Musculoskeletal Disorders of the Upper Limb Flashcards

1
Q

tests for anterior glenohumeral joint instability.

A

Anterior Apprehension and Relocation Tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

patient is placed in the supine position. The examiner abducts the patient’s shoulder 90 degrees and flexes the elbow 90 degrees.

A

Anterior Apprehension and Relocation Tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

patient is placed in the supine position. The examiner abducts the patient’s shoulder 90 degrees and flexes the elbow 90 degrees. The examiner uses one hand to slowly externally rotate the patient’s humerus using the patient’s forearm as the lever. At the same time, the examiner’s other hand is placed posterior to the patient’s proximal humerus and exerts an anteriorly directed force on the humeral head

A

Anterior Apprehension and Relocation Tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Anterior Apprehension and Relocation Tests

considered positive if

A

feeling of impending anterior dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

from anterior apprehension test
the examiner removes the hand from behind the proximal humerus and places it over the anterior proximal humerus and then exerts a posteriorly directed force, and the patient subsequently reports a reduction in apprehension, this has occurred

A

positive relocation test has occurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

test evaluates posterior glenohumeral joint stability.

A

Posterior Apprehension Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

patient’s affected shoulder is forward flexed to 90 degrees and then maximally internally rotated. A posteriorly directed force is then placed on the patient’s elbow by the examine

A

Posterior Apprehension Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Posterior Apprehension Test

positive test

A

50% or greater posterior translation of the humeral head or a feeling of apprehension in the patien

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

used to evaluate inferior glenohumeral joint instability

A

Sulcus Sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

patient is seated or standing with the arm relaxed in shoulder adduction. The patient’s forearm is grasped by the examiner, and a distal traction force is placed through the patient’s arm.

A

Sulcus Sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In the presence of i rior instability
in sulcus sign
+ test is

A

sulcus will develop between the humeral head and the acromion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

evaluates for acromioclavicular (AC) joint and labral abnormalities

A

O’Brien Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The shoulder is flexed to 90 degrees with the elbow fully extended. The arm is then adducted 15 degrees, and the shoulder is internally rotated so that the patient’s thumb is pointing down. The examiner applies a downward force against the arm, which the patient is instructed to resist. The shoulder is then externally rotated so that the patient’s palm is facing up, and the examiner applies a downward force on the patient’s arm, which the patient is instructed to resist

A

O’Brien Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A positive test result is indi cated by pain during the first part of the maneuver with the patient’s thumb pointing down, which is then lessened or eliminated when the patient resists a downward force with the palm facing up

A

O’Brien Test1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

+ result obrient test

A

A positive test result is indi cated by pain during the first part of the maneuver with the patient’s thumb pointing down, which is then lessened or eliminated when the patient resists a downward force with the palm facing up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Obrien test

Pain in the region of the AC joint indicates

A

AC pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pain or painful clicking deep inside the shoulder suggests

A

labral pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The shoulder is passively flexed to 90 degrees and then horizontally adducted across the chest.

A

Horizontal Adduction Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

+ test

Horizontal Adduction Test

A

Pain located in the region of the AC joint- suggests AC joint pathology

posterior shoulder pain suggests posterior capsular tightness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

test is for biceps tendonitis

A

Speed’s Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

patient’s shoulder is forward flexed to 90 degrees with the elbow fully extended and the palm facing up. The examiner applies a downward force against the patient’s active resistance.

A

Speed’s Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

+ pain

speed’s test means

A

Pain in the region of the bicipital groove suggests bicipital tendonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

With the patient’s arm at the side, the elbow is flexed to 90 degrees and the forearm is pronated. The patient then tries to simultaneously supinate the forearm and externally rotate the shoulder against the examiner’s resistance.

A

Yergason’s Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This test can provoke bicipital region pain in patients with bicipital tendonitis, and a painful “pop” in patients with bicipital tendon instability.

A

Yergason’s Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

patient’s shoulder is internally rotated while at the side. The examiner passively forward flexes the patient’s shoulder to 180 degrees while maintaining internal rotation. Pain in the subacromial area suggests rotator cuff tendonitis.

A

Neer-Walsh Impingement Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The patient’s shoulder and elbow are each passively flexed to 90 degrees, respectively. The examiner then grasps the patient’s forearm, stabilizes the patient’s scapulothoracic joint, and uses the forearm as a lever arm to internally rotate the glenohumeral joint.

