Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

NPTE > Musculoskeletal > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

toe raises - nerves

A

S1, tibial n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Heel walking tests what nerves

A

L4, 5, deep fibular n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

hip flexion - nerve

A

L1, 2; femoral n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

knee extension - nerve

A

L3, 4; femoral n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

dorsiflexion - nerve

A

L4, 5; deep fibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

big toe extension - nerve

A

L5; deep fibular n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ankle eversion - nerve

A

L5, S1; superficial fibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Patellar Tendon DTR tests:

A

L3, 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Achilles Tendon DTR tests:

A

S1, 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

C/S Rotation - nerve

A

C1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Shoulder elevation - nerve

A

C2, 3, 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Shoulder abduction - nerve

A

C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

elbow flexion - nerve

A

C5-C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Elbow extension - nerve

A

C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

wrist flexion - nerve

A

C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Wrist extension - nerve

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

thumb extension - nerve

A

C8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Finger abduction - nerve

A

T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MMT grades (numbers v words)

A 
5 - normal
4 - good
3 - fair
2 - poor
1 - trace
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Biceps DTR tests:

A

C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Brachioradialis DTR tests

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Triceps DTR tests:

A

C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

SLR c Tibial n bias

A

DF and Eversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

SLR c Fibular n bias

A

PF and Inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

SLR c Sural n bias

A

DF and Inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

forward flexion test for SIJ

A

palpate both PSISs, the one that moves first or farthest is the blocked or (+) side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Gillet’s test

A

Normal PSIS will move inferiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Long sitting test for rotated inominate: what will you see c anterior rotated? posterior rotated?

A

anterior rot inom: longer supine, shorter sitting

posterior rot inom: shorter supine, longer sitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

prone knee bend tests which n roots?

A

femoral n: L1-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

SLR tests which n roots?

A

sciatic: L4-S3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

SIJ cluster

A

3/5 need to be positive. Distraction, thigh thrust, Gaenslen’s, sacral thrust, compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Shoulder impingement tests

A

neer, hawkins kennedy, painful arc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

RC special tests

A

drop arm test, ERLS, IR lag sign, lift off, belly press

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Shoulder Instability special tests

A

Sulcus sign, anterior apprehension test, relocation test, anterior drawer test, jerk test for posterior instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

AC joint special tests

A

Horizontal adduction test, resisted horizontal extension test, o’brien’s sign, Paxinos sign, palp AC jt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Labrum shoulder special tests

A

Crank, biceps load I & II, pain provocation test, compression rotation, obrien’s active compression, resisted supination ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cubital tunnel special tests

A

pressure provocative test, flexion, tinel’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MCL tears special tests

A

Valgus stress at diff degrees of elbow flexion, moving valgus test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Lateral Epicondylitis special tests

A

mmt, mill’s test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Ligamentous instability of hand special tests

A

thumb ulnar collateral lig test, lunatetriquetral ballottment test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

osteochondritis dissecans - what is it?

A

separation of articular cartilage from bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

where does osteochondritis dissecans happen most frequently?

A

medial femoral condyle near intercondylar notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Osteomalacia - what is it? what causes it?

A

decalcification of bones

vit D deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Osteoporosis - what is it?

A

depleted BMD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Paget’s disease - what is it?

A

metabol bone disease: excessive bone reabsorption, then formation of fragile bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Paget’s disease - where?

A

spine, pelvis, femur, skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

patellofemoral dysfunction tests?

A

Q angle >18 deg; (+) chondromalacia test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

chondromalacia test - patellofemoral jt

A

compress patella, contract quadriceps mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Tx for PFP?!?

A

McConnell’s taping, VMO strengthening :(, stretch ITB & TFL, shoe inserts, x-friction massage at lateral retinaculum, pat mobs

50
Q

Scleroderma/progressive systemic sclerosis - what is it?

