musculosketetal patho Flashcards

0
Q

function of osteoblasts

A

build up bobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

function of osteoclasts

A

chew and destroys bone

-increases calcium levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

modeling

A

converts cartilage to adult bone

takes about 20 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

epiphyseal growth plate

A

allows for growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

remodeling

A

process of bone reabsorption and formation that is coupled or balanced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what affects remodeling

A

nutrition
physical activity
aging
hormone status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

estrogen role in bone formation

A

promotes osteoblast activity
closes epiphyseal plate
promotes apoptosis of osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

strain

A

muscle and tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

sprain

A

ligament and joint capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

treatment for strains and sprains

A
RICE
rest 
ice
compression
elevation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

bursitis

A

inflammation or fluid buildup

dt increase use or pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

dislocation

A

completely completed unaligned

  • congenital
  • traumatic
  • pathologic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

subluxation

A

partial dislocation

joint still in contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

clinical manifestations of fractures

A
deformity
pain and tenderness
abnormal movement
contusion/ecchymosis
crepitus (rubbing together)
local shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

treatment of fractures

A

splint/ immobilization immediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

three objectives for treatment of fractures

A
reduction
-closed vs open
immobilization
-external vs internal
preservation and restoration of function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

steps of bone healing

A

hematoma
fibrocartilaginous callus granulation
bony callus formation - ossification
remodelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

hematoma formation

A
most important
1-2 hematoma
2-5 hematoma
initiates cellular events
7-clotting factors present
release of growth hormones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

fibrocartagious callus granulation

A
after day 7 
fibroblasts
-produce collagen
-differentiate into chondrocytes
osteoblasts
-fibrocartilage collar
19
Q

bony calls formation

A

3-4 weeks

ossification

20
Q

fat embolism syndrome

A

from the presence of fat droplets in the small blood vessels of the lungs or other organs after lone bone fracture or complication of major trauma

21
Q

clinical manifestations of fat embolism syndrome

A
3-4 days post injury
subtle change in behavior
respiratory failure
-dyspnea with tachycardia
-pallor and cyanosis
cerebral dysfunction 
sub-sternal chest pain
low grade pain
diaphoresis 
2-3 days non blanchable petechia rash
22
Q

osteomyelitis

A

ACUTE OR CHRONIC INFECTION OF bone and bone marrow by a parasite, bacteria, virus, or fungus

23
Q

endogenous osteomyelitis

A

via blood stream
cutaneous, sinus, ear dental infections
children and teens

24
Q

exogenous osteomyelitis

A

direct penetration or contamination

extension of adjacent site

25
Q

most common bacteria causing osteomyelitis

A

staphlococcus aureus

  • adheres to connective tissues
  • invades and survives in cells (osteoblasts)
26
Q

osteomyelitis pathogenesis

A

invasion of pathogenen

27
Q

benign bone tumors

A

limited to bone
origin
-fibrous tumors
-cartilaginous tumors (more of an issue)

28
Q

Malignant bone tumors

A

metastatic bone CA

29
Q

osteosarcoma

A
20% of all primary bone tumors
bimodal distribution 
-young
-elderly
aggressive 
deep pain-night time wakening
tx-chemo/surgery
30
Q

chondrosarcoma

A
cartilage tumor
slow growing
late metastasis
often painless
tx
-radical surgical intervention
-resistant to chemo/radiation
31
Q

cardinal signs of scoliosis

A
  • one or both shoulder blades protrude
  • misshaped to rib cage
  • waist may appear uneven or hips elevated
  • torso appears to lean
32
Q

treatment guidelines for scoliosis

A

10 degrees -brace

>40 -surgery

33
Q

intervertebral disk disorder clinical manifestations

A

sciatic pain

34
Q

red flags of back pain

A
  • gradual onset
  • pain when laying down
  • pain when sitting or straight
  • rapidly evolving neurological deficits
  • bowel/bladder
  • impotence
  • bilateral leg weakness
  • numb saddle area
35
Q

osteoporosis

A

metabolic bone disease characterized by decrease in bone density, bone strength, bone matrix and mineralization

36
Q

risk factors for osteoporosis-primary

A
genetic
hormone levels-estrogen
sedentary life style
lack of calcium intake or absorption
race
body size
age
37
Q

risk factors for osteoporosis - secondary

A

endocrine disorders

  • hyperthyroidism
  • hyperparathyroidism
  • DM
  • cushings
  • malignancies
  • ETOH
  • corticosteroid use
  • female athlete triad-eating disorder, intense training, amenorrhea=osteoporosis
38
Q

osteoporosis pathogenesis

A

increase in osteoclasts activity

decrease in osteoblasts activity

39
Q

clinical manifestations

A
silent disorder
fractures 
-vertebrae compression
-hips & pelvis
loss of height
kyphosis
40
Q

treatment of osteoporosis

A

prevention -nutrition activity

current

41
Q

pathogenesis of osteoarthritis-djd

A

wear and tear

42
Q

clinical manifestations of osteoarthritis-djd

A
joint pain
-pain worse with activiy
-gelling
crepritus-joint locking
progressive from a single joint
joint enlargement -hardened
43
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

chronic autoimmune systemic disease with synovial joint inflammation and destruction

44
Q

what causes rheumatoid arthritis

A

genetic predisposition
immunologically initiated
-tcell mediated response to virus / bacteria