A

Hawkins-Kennedy Impingement Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A positive test result is i cated by pain in the subacromial region occurring with the internal rotation.

A

Hawkins-Kennedy Impingement Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The examiner passively abducts the patient’s shoulder 90 degrees. The patient is then asked to slowly lower the arm back to the side. A positive test result is indicated by pain and an inability to slowly lower the arm to the side, suggesting a rotator cuff tear.

A

Drop Arm Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Shoulder special tests

A
Anterior Apprehension and Relocation Tests
Posterior Apprehension Test
Sulcus Sign
O’Brien Test
Horizontal Adduction Test
Speed’s Test
Yergason’s Test
Neer-Walsh Impingement Test
Hawkins-Kennedy Impingement Test
Drop Arm Test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

patient is asked to fully extend the elbow, pronate the forearm, and make a fist. The examiner then resists the patient’s attempt to extend and radially deviate the wrist. Pain over the lateral epicondyle represents a positive test result and suggests the presence of lateral epicondylitis.

A

Cozen’s Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

examiner flexes the patient’s elbow 20 to 30 degrees and stabilizes the patient’s arm by placing a hand at the elbow and a hand on the distal forearm. Varus and valgus forces are placed across the elbow by the examiner to test the stability of the radial and ulnar collateral ligaments (UCL), respectively.

A

Ligamentous Instability Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Wrist and Hand Special Tests

A

Finkelstein Test

Watson Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

This test is used to detect tenosynovitis of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons (de Quervain’s tenosynovitis).

A

Finkelstein Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The patient makes a fist with the thumb inside the fingers, and the examiner passively deviates the wrist in an ulnar direction

A

Finkelstein Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

test assesses scapholunate stability.

A

Watson Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The patient’s wrist begins in an ulnarly deviated position. The examiner places a dorsally directed force against the proximal volar pole of the scaphoid. The examiner then radially deviates the wrist while continuing to place the same force against the scaphoid. A “pop” or subluxation of the scaphoid indicates a positive test result.

A

Watson Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

stage of rehabilitation focuses on reducing the patient’s symptoms and facilitating tissue healing. In specific circumstances, immobilization through splinting or casting might be used

A

acute stage of rehabilitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

core strengthening and aerobic conditioning should be emphasized during this phase of rehabilitation

A

acute stage of rehabilitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Kinetic chain deficits should be identified and treated during the

A

acute r bilitation stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

can be used for acute injuries to decrease pain, inflammation, muscle guarding, edema, and local blood flow

A

cryotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

increases blood flow, reduces muscle “spasm,” reduces pain, and can be used in the acute phase of rehabilitation for chronic injuries.

A

Heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

often used during the acute phase of rehabilitation to reduce muscle guarding and increase local circulation.

A

High-frequency electrical stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

might be required for pain control during the acute phase of rehabilitation.

A

Opioid and nonopioid analgesics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Randomized, placebo-controlled trials have demonstrated reduced pain, edema, and tenderness, and a faster return to activity in

A

NSAID-treated athletes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

can cause significant gastrointestinal, renal, c vascular, hematologic, dermatologic, and neurologic side effects

A

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

NSAIDs should be used only if

A

if local physical modalities and less toxic medications such as acetaminophen are not effective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

for pain control and reduction of inflammation during the acute phase of rehabilitation

A

Oral and injected corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

side effects include suppression of the hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis, osteoporosis, avascular necrosis, infection, and tendon or ligament rupture.

A

Oral and injected corticosteroids h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

when the pain has been adequately controlled and tissue healing has occurred

A

patient can advance to the recovery phase of r bilitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

recovery phase of rehabilitation indicated by

A

full pain-free ROM and the ability to participate in strengthening exercises for the injured limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

emphasis of the recovery phase of rehabilitation involves the

A

restoration of flexibility, strength, and proprioception in the injured limb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

should be corrected in recovery phase of rehabilitation

A

Strength and flexibility imbalances and m tive movement patterns and muscle substitutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

can be beneficial when correcting strength imbalances

A

Open kinetic chain exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

are frequently used to provide joint stabilization through muscle co-contraction

A

closed chain exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Sternoclavicular joint dislocations account for less than % of all joint dislocations

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Two thirds of s lar joint dislocations occur

A

anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Two thirds of s lar joint dislocations occur anteriorly, whereas one third of dislocations occur

A

posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

can cause the medial end of the clavicle to become more prominent

A

Anterior sternoclavicular joint injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

typically have more pain with a less prominent medial clavicular end.

A

posterior joint injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

can also be associated with vascular compromise to the ipsilateral upper limb, neck and upper limb venous congestion, difficulty breathing, or difficulty swallowing. Sternoclavicular joint dislocations

A

Posterior dislocations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Ligament injuries are commonly graded on a scale of

A

1 to 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The presence of tenderness at the sternoclavicular joint without subluxation or dislocation indicates a

A

grade 1 injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

tenderness with subluxation

at the sternoclavicular joint

A

grade 2 injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

tenderness with associated dislocation
at the sternoclavicular joint
indicates

A

grade 3 injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

radiologic evaluation of sternoclavicular joint i ries includes an

A

anteroposterior radiograph of the chest or sternoclavicular joint and a serendipity view, which involves a 40-degree cephalic tilt view of the sternoclavicular joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

frequently used for definitive evaluation of sternoclavicular joint injuries.

A

computed t phy (CT) scan

67
Q

treatment of grade 1 and 2 injuries

sternoclavicular joint

A

nonoperative

Sling immobilization

68
Q

grade 1 and 2 injuries

Activity can progress as tolerated with an anticipated return to activity after

A

activity after 1 to 2 weeks for a grade 1 injury and 4 to 6 weeks for a grade 2 injury.

69
Q

Grade 3 sternoclavicular joint sprains frequently can be treated

A

nonoperatively

unstable postreduction - surgical intervention

70
Q

Because c tions frequently arise with grade 3 posterior dislocations, a thorough evaluation to rule out

A

pulmonary or vascular damage should be undertaken

71
Q

If mediastinal compression is present, posterior grade 3 dislocations require

A

immediate surgical intervention

72
Q

Because of the significant risk of vascular complications, posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocations should be reduced in the

A

hospital setting with a vascular surgeon present.

73
Q

A majority of clavicular fractures occur in childhood and adults less than

A

25 years of age

74
Q

Eighty percent of clavicular fractures occur in the

A

middle third of the clavicle

75
Q

clavicular fractures

15% occur in the

A

lateral one third

76
Q

clavicular fractures

5%

A

medial one third

77
Q

Most clavicular fractures occur as a result of a

A

blow to the point of the shoulder, but a small percentage occur from a fall onto an outstretched arm

78
Q

Clavicle Fractures

important to rule out

A

associated neurovascular and pulmonary injuries

79
Q

type of radiograph

usually adequate for visualization of clavicular middle third fractures

A

Routine anteroposterior radiographs

80
Q

type of radiograph used for proximal third fractures

A

serendipity view + Routine anteroposterior radiographs

81
Q

When a lateral third fracture is suspected

radiograph

A

15-degree cephalic tilt anteroposterior view centered on the AC joint using a soft tissue technique (Zanca view) and an axillary lateral view are usually diagnostic when combined with anteroposterior radiographs

82
Q

clavicular fractures

what imaging if more definitive evaluation is required

A

CT scanning

83
Q

If the clavicular fracture has good alignment

treatment of choice

A

partial immobilization is the treatment of choice using an immobilization device such as a sling or figure-of-eight bandage

84
Q

If 15 to 20 mm of shortening occurs as a result of displacement (clavicular fracture)
tx

A

surgical intervention should be considered

85
Q

Other common indications for surgical intervention

clavicular fractures

A

15 to 20 mm of shortening occurs as a result of displacement
displaced fractures with tissue interposition between the fracture ends, open fractures, neurovascular compromise, tenting of the skin over the fracture site that might lead to tissue necrosis, and displaced fractures located in the lateral third of the clavicle.

86
Q

account for only 9% of all shoulder i ries, are most frequent in males in their third decade of life

A

AC joint sprains

87
Q

AC joint sprains

Most injuries occur as a result of

A

direct trauma from a fall or blow to the acromion

88
Q

point tenderness, a positive horizontal adduction test, and a positive O’Brien test.

A

AC joint sprains

89
Q

Positive test: pain and inability to slowly lower the arm to the side

•Suggesting a rotator cuff tear

The examiner passively abducts the patient’s shoulder 90 degrees. The patient is then asked to slowly lower the arm back to the side.

A

Drop Arm Test

90
Q

arus and valgus forces test the stability of the radial and ulnar collateral ligaments (UCL)

A

Ligamentous Instability Test

91
Q

The examiner flexes the patient’s elbow 20 to 30 degrees and stabilizes the patient’s arm by placing a hand at the
•elbow and a hand on the distal forearm.
•Varus and valgus forces are placed across the elbow by the examiner to test the stability of the radial and ulnar collateral ligaments
•(UCL), respectively.

A

Ligamentous Instability Test

92
Q

•Distal segment is fixed or stabilized relative to proximal segment

A

Closed Kinetic Chain exercises

93
Q

•Distal segment is mobile and not fixed

A

Open Kinetic Chain exercises

94
Q

injured limb has regained 75% to 80% of normal strength compared with the uninjured limb
•no strength and flexibility imbalances
•address maladaptive movement patterns and muscle substitutions
•full strength should be obtained

A

Functional stage

95
Q

rockwood classification

A

ac joint sprain

96
Q

sprains involve a mild injury to the AC ligaments, and radiologic evaluation is normal

A

Type 1

97
Q

injuries involve the complete disruption of the AC ligaments but with intact coracoclavicular ligaments

A

type 2

Radiographs might demonstrate clavicular elevation relative to the acromion but less than 25% displacement

98
Q

sprains result in the complete disruption of the AC and coracoclavicular ligaments, but the deltotrapezial fascia
•remains intact. Radiographs reveal a 25% to 100% increase in the coracoclavicular interspace relative to the normal

A

Type 3

99
Q

sprains involve complete disruption of the coracoclavicular and AC ligaments, with posterior displacement
•of the distal clavicle into the trapezius muscle

A

type 4

100
Q

coracoclavicular and AC ligaments are fully disrupted along with a rupture of the deltotrapezial
•fascia. This results in an increase in the coracoclavicular interspace to to greater than 100% of the normal shoulder.

A

type 5

101
Q

sprains involve complete disruption of the coracoclavicular and AC ligaments, as well as the deltotrapezial
•muscular attachments, with displacement of the distal clavicle below the acromion or the coracoid process.

A

type 6

102
Q

Type 1, 2, and 3 AC joint sprains are usually treated

A

non-operatively

•A brief period of sling immobilization might be required for pain control

103
Q

Indications for surgical intervention for type 3 sprain

AC

A
  • persistent pain

* unsatisfactory cosmetic results

104
Q

Type 4, 5, or 6 sprains

AC

A

require surgical treatment

105
Q

snapping scapula or scapular crepitus

•The three primary types of sound:

A

gentle friction sound
loud grating sound
loud snapping

106
Q

scapula sound

physiologic

A

gentle friction sound

107
Q
scapula
sound
•Causes:
•suggests soft tissue disease
•bursitis
•fibrotic muscle
•muscular atrophy
•anomalous muscular insertion
excessive thoracic kyphosis
•thoracic scoliosis
•scapulothoracic dyskinesis
•scapular winging
A

Loud grating sound

108
Q
sound, scapule
caused by bony pathology such:
•osteophyte
•a rib or scapular osteochondroma
•hooked superomedial angle of the scapula
•malunion of rib fractures
A

Loud snapping

109
Q

Injuries to the rotator cuff

causes

A

repetitive microtrauma and outlet impingement between the acromion and greater tuberosity of the humerus

110
Q

category rotator cuff injury

A

neer

bigliani

111
Q

rotator cuff injury

inflammation and edema

A

stage 1

112
Q

RC injury

fibrosis and tendonitis

A

stage 2

113
Q

partial or complete rotator cuff tear occurred

A

stage 3

114
Q

found a relationship between the acromial shape and the presence of rotator cuff tears

A

Bigliani

115
Q

acromions into three types

flat

A

type 1

116
Q

acromions into three types

curve

A

type 2

117
Q

acromions into three types

hook

A

type 3

118
Q

shape acromion inc incidence

A

progress type 1-> 3

119
Q

rotator cuff tear

acute rehabilitation stage

A

Strengthening exercises for the scapular stabilizing muscles rather than the rotator cuff should be emphasized in the acute rehabilitation stage
•Specifically, strengthening muscles that retract and depress the scapula (e.g., serratus anterior and inferior trapezius)
•Stretching muscles that protract and elevate the scapula (e.g., pectoralis minor and upper trapezius

120
Q

Characterized by painful, restricted shoulder ROM in patients with normal radiographs
•occurs in 2% to 5% of the general population
•2 to 4 times more common in women than men
•Most frequently seen in individuals between 40 and 60 years of age

A

Adhesive capsulitis

121
Q

Adhesive capsulitis

etiology

A
idiopathic condition but can be associated with
•Diabetes mellitus
•Inflammatory arthritis
•Trauma
•Prolonged immobilization
•Thyroid disease
•Cerebrovascular accident
•Myocardial infarction
•Autoimmune disease
122
Q

occurs for the first 1 to 3 months and involves pain with shoulder movements but no significant
•glenohumeral joint ROM restriction when examined under anesthesia

A

Stage 1

123
Q

“freezing stage,” symptoms have been present for 3 to 9 months and are characterized by pain
•with shoulder motion and progressive glenohumeral joint ROM restriction in forward flexion,
•abduction, and internal and external rotation.

A

stage 2

124
Q

or the “frozen stage,” symptoms have been present for 9 to 15 months and include a
•significant reduction in pain but maintenance of the restricted glenohumeral joint ROM

A

stage 3

125
Q

stage 1,2 adhesive capsulitis

tx

A

physical modalities, analgesics, and activity modification to reduce pain and inflammation
•Up to three intraarticular corticosteroid injections can be used during stages 1 and 2 of adhesive capsulitis to reduce inflammation and pain, facilitate rehabilitation, and shorten the duration of this condition

126
Q

common tendinopathy of the lateral elbow and is frequently referred to as tennis elbow
•more common in patients more than 35 years of age and peaks in those between 40 and 50 years old
•It is more common in male than in female tennis players

A

LATERAL EPICONDYLITIS

127
Q

pathologic changes are not inflammatory but rather degenerative
•A more appropriate term for this condition is lateral epicondylosis rather than epicondylitis
•The degenerative changes occur most commonly in the origin of the extensor carpi radialis brevis but also involve the extensor digitorum communis origin

A

lateral epicondylitis

128
Q

The backhand swing in tennis frequently exacerbates the symptoms and also gripping and activities that require repetitive wrist extension and forearm pronation and supination
•Physical examination can reveal point tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and a positive Cozen’s test

A

LATERAL EPICONDYLITIS

129
Q

Lateral epicondylitis tx

A

discontinuation of provocative activities
•oral analgesics
•physical modalities
•Orthosis
•lateral counter-force strap or neutral wrist splint
•eccentric strengthening of the wrist extensors appears to be the most effective exercise regimen

130
Q

stenosing tenosynovitis
•Shear and repetitive microtrauma in the first dorsal compartment of the wrist
•contains the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons
•most common tendonitis of the wrist
•most frequently seen in patients who perform activities requiring forceful gripping with ulnar deviation of the wrist or repetitive use of the thumb

A

De Quervain’s Syndrome

131
Q

is performed by placing the patient’s elbow in extension, with the forearm in neutral rotation and the
•wrist in radial deviation.
•The patient should be asked to place the thumb in the palm and grip the thumb with the fingers.
•The examiner should then passively bring the wrist into ulnar deviation.

A

Finkelstein’s

132
Q

tx de quervain

A
  • Rest
  • Modalities
  • Analgesics
  • thumb spica splint
  • corticosteroid injection
133
Q

Approximately 6% of all fractures involve the carpal bones

•70% of carpal fractures involve th

A

scaphoid

134
Q

primary restraint to excessive wrist extension and is therefore prone to injury

A

scaphoid

135
Q

The scaphoid receives its blood supply from a branch of the

A

radial artery that enters the scaphoid through its distal pole

136
Q

Consequently, proximal or middle third fractures of the scaphoid are prone to

A

to avascular necrosis and nonunion as a result of a disruption in the blood supply