A

fibrosis and changes in organs & skin, sometimes c raynaud’s

51
Q

Scleroderma - symptoms

A

polyarthralgia early, heartburn, dyspnea, RF, problems in skin, GI, cardioresp, kidneys

52
Q

Scleroderma - Tx

A

ROM, meds, strengthening

53
Q

Pronator Teres synd - what is it?

A

median n entrapment

54
Q

Pronator Teres synd - test

A

resist pronation while elbow is extended

55
Q

RA onset

56
Q

RA - other manifestations

A

c/s (SC compression), cardio, pulm, GI, eye lesions, OP

57
Q

JRA - onset & symptoms

A

before 16yo, 75% complete remission

fever & rash

58
Q

scaphoid fx concern

A

poor vasc supply -> AVN

59
Q

scoliosis is named for

A

area and convexity of curve

60
Q

scoliosis sx considered c cobb angle

A

> 40-50 deg

61
Q

Sjorgren’s syndrom - what is it?

A

rheumatoid like disorder c dry mucous membranes, jt inflam, and anemia

62
Q

Smith’s Fx is what?

A

wrist, displaced ventrally (reverse colle’s)

63
Q

Smith’s fx is caused by

A

falling on flexed wrist

64
Q

Sprain - 1st degree

A

some fibers torn, stable joint

65
Q

Sprain - 2nd degree

A

portion of lig is torn, mod hemorrhaging, some fn.al loss, stable joint

66
Q

Sprain - 3rd degree

A

complete disruption/avulsion of lig, loss of fn, jt instability, pronounced hemorrhaging/swelling

67
Q

SLE symptoms

A

malaise, fatigue, arthralgia, fever, arthritis, butterfly rash, photosensitivity, anemia, hair loss, raynaud’s , kidney issues, vasculitis

68
Q

TMJ synovitis and capsulitis symptoms

A

Preauricular P, unable to close back teeth, <40mm opening bc of P, less P c rest

69
Q

TMJ hypermobility symptoms

A

jaw goes out of place, noises, >40mm opening

70
Q

March Fx of tibia - what is it? who gets it?

A

inferior 1/3, common in long walkers who aren’t used to long walks

71
Q

Spiral Fx of tibia - what is it? who gets it?

A

at jn of middle and inferior 1/3s, tibial torsion, skiers

72
Q

Compound Fx of tibia - how?

A

direct blow, bumper of car

73
Q

THR - precautions

A

hip flexion, adduction, IR c posterior approach

ER c anterior apporoach

74
Q

Severs disease

A

Sever’s disease (i.e., calcaneal apophysitis) is a painful bone disorder that results from inflammation of the growth plate in the heel. The disease MOST commonly occurs during adolescence and rarely occurs once an individual reaches skeletal maturity. The pain is typically located on the posterior surface of the calcaneus.

75
Q

Parafin melting point and specific heat

A

Paraffin has a low melting point that can be lowered further by adding mineral oil. As a result, paraffin can provide a more even distribution of heat to areas such as the fingers and toes. Paraffin also has a low specific heat which enhances a patient’s ability to tolerate heat from paraffin compared to heat from water at the same temperature.

76
Q

normal adult cadence

A

110-120 steps per min

77
Q

syme’s amputation

A

removal of foot with malleoli

78
Q

chapart’s amputation

A

disarticulation at mid tarsal

79
Q

golgi tendon is sensitive to

80
Q

comminuted fracture

A

breaks into pieces

81
Q

greenstick fracture

A

breaks on one side, no damage to periosteum

82
Q

X-ray

A

screen for bone and joint injuries, lung and heart disease, foreign objects

83
Q

MRI

A

visualization of soft tissues

84
Q

CT

A

imaging of bone and most soft tissues

85
Q

bone scan or bone scintigraphy

A

radionucleotide injected intravenously to visualize areas of increased metabolic activity. identifies stress fractures and tumors not detected on X-Ray

86
Q

what happens with hypertrophy

A

6-8 weeks
fibers enlarge
more actin and myosin
more and larger myofibrils

87
Q

Bells palsy symptoms

A

facial nerve 7

motor weakness of the muscles of facial expression, taste to anterior tounge, tearing, salvation

88
Q

Cold pack temp

A

A cold bath requires water temperature ranging from 55 to 64 degrees Fahrenheit.

