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Must Know Flashcards

1
Q

What microorganism causes Lyme Disease?

A

Borrelia Burgdoferi

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2
Q

What microorganism causes Actinomycosis?

A

Filamentous gram +ve anaerobic bacilli

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3
Q

What microorganism causes Cat scratch disease?

A

Bartonella henselae

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4
Q

What microorganisms causes Impetigo?

A

Staph. Aureus and Strep. Pyogenes

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5
Q

What microorganism causes Tuberculosis (TB)?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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6
Q

What microorganism causes Syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

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7
Q

What is the name of the rash associated with Lyme’s Disease?

A

Erythema Migrans

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8
Q

What is another name for HHV-1 and what does it primarily cause?

A

Herpes Simplex virus 1 (HSV1), Primary Herpetic Gingivostomatitis

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9
Q

What is another name for HHV-2 and what does it primarily cause?

A

Herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2), genital herpes and oral disease similar to HSV-1

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10
Q

What is another name for HHV-3, and what is its primary and secondary infection called?

A

Varicella Zoster virus (VZV), Chickenpox primary, Herpes zoster/ shingles secondary

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11
Q

What is another name for HHV-4 and what does it primarily cause?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV), Infection mononucleosis (implicated in glandular fever and oral hairy leukoplakia also)

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12
Q

What is another name for HHV-5 and what does it primarily cause?

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV), infection of salivary glands in infants and immunocompromised.

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13
Q

What does HHV-6 and HHV-7 primarily cause?

A

Roseola infantum- febrile illness that affects young children

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14
Q

What is HHV-8 associated with?

A

Karposi’s sarcoma

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15
Q

Which viruses are a part of the Paramyxovirus family?

A

Measles and mumps

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16
Q

What is a common oral presentation of the Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)?

A

Squamous Papilloma- cauliflower-like pedunculated finger-like benign projection

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17
Q

What does triple therapy consist of?

A

Nystatin
Prednislone
Doxycycline

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18
Q

What’s the difference between major and minor Aphthous ulcers?

A

Major >10mm
Minor <10mm

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19
Q

What are high risk sites for OSCC?

A

Lateral/ventral border of the tongue
FOM
Retromolar area
Lip (UV light)

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20
Q

When should you be suspicious of lesions? (3)

A

Unexplained, solitary, persistent (>3 weeks) ulcer
Red/ red and white patch consistent with erythroplakia/ erythroleukoplakia
Unexplained and persistent lump on the neck

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21
Q

6 main presentations of LIchen Planus

A

Reticular
Papular
Atrophic
Plaque
Bullous
Erosive

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22
Q

Common sites for Lichen Planus in mouth? (4)

A

Buccal mucosa
Lateral border of tongue
Dorsum of tongue
Attached gingiva

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23
Q

3 main types of Candidosis infection?

A

Pseudomembranous
Erythematous
Chronic hyperplastic

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24
Q

What are the 3 main types of inflammatory cysts?

A

Dental/ radicular
Residual
Paradental

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25
Name 3 types of developmental odontogenic cysts?
Odontogenic Keratocyst Dentigerous cyst Eruption cyst
26
Name 3 types of developmental non-odontogenic cysts?
Nasopalatine cyst Nasolabial cyst Dermoid cyst
27
Name 4 types of Osteomyelitis?
Suppurative Chronic sclerosing Osteoradionecrosis (ORN) OCN/ MRONJ
28
What are the Notani Grades used for?
Classification of ORN into 3 separate groups (I, II, III)
29
What syndrome is Fibrous dysplasia associated with?
McCune Allbright syndrome
30
Which drugs can commonly cause MRONJ? (2)
Bisphosphonates Denusumab
31
What is a simple explanation of an Odontome?
A malformed tooth
32
Name 4 possible causes of a dentoalveolar abscess
Periapical periodontitis (most common) Periodontal disease Acute pericoronitis Infection of a cyst
33
Name 3 resulting infections which can be caused by spreading of an acute dentoalveolar abcess.
Cellulitis Ludwig’s angina Cavernous sinus thrombosis
34
What syndrome is associated with having multiple Keratocysts
Gorlin-Goltz Syndrome/Multiple basal cell naevi syndrome
35
What is an Ameloblastoma?
Benign, odontoblastic, locally invasive tumour
36
What is hyperparathyroidism?
A state of excessive parathyroid hormone secretion causing bone resorption and hypercalcaemia
37
Syndrome associated with multiple odontomes?
Gardner’s syndrome
38
What is Trigeminal neuralgia?
Disorder of the trigeminal nerve that consists of episodes of unilateral, intense, stabbing electric-shock-like pain in the areas of the face where the branches of the nerve are distributed, normally affecting just one branch. It lasts a few seconds to under 2 mins, occurs spontaneously but can be triggered by touch/movement of the face e.g. shaving/cold air. Doesn’t disturb sleep.
39
What is the management of Trigeminal neuralgia?
Carbamazepine 100mg bd for 2 weeks, increase to 100mg tds if control not achieved.
40
What is giant cell arteritis?
Immunological/vasculitic condition in which there is inflammation of medium sized arteries especially in the head and neck. Severe burning pain in distribution of the affected vessel – temporal, tongue or masticatory muscle region. Headache is intense, deep, aching, throbbing, persistent
41
What is an important risk associated with giant cell arteritis?
Blindness
42
What is the normal management of giant cell arteritis
Systemic corticosteroids – Prednisolone 60mg daily
43
What is Glossopharngeal neuralgia?
Severe paroxysmal pain in post tongue/tonsillar region -Pain may radiate to the ear -Triggered by swallowing, coughing
44
How is Glossopharngeal neuralgia managed?
Carbamazepine
45
What is periodic migrainous neuralgia, a.k.a “cluster headaches”
Unilateral, excruciating pain in the maxilla or behind the eye, notably in the very early morning hours, occurring repeatedly over several days
46
How are ”cluster headaches” managed
- Oxygen therapy (100% oxygen at 10-15 litres/min for 10-20mins) - Sumatriptan (subcut or nasal spray)
47
What are Paroxsymal hemicranias?
Frequent, short-lasting (few minutes) attacks of unilateral pain - Usually orbital, supraorbital or temporal region - 5-40 attacks per day
48
What is Persistent Idiopathic facial pain?
A constant chronic orofacial discomfort or pain, for which no organic cause can be found
49
What is Atypical facial pain and how is it managed?
Usually upper jaw pain, unrelated to distribution of trigeminal nerve (may cross midline) - Deep, dull, boring pain - Persists for most or all of day - Doesn’t disturb sleep - Patients often have not tried simple analgesics to control pain - Diagnosis made by exclusion of organic disease Management ◦ Amitriptyline/Nortriptyline, Duloxetine, Pregabalin, Gabapentin ◦ Cognitive behavioural therapy
50
What are migraines?
Recurrent, incapacitating, unilateral headaches - Usually supraorbital - Last hours/days - Attacks may be precipitated by stress, alcohol, ripe bananas, chocolate, OCP
51
What are some of the management options for migraines?
- Aspirin/Paracetamol/NSAID - Lysine acetylsalicylate with metoclopramide in acute attacks (MigraMax) - Sumatriptan
52
What are three subtypes of TN?
- idiopathic - classical - secondary
53
What is the most common cause of non-odontogenic pain?
TMJD
54
Whats the most common cause of bacterial salivary gland infections?
Staphylococcus Aureus Streptococci Some anaerobes Usually mixed infection
55
What is sialography?
Anatomical investigation of major salivary gland structure. A Radio-opaque dye is introduced into the gland via the duct and 2 radiographs are taken at 90 degrees to e.o.
56
Name 4 viruses which cause viral salivary gland infections
Paramyxovirus Influenza Echo viruses Epstein Barr
57
What other diagnosis must be ruled out before a Giant cell granuloma diagnosis can be confirmed?
Hyperparathyroidism (brown’s tumour)
58
What is the Mechanism of action of aspirin and NSAIDs?
COX inhibitor
59
How would you make a diagnosis of Giant cell Arteritis ?
- Clinical - Raised ESR - Arterial biopsy
60
Which drugs should be avoided (due to serious interactions) with a patient on Warfarin?
Metronidazole NSAIDs Carbamezepine Azole antifungals Macrolide antibiotics (e.g. erythromycin)
61
Which drugs should be avoided due to serious interactions with a person taking Statins?
Azole antifungals Clarithromycin
62
Which drugs can exacerbate asthma symptoms?
NSAIDs
63
What is the typical treatment for bacterial salivary gland infection?
Co-amoxiclav 625mg TID 5 days
64
What is the mode of action of Rivaroxaban?
Factor Xa inhibitor
65
What is the mode of action of Dabigatran?
Direct thrombin inhibitor
66
What is the mode of action of Dipyridamole (e.g. Persantin)?
Inhibits phosphodiesterase which inhibits Adenosine uptake
67
What is the mode of action of thienopyridines (e.g. Clopidogrel)
Irreversibly inhibit platelet activation via the ADP dependent pathway
68
What is the mode of action of tica Gregor
Reversible P2Y12 receptor antagonist
69
What is the mode of action of Aspirin?
Irreversible COX enzyme inhibitor
70
What is dual ant-platelet therapy?
Aspirin and Thienopyridines
71
What is the mode of action of warfarin?
Inhibits biosynthesis of vitamin K dependent anticoagulants
72
What is the Tx for an acute severe asthma attack?
Ambulance transfer O2 15L/min Up to 10 activations of salbutamol in spacer device
73
What is the initial management of suspected domestic abuse?
Ask if everything is okay at home

OSOMOP NB (1 decks)

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