETT ESOPHAGUS

110
Q

Definitive diagnosis of barrette esophagus microscopically?

A

DEMONSTRATION OF INTESTINAL GOBLET CELLS

111
Q

Arises from long standing GERD and Barrette esophagus
Risk factor of dysplasia, smoking and obesity
Usually occur in the DISTAL THIRD of the esophagus
Intestinal type morphology with mucin production

A

ESOPHAGEAL ADENOCARCINOMA

112
Q

Chest pain is the chief complain
Occur in middle third of esophagus
Risk factors of smoking , poverty, PLUMMER VINSON SYNDROME and achalasia
Squamous dysplasia

A

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA of esophagus

113
Q

Transient mucosal inflammatory process which impaired and damage mucosal surface
Well known complication therapy of NSAIDs
Microscopically with intact surface epithelium

A

ACUTE GASTRITIS

114
Q

Most common cause of CHRONIC gastritis?

A

HELICOBACTER PYLORI

115
Q

MALT lymphoma (lymphoid aggregates with germinal centers and abundant SUBEPITHELIAL plasma cells)
Pit abscess
Antral gastritis

A

HELICOBACTER PYLORI GASTRITIS

116
Q 
Diffuse mucosal damage
Grandular atrophy of oxyntic mucosa
Megalobalstic changes
Intestinal metaplasia
BODY of the stomach common location
A

AUTOIMMUNE GASTRITIS

117
Q

Due to imbalances of mucosal defenses and damaging forces
Most often associated with H. Pylori
Duodenum is the common site

A

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE

118
Q

Most common malignancy of the stomach?

A

GASTRIC ADENOCARCINOMA

119
Q

Histopathology findings:

Rigid LEATHER BOTTLE appearance wall
SIGNET ring cells (large mucin vacoules pushes the nucleus to the periphery)
Mucin lakes

A

GASTRIC ADENOCARCINOMA

120
Q

Sign associated with GI malignancy cahracterized by Diffuse seborrhoic keratosis?

A

LESERTRELAT SIGN

121
Q

Best considered to be well differentiated neuroendocrine carcinomas
40 % occur in small intestine
SALT And PEPPER chromatin

A

CARCINOID TUMOR

122
Q

Most comon mesenchymak tumor of the abdomen?

A

GI STROMAL TUMOR

123
Q

Common site of infarction in ischemic bowel disease?

A

SPLENIC FLEXURE

124
Q

Immune mediated enteropathy triggered by the ingestion of GLUTEIN containing food with microspic findings: crypts hyperplasia, villous atrophy and intraepithelia lymphocytosis?

A

CELIAC DISEASE

125
Q

Common bacterial enteric pathogen associated with improperly cooked chicken and
GULLAIN BARRE SYNDROME with microscopic findings: cryptitis, crypt abscess and crypt architecture is preserved?

A

CAMPYLOBACTER ENTEROCOLLITIS

126
Q

What is the drug of choice eradication of chronic carriage of salmonella in the galbladder?

A

AMPICILLLIN(6-8 months)

127
Q

Presence of mucopurulent exudates formERUPTION REMINISCENT OF VOLCANO in histopathology?

A

PSEUDOMEMBRANOUS COLITIS

128
Q

TRIAD: diarrhea, weight loss and malabsorption

HISTOPATH:
Distended foamy macrophages
PAS positive
Diastase resistant granules

A

WHIPPLE’S DISEASE

129
Q 
Transmural inflammation
Common in ileum and colon
SKIP LESIONS
ulcers is deep, knife like
No malignant potential
COBBLESTONE APPEARANCE
A

CROHN DISEASE

130
Q 
Limited to mucosa
Diffuse distribution of the lesion
Common in the colon only
Toxic megacolon
Ulcers with superficial, broad based
A

ULCERATIVE COLITIS

131
Q 
Apthous ulcer
COBBLESTONE APPEARANCE
Paneth cell metaplasia
Noncaseating granulomas
Crypt abscesses
A

CHRON’S DISEASE

132
Q

DIVERTICULITIS is common in?

A

ELDERLY

133
Q

Toxic megacolon
Strictures not occur
Serosal surface is normal
Mural thickening is not present

A

ULCERATIVE COLITIS

134
Q

Pedunculated smooth surfaced reddish lesions with cystic space

A

JUVENILE POLYP

135
Q

Hamartomatous polyps
Arborizing networks
Most common in small intestine

A

PEUTZ JEGHERS SYNDROME

136
Q

Low maliganant potential polyp?

A

HYPERPLASTIC POLYP

137
Q

Most common malignancy of the GI tract?

A

COLORECTAL ADENOCARCINOMA

138
Q 
Dietary factors are most closely associated
SIGNET RING CELLS
Dysplastic epithelium
Desmoplastic response
Mucin accumulation
A

COLORECTAL ADENOCARCINOMA

139
Q

Most common site of metastasis of colorectal adenocarcinoma?

A

LIVER

140
Q

Caput medusae
Esophageal varices
Hemorrhoids

A

PORTAL HYPERTENSION

141
Q

Bridging fibrous septa
Parenchymal nodules
Disruption of architecture of entire liver

A

CIRRHOSIS

142
Q

Dubin Johnson syndrome and Rotor syndrome is associated with?

A

CONJUGATED HYPERBILIRIBINEMIA

143
Q

Cholestatic hepatocyte
DILATED canalicular space
APOPTOTIC cells
kupffer cells with BILE pigments

A

INTRAHEPATIC CHOLESTASIS

144
Q

Bile ductular PROLIFERATION
Edema, bile pigment retention
Swollen and degenerating hepatocytes

A

EXTRAHEPATIC CHOLESTASIS

145
Q 
BALLOONING DEGENERATION
Councilman bodies
Macrophage aggregates
Apoptosis
Bridging necrosis
Prominent inflammation
A

ACUTE HEPATITIS

146
Q

Hepatocyte apoptosis
Bridging necrosis
Bridging fibrosis
Deposition of fibrous tissue

A

CHRONIC HEPATITIS

147
Q

GROUND GLASS hepatocytes seen in what type of hepatitis?

A

HEPATITIS B INFECTION

148
Q

Lymphoid aggregates, bile duct reactive changes and steatosis is seen in what type of hepatitis?

A

HEPATITIS C INFECTION

149
Q

T CELL mediated autoimmunity
Anti smooth muscle antibodies POSITIVE
Chronic and progressive hepatitis of unknown etiology

A

AUTOIMMUNE HEPATITIS

150
Q

MALLORY BODIES
Hepatocyte swelling and necrosis
Neutrophil reaction
Sinusoidal prevenular fibrosis

A

ALCOHOLIC HEPATITIS

151
Q 
Excessive accumulation of iron 
Mostly deposited in liver, heart, skin and pancreas
TRIAD: Hepatomegaly
            Diabetes mellitus
            Bronze skin pigmentation
A

HEMOCHROMATOSIS

152
Q

Deposition of hemosiderin
Cirhhosis
Pancreatic fibrosis

A

HEMOCHROMATOSIS

153
Q

Impaired copper excretion into bile and failure to incorporate copper into ceruplasmin
In eye lesion (KAYSER FLEISCHER RINGS)

A

WILSONS’S DISEASE

154
Q

AR
PAS positive
DIASTASE resistant
Round to oval cytoplasmic globular inclusions in hepatocytes
Loss inhibition of protease released from neutrophils leads to panacinar emphysema

A

ALPHA 1 ANTITRYPSIN DEFICIENCY

155
Q

Obstruction of two or more major hepatic veins
Liver is swollen and rep purple
Tense liver capsule
Severe centrilobular congestion and necrosis

A

BUDD CHIARI SYNDROME

156
Q

Benign neoplasm of the liver associated with OCP used?

A

HEPATIC ADENOMA

157
Q

Common type of stones in cholelithiasis?

A

CHOLESTEROL STONES

158
Q

Most common congenital anomaly of pancreas

A

ANNULAR PANCREAS

159
Q

REVERSIBLE pancreatic parenchymal injury associted with inflammation
Most common etiologies are alcoholism and biliary tract disease

A

ACUTE PANCREATITIS

160
Q

What is the appropriate treatment for acute pancreatitis?

A

BOWEL REST

161
Q

What is the most appropriate analgesic for patients with acute pancreatitis?

A

MEPERIDINE

162
Q

IRREVERSIBLE destruction of exocrine parenchyma

Most common cause is long term alcohol abuse

A

CHRONIC PANCREATITIS

163
Q

What is the tumor marker for pancreatic cancer?

A

CA 19-9

164
Q

What is the surgical treatment for pancreatic cancer?

A

WHIPPLE PROCEDURE (Pancreaticoduodenectomy)

165
Q

What is the condition characterized by extrinsic compression of the common hepatic duct, that can be mistaken for pancreatic CA?

A

MIRRIZI SYNDROME

166
Q

What is the clinical sign characterized by a painless palpable gallbladder associated with jaundice?

A

COUVOISIER GALLBLADDER

167
Q

Oliguria
Hematuria
Hypertension
Azotemia

A

NEPHRITIC SYNDROME

168
Q

Edema
Proteinuria
Hypoalbuminemia
Hyperlipidemia

A

NEPHROTIC SYNDROME

169
Q

Bilateral
Enlarged kidneys at birth
Sponge-like apperance
Spokes on a WHEEL pattern

A

ARPKD

170
Q

Low set ears
Parrot beak nose
Lung hypoplasia
Associated with oligohydramnios

A

POTTER FACIES

171
Q 
Children 6-10 y o
GABHS
Sequelae of impetigo
Enlarged hypercellular glomeruli
SUBEPITHELIAL HUMPS
A

POST STREPTOCOCCAL GN

172
Q

What type of RPGN associated with SLE?

A

TYPE 2 RPGN

173
Q

Thickened BM
Sup epithelial humps (spike and dome apperance)
Non selective proteinuria
No cells present
Indolent course with poor response to steroids

A

MEMBRANOUS GLOMERULOPATHY

174
Q 
Diffuse effacement of epithelial foot process by EM
No deposits in EM
Highly selective proteinuria
Excellent response to steroids
Good prognosis
A

MINIMAL CHANGE DISEASE

175
Q

Most common cause of nephritic syndrome in children?

A

POST STREPTOCOCCAL GN

176
Q

Most common cause nephrotic in children?

A

MINIMAL CHANGE DISEASE

177
Q

Most common cause nephrotic syndrome in adults?

A

MEMBRANOUS GLUMERULOPATHY

178
Q

Most common GN OVERALL?

A

IgA NEPHROPATHY

179
Q

Most common cause of ARF?

A

ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS

180
Q

Most common cause of CRF?

A

DIABETES MELLITUS

181
Q

Recurrent gross or microscopic hematuria

Mesangial deposit of IgA

A

IgA NEPHROPATHY

182
Q

WIRE LOOP CAPILLARIES seen i what type of SLE?

A

TYPE IV DIFFUSE PROLIFERATIVE GN

183
Q

Associated with MULTIPLE MYOMA
CONGOR RED positive
Deposit seen in mesangium, blood vessel wall and interstitium
Present as NEPHROTIC SYNDROME

A

AMYLOIDOSIS

184
Q

Associated with PAINLESS HEMATURIA?

A

TRANSITIONAL CELL CA (urothelial carcinoma)

185
Q 
Maligancy of plama cells
BENCE JONES PROTEINS
amyloidosis
Hypercalcemia
Hyperuricemia
A

MULTIPLE MYELOMA

PATHOLOGY by JC (1 decks)

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