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Muscular system > muscualar system > Flashcards

muscualar system Flashcards

1
Q 
Voluntary muscle tissue is
1.	Voluntary muscle tissue is;
A)	dense regular.
B)	smooth muscle.
C)	skeletal muscle.
D)	cardiac muscle.
E)	dense irregular.
A

C) skeletal muscle.

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2
Q 
1.	Endomysium covers:
A)	myofibrils.
B)	an entire muscle.
C)	smooth muscles only.
D)	fascicles of muscle cells.
E)	an individual muscle cell.
A

E) an individual muscle cell.

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3
Q 
1.	The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle cell is called the:
A)	sarcomere.
B)	sarcoplasm.
C)	sarcolemma.
D)	myofilament.
E)	sarcoplasmic reticulum.
A

C) sarcolemma.

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4
Q 
1.	Smooth muscle cells are:
A)	striated.
B)	branched.
C)	cylindrical.
D)	involuntary.
E)	multinucleate.
A

D) involuntary.

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5
Q 
1.	Which type of muscle tissue responds the fastest to stimulations to contract:
A)	cardiac.
B)	smooth.
C)	tendons.
D)	skeletal.
E)	visceral.
A

D) skeletal.

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6
Q 
1.	Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system:
A)	haematopoiesis.
B)	generation of heat.
C)	stabilization of joints.
D)	maintenance of posture.
E)	production of movement.
A

A) haematopoiesis.

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7
Q
  1. A sarcomere is:
    A) a compartment in a myofilament.
    B) the contractile unit between two Z discs.
    C) the area between two intercalated discs.
    D) the non-functional unit of skeletal muscles.
    the wavy lines on the cell, as seen in a microscope
A

B) the contractile unit between two Z discs.

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8
Q 
1.	Which one of the following is composed of myosin protein:
A)	Z discs.
B)	light bands.
C)	thin filaments.
D)	thick filaments.
E)	all myofilaments.
A

D) thick filaments.

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9
Q
  1. The light and dark banding pattern send in striated muscle, like skeletal muscle, originate from:
    A) repetitive z discs.
    B) alternating light and dark bands.
    C) layers of thick and thin filaments.
    D) presence of H zones and Z discs.
    E) organization of M lines, H zones, and Z discs.
A

B) alternating light and dark bands.

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10
Q
  1. Why are calcium ions necessary for skeletal muscle contraction:
    A) calcium causes ATP binding to actin.
    B) calcium releases the inhibition on Z discs.
    C) calcium triggers the binding of myosin to actin.
    D) calcium increases the action potential transmitted along the sarcolemma.
    E) calcium binds to regulatory proteins on the myosin filaments, changing both their shape and their position on the thick filaments.
A

C) calcium triggers the binding of myosin to actin.

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11
Q
  1. The mechanical force of contraction is generated by:
    A) shortening of the thin filaments.
    B) shortening of the thick filaments.
    C) a sliding of thin filaments past thick ones.
    D) the temporary disappearance of thin filaments
    E) the “accordion-like” folding of thin and thick filaments
A

C) a sliding of thin filaments past thick ones.

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12
Q
  1. Acetylcholine is:
    A) an oxygen-binding protein.
    B) a component of thick myofilaments.
    C) a source of energy for muscle contraction.
    D) an ion pump on the postsynaptic membrane.
    E) a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle.
A

E) a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle.

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13
Q 
1.	The gap between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell is called the:
A)	motor unit.
B)	sarcomere.
C)	cross bridge.
D)	synaptic cleft.
E)	neuromuscular junction.
A

A) synaptic cleft.

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14
Q 
1.	Neurotransmitters are released upon stimulation from a nerve impulse by the:
A)	myofibrils.
B)	motor unit.
C)	thick filaments.
D)	sarcolemma of the muscle cell.
E)	axon terminals of the motor neuron.
A

E axon terminals of the motor neuron.

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15
Q 
1.	An elaborate and specialized network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that function in calcium storage is the:
A)	sarcolemma.
B)	mitochondria.
C)	myofibrillar network.
D)	sarcoplasmic reticulum.
E)	intermediate filament network.
A

D) sarcoplasmic reticulum.