89
Q

Hot pack temp

90
Q

Cervical traction initial starting weight

A

A force between 10 and 15 pounds is often used to initiate mechanical cervical traction. Seven percent of the patient’s body weight may be necessary for separation of the vertebrae.

91
Q

Dermatome testing: anterior thigh

92
Q

Dermatome testing: middle third of anterior thigh, medial knee

93
Q

Dermatome testing: patella and medial malleolus

94
Q

Dermatome testing: Fibular head and dorsum of foot, dorsal aspect for great toe

95
Q

Dermatome testing: Lateral and plantar aspect of foot

96
Q

Dermatome testing: medial aspect of posterior thigh, popliteal fossa

97
Q

Dermatome testing: Perianal area

98
Q

Dermatome testing: Posterior head

99
Q

Dermatome testing: Posterior lateral neck

100
Q

Dermatome testing: ACJ

101
Q

Dermatome testing: Lateral arm

102
Q

Dermatome testing: lateral forearm and thumb

103
Q

Dermatome testing: Palmar distal phalanx-middle finger

104
Q

Dermatome testing: Little finger and ulnar border of hand

105
Q

Dermatome testing: medial forearm

106
Q

resistance training for muscular endurance

A

< 70 % 1RM
12-20 reps
1-3 sets
20-30 seconds between sets

107
Q

resistance training for hypertrophy and strength

A

70-80% 1RM
8-12 reps
1-6 sets
30-120 seconds between sets

108
Q

resistance training for max strength

A

80-100% 1RM
1-8 reps
1-5+ sets
2-5 minutes between sets

109
Q

ISAD- negative ions used in ionto

A

iodine, salicylate, acetic acid/acetate, dexamethasone

110
Q

home adjustments for: ramp rise, toilet seat height, doorway clearance, handlebar placement

A

1:12 rise
raise toilet to 17-19 inches
32 inches doorway clearance (36 is ideal)
handle bar height should be 33-36 inches

111
Q

forces for traction of the lumbar spine

A

minimum initial: 25%

25% for split table, 50% for non-split table

112
Q

biofeedback electrode placement and sensitivity settings`

A

For WEAK MUSCLES: place electrodes widely apart and use high sensitivity settings to increase detection (for single weak muscle place them close together for more precise signal detection). As motor recruitment improves decrease sensitivity, making it more difficult to produce an audiovisual signal.

For OVER ACTIVE MUSCLES: place electrodes close together with low sensitivity to minimize cross-talk. Progress from low to high sensitivity.

113
Q

Isokinetic exercise

A

provides maximum resistance throughout all points of ROM as muscle contracts. Has speed control

114
Q

Isotonic exercise

A

can have constant (free weights) or variable (machines) load as the muscle lengthens/shortens through ROM. Speed can be variable

115
Q

breathing L/min

A

6 at rest

max exercise 200 L/min

116
Q

muscle spindle

A

monitors velocity an length changes in muscle

117
Q

alpha motor neurons

A

stimulated by a quick stretch and facilitates muscle contraction via monosynaptic stretch reflex (can increase tension in muscle to be stretched)

118
Q

GTO

A

inhibits contraction of muscle when exercise tension develops (inhibits alpha motor neurons via autogenic inhabition) allowing muscle to lengthen (stretch protection reflex)

119
Q

supine to long sit test

A

the leg at the side of the posterior rotation will be shorter in supine position and longer in sitting position

120
Q

how to stretch lumbricals

A

The lumbricals contract to a shortened position of metacarpophalangeal flexion and interphalangeal extension. Thus, metacarpophalangeal extension and interphalangeal flexion would best stretch the muscles.

NPTE (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions