Must Know Flashcards

1
Q

What microorganism causes Lyme Disease?

A

Borrelia Burgdoferi

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2
Q

What microorganism causes Actinomycosis?

A

Filamentous gram +ve anaerobic bacilli

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3
Q

What microorganism causes Cat scratch disease?

A

Bartonella henselae

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4
Q

What microorganisms causes Impetigo?

A

Staph. Aureus and Strep. Pyogenes

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5
Q

What microorganism causes Tuberculosis (TB)?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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6
Q

What microorganism causes Syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

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7
Q

What is the name of the rash associated with Lyme’s Disease?

A

Erythema Migrans

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8
Q

What is another name for HHV-1 and what does it primarily cause?

A

Herpes Simplex virus 1 (HSV1), Primary Herpetic Gingivostomatitis

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9
Q

What is another name for HHV-2 and what does it primarily cause?

A

Herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2), genital herpes and oral disease similar to HSV-1

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10
Q

What is another name for HHV-3, and what is its primary and secondary infection called?

A

Varicella Zoster virus (VZV), Chickenpox primary, Herpes zoster/ shingles secondary

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11
Q

What is another name for HHV-4 and what does it primarily cause?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV), Infection mononucleosis (implicated in glandular fever and oral hairy leukoplakia also)

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12
Q

What is another name for HHV-5 and what does it primarily cause?

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV), infection of salivary glands in infants and immunocompromised.

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13
Q

What does HHV-6 and HHV-7 primarily cause?

A

Roseola infantum- febrile illness that affects young children

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14
Q

What is HHV-8 associated with?

A

Karposi’s sarcoma

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15
Q

Which viruses are a part of the Paramyxovirus family?

A

Measles and mumps

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16
Q

What is a common oral presentation of the Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)?

A

Squamous Papilloma- cauliflower-like pedunculated finger-like benign projection

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17
Q

What does triple therapy consist of?

A

Nystatin
Prednislone
Doxycycline

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18
Q

What’s the difference between major and minor Aphthous ulcers?

A

Major >10mm
Minor <10mm

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19
Q

What are high risk sites for OSCC?

A

Lateral/ventral border of the tongue
FOM
Retromolar area
Lip (UV light)

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20
Q

When should you be suspicious of lesions? (3)

A

Unexplained, solitary, persistent (>3 weeks) ulcer
Red/ red and white patch consistent with erythroplakia/ erythroleukoplakia
Unexplained and persistent lump on the neck

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21
Q

6 main presentations of LIchen Planus

A

Reticular
Papular
Atrophic
Plaque
Bullous
Erosive

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22
Q

Common sites for Lichen Planus in mouth? (4)

A

Buccal mucosa
Lateral border of tongue
Dorsum of tongue
Attached gingiva

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23
Q

3 main types of Candidosis infection?

A

Pseudomembranous
Erythematous
Chronic hyperplastic

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24
Q

What are the 3 main types of inflammatory cysts?

A

Dental/ radicular
Residual
Paradental

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25
Q

Name 3 types of developmental odontogenic cysts?

A

Odontogenic Keratocyst
Dentigerous cyst
Eruption cyst

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26
Q

Name 3 types of developmental non-odontogenic cysts?

A

Nasopalatine cyst
Nasolabial cyst
Dermoid cyst

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27
Q

Name 4 types of Osteomyelitis?

A

Suppurative
Chronic sclerosing
Osteoradionecrosis (ORN)
OCN/ MRONJ

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28
Q

What are the Notani Grades used for?

A

Classification of ORN into 3 separate groups (I, II, III)

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29
Q

What syndrome is Fibrous dysplasia associated with?

A

McCune Allbright syndrome

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30
Q

Which drugs can commonly cause MRONJ? (2)

A

Bisphosphonates
Denusumab

31
Q

What is a simple explanation of an Odontome?

A

A malformed tooth

32
Q

Name 4 possible causes of a dentoalveolar abscess

A

Periapical periodontitis (most common)
Periodontal disease
Acute pericoronitis
Infection of a cyst

33
Q

Name 3 resulting infections which can be caused by spreading of an acute dentoalveolar abcess.

A

Cellulitis
Ludwig’s angina
Cavernous sinus thrombosis

34
Q

What syndrome is associated with having multiple Keratocysts

A

Gorlin-Goltz Syndrome/Multiple basal cell naevi syndrome

35
Q

What is an Ameloblastoma?

A

Benign, odontoblastic, locally invasive tumour

36
Q

What is hyperparathyroidism?

A

A state of excessive parathyroid hormone secretion causing bone resorption and hypercalcaemia

37
Q

Syndrome associated with multiple odontomes?

A

Gardner’s syndrome

38
Q

What is Trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Disorder of the trigeminal nerve that consists of episodes of unilateral, intense, stabbing electric-shock-like pain in the areas of the face where the branches of the nerve are distributed, normally affecting just one branch.

It lasts a few seconds to under 2 mins, occurs spontaneously but can be triggered by touch/movement of the face e.g. shaving/cold air. Doesn’t disturb sleep.

39
Q

What is the management of Trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine 100mg bd for 2 weeks,

increase to 100mg tds if control not achieved.

40
Q

What is giant cell arteritis?

A

Immunological/vasculitic condition in which there is inflammation of medium sized arteries especially in the head and neck.

Severe burning pain in distribution of the affected vessel – temporal, tongue or masticatory muscle region. Headache is intense, deep, aching, throbbing, persistent

41
Q

What is an important risk associated with giant cell arteritis?

A

Blindness

42
Q

What is the normal management of giant cell arteritis

A

Systemic corticosteroids – Prednisolone 60mg daily

43
Q

What is Glossopharngeal neuralgia?

A

Severe paroxysmal pain in post tongue/tonsillar region
-Pain may radiate to the ear
-Triggered by swallowing, coughing

44
Q

How is Glossopharngeal neuralgia managed?

A

Carbamazepine

45
Q

What is periodic migrainous neuralgia, a.k.a “cluster headaches”

A

Unilateral, excruciating pain in the maxilla or behind the eye, notably in the very early morning
hours, occurring repeatedly over several days

46
Q

How are ”cluster headaches” managed

A
  • Oxygen therapy (100% oxygen at 10-15 litres/min for 10-20mins)
  • Sumatriptan (subcut or nasal spray)
47
Q

What are Paroxsymal hemicranias?

A

Frequent, short-lasting (few minutes) attacks of unilateral pain
- Usually orbital, supraorbital or temporal region
- 5-40 attacks per day

48
Q

What is Persistent Idiopathic facial pain?

A

A constant chronic orofacial discomfort or pain, for which no organic cause can be found

49
Q

What is Atypical facial pain and how is it managed?

A

Usually upper jaw pain, unrelated to distribution of trigeminal nerve (may cross midline)
- Deep, dull, boring pain
- Persists for most or all of day
- Doesn’t disturb sleep
- Patients often have not tried simple analgesics to
control pain
- Diagnosis made by exclusion of organic disease

Management
◦ Amitriptyline/Nortriptyline, Duloxetine, Pregabalin, Gabapentin
◦ Cognitive behavioural therapy

50
Q

What are migraines?

A

Recurrent, incapacitating, unilateral headaches
- Usually supraorbital
- Last hours/days
- Attacks may be precipitated by stress, alcohol, ripe bananas, chocolate, OCP

51
Q

What are some of the management options for migraines?

A
  • Aspirin/Paracetamol/NSAID
  • Lysine acetylsalicylate with metoclopramide in acute attacks (MigraMax)
  • Sumatriptan
52
Q

What are three subtypes of TN?

A
  • idiopathic
  • classical
  • secondary
53
Q

What is the most common cause of non-odontogenic pain?

A

TMJD

54
Q

Whats the most common cause of bacterial salivary gland infections?

A

Staphylococcus Aureus
Streptococci
Some anaerobes
Usually mixed infection

55
Q

What is sialography?

A

Anatomical investigation of major salivary gland structure. A Radio-opaque dye is introduced into the gland via the duct and 2 radiographs are taken at 90 degrees to e.o.

56
Q

Name 4 viruses which cause viral salivary gland infections

A

Paramyxovirus
Influenza
Echo viruses
Epstein Barr

57
Q

What other diagnosis must be ruled out before a Giant cell granuloma diagnosis can be confirmed?

A

Hyperparathyroidism (brown’s tumour)

58
Q

What is the Mechanism of action of aspirin and NSAIDs?

A

COX inhibitor

59
Q

How would you make a diagnosis of Giant cell Arteritis ?

A
  • Clinical
  • Raised ESR
  • Arterial biopsy
60
Q

Which drugs should be avoided (due to serious interactions) with a patient on Warfarin?

A

Metronidazole
NSAIDs
Carbamezepine
Azole antifungals
Macrolide antibiotics (e.g. erythromycin)

61
Q

Which drugs should be avoided due to serious interactions with a person taking Statins?

A

Azole antifungals
Clarithromycin

62
Q

Which drugs can exacerbate asthma symptoms?

A

NSAIDs

63
Q

What is the typical treatment for bacterial salivary gland infection?

A

Co-amoxiclav 625mg TID 5 days

64
Q

What is the mode of action of Rivaroxaban?

A

Factor Xa inhibitor

65
Q

What is the mode of action of Dabigatran?

A

Direct thrombin inhibitor

66
Q

What is the mode of action of Dipyridamole (e.g. Persantin)?

A

Inhibits phosphodiesterase which inhibits Adenosine uptake

67
Q

What is the mode of action of thienopyridines (e.g. Clopidogrel)

A

Irreversibly inhibit platelet activation via the ADP dependent pathway

68
Q

What is the mode of action of tica Gregor

A

Reversible P2Y12 receptor antagonist

69
Q

What is the mode of action of Aspirin?

A

Irreversible COX enzyme inhibitor

70
Q

What is dual ant-platelet therapy?

A

Aspirin and Thienopyridines

71
Q

What is the mode of action of warfarin?

A

Inhibits biosynthesis of vitamin K dependent anticoagulants

72
Q

What is the Tx for an acute severe asthma attack?

A

Ambulance transfer
O2 15L/min
Up to 10 activations of salbutamol in spacer device

73
Q

What is the initial management of suspected domestic abuse?

A

Ask if everything is okay at home