137
Q
  • For non-displaced middle and proximal third fractures

* first 6 weeks

A

immobilization with a long arm–thumb spica cast

•switched to a short arm–thumb spica cast after 6 weeks for 12 to 20 weeks depending on radiographic union

138
Q

Fracture occurs in the distal third of the scaphoid

A

Immobilization with short arm–thumb spica cast for 10 and 12 weeks

139
Q

scaphoid fracture

Radiographs should be repeated every

A

2 to 3 weeks until radiographic union is documented

140
Q

most frequently fractured area of the body

•MOI: falling on an extended wrist

A

Distal Radial Fractures

141
Q

fracture called the Colles fracture

A

Frykman type 1 fracture

142
Q

extraarticular fractures
distal radial
frykman

A

types 1 and 2

143
Q

intraarticular fractures involving the radiocarpal joint
distal radial
frykman

A

types 3 and 4

144
Q

intraarticular fractures involving the radioulnar joint

A

types 5 and 6

145
Q

intraarticular fractures that involve both the radioulnar and radiocarpal joints

A

types 7 and 8

146
Q

Minimally displaced Frykman type 1 or 2 fractures can be managed with

A

closed reduction and immobilization with a double sugar-tong splint

147
Q

Frykman type 3 fractures or higher should be

A

referred to an orthopedist for management

148
Q

rupture of the central slip of the extensor tendon at the base of the middle phalanx that results in a boutonnière injury

A

Extensor Tendon Central Slip Disruption

149
Q

characterized by the inability to actively extend the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint

A

Boutonnière injury

150
Q

This deformity can occur in patients with uncontrolled rheumatoid arthritis

A

Boutonnière injury

151
Q

Boutonnière injury

tx

A

within approximately 6 weeks
•continuous extension splinting of the PIP joint for 5 to 6 weeks

educate the patient
•a single episode of PIP joint flexion can prevent successful treatment
•compliance is critical

152
Q

If the patient is not able to regain significant PIP joint extension ROM

A

surgical intervention to repair the extensor mechanism can be warranted

153
Q

Disruption of the distal extensor tendon at its insertion on the dorsal proximal aspect of the distal phalanx
•caused by a tendon rupture or an avulsion fracture of the dorsal proximal distal phalanx
•(+) DIP joint pain and the inability to extend the DIP joint

A

Mallet finger

154
Q

DIP joint in a flexed position that the patient is unable to extend actively

A

Mallet finger

155
Q

mallet finger

tx

A

treatment is usually nonoperative:
•splinting the DIP joint in extension 24 hr/ day for 6 to 8 weeks:
•Dorsal padded aluminum splint
• Volar aluminum splint without a pad
•Stack splint
never allowing DIP flexion during this period because any flexion can prevent adequate healing and predispose to a permanent extension lag

156
Q

mallet finger

large avulsion

A

surgical intervention can be required

157
Q

occurs with vigorous gripping activities
•“jersey finger”
•flexor digitorum tendon to the ring finger has a lower breaking strength than the other FDP tendons
•Sudden severe pain, frequently associated with a “pop”

A

Flexor Digitorum Profundus Rupture

•Distal disruption of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon

158
Q

The patient will subsequently be unable to actively flex the affected DIP joint.

A

Flexor Digitorum Profundus Rupture

•Distal disruption of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon

159
Q

Flexor Digitorum Profundus Rupture
•Distal disruption of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon
tx

A

surgical
tendon has retracted to the palm
•repair should be performed within 7 to 10 days
•If the tendon does not retract below the PIP joint
•repair can be performed within 6 to 8 weeks of the injury

160
Q

is the most frequently dislocated joint in the hand

A

PIP joint

161
Q

Associated injuries include
•radial and UCL sprains, central slip injuries, partial volar plate injuries, and fracture
•usually presents with deformity, pain, ecchymosis, and edema
•Physical examination
•reveals tenderness to palpation over the injured structures

A

Proximal Interphalangeal Joint Dislocations

162
Q

Proximal Interphalangeal Joint Dislocations tx

A

45-degree extension block splint of the PIP joint

•angle can be reduced by 10 degrees each week with a return to full extension in the fifth week

163
Q

Surgical indications for PIP joint injuries

A

radiologic or gross instability after reduction
•fractures involving greater than 50% of the articular surface
•inability to reduce the dislocation
•pilon fractures