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16
Q 
1.	During skeletal muscle contraction, myosin heads attach to active sites of:
A)	Z discs.
B)	the H zone.
C)	actin filaments.
D)	thick filaments.
E)	myosin filaments.
A

C) actin filaments.

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17
Q 
1.	Which of the following can actually shorten during a muscle contraction:
A)	A – bands.
B)	sarcomeres.
C)	myofilaments.
D)	actin filaments.
E)	myosin filaments.
A

B) sarcomeres.

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18
Q 
1.	A single, brief, jerky muscle contraction is termed:
A)	twitch.
B)	tetanus.
C)	isotonic.
D)	isometric.
E)	anaerobic.
A

A) twitch.

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19
Q
  1. Which of these events must occur first to trigger the skeletal muscle to generate an action potential and contract:
    A) sodium ions rush into the cell.
    B) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell
    C) operation of the sodium-potassium pump
    D) acetylcholine (ACh) causes temporary permeability to sodium.
    E) acetylcholinesterase (AchE) breaks down acetylcholine (ACh)
A

D) acetylcholine (ACh) causes temporary permeability to sodium.

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20
Q
  1. A skeletal muscle twitch differs from a tetanic contraction in that:
    A) the tetanic contraction is considered abnormal, while the twitch is a normal muscle response.
    B) the muscle twitch is prolonged and continuous while a tetanic contraction is brief and “jerky”.
    C) the muscle twitch occurs only in small muscles while a tetanic contraction occurs in large muscle groups.
    D) the muscle twitch is a brief and “jerky” movement, while the tetanic contraction is prolonged and continuous.
    A) the tetanic contraction is caused by a single stimulus, while the twitch is caused by very rapid multiple stimuli,
A

D) the muscle twitch is a brief and “jerky” movement, while the tetanic contraction is prolonged and continuous.

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21
Q
  1. Creatine phosphate (CP) functions within the muscle cells by:
    A) forming a chemical compound with actin.
    B) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin.
    C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments.
    D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed.
    E) storing energy that will be transferred to ATP to resynthesize ADP as needed.
A

D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed.

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22
Q
  1. The condition of skeletal muscle fatigue can be best explained by:
    A) the all-or-none law.
    B) a total lack of ATP.
    C) inadequate numbers of mitochondria.
    D) insufficient intracellular quantities of ATP due to excessive consumption.
    E) the inability to generate sufficient quantities of ATP due to feedback regulation of synthesis.
A

D) insufficient intracellular quantities of ATP due to excessive consumption.

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23
Q
  1. Isometric contractions produce:
    A) movement.
    B) contractions.
    C) muscle shortening.
    D) contractions and movement, but not shortening.
    E) contractions and shortening, but not movement.
A

B) contractions.

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24
Q 
1.	Anaerobic glycolysis occurs without:
A)	ATP.
B)	oxygen.
C)	glucose.
D)	lactic acid.
E)	carbon dioxide.
A

B) oxygen.

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25
Q
  1. Which of these pathways is the fastest way to regenerate ATP during muscle activity:
    A) aerobic respiration.
    B) oxidative phosphorylation.
    C) anaerobic glycolysis and lactic acid formation.
    D) both aerobic respiration and anaerobic glycolysis.
    E) direct phosphorylation of ADP by creatine phosphate.
A

E) direct phosphorylation of ADP by creatine phosphate.

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26
Q 
1.	The movement opposite to abduction is:
A)	flexion.
B)	rotation.
C)	adduction.
D)	supination.
E)	circumduction.
A

C) adduction.

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27
Q 
1.	Which of the following muscles closes the jaw:
A)	frontalis.
B)	buccinator.
C)	zygomaticus.
D)	sternocleidomastoid.
E)	both masseter and temporalis.
A

E) both masseter and temporalis.

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28
Q 
1.	Sandra is playing the piano for her recital. Which muscle is NOT involved in the movement of her hands and/or fingers:
A)	flexor carpi ulnaris.
B)	flexor carpi radialis.
C)	extensor digitorum.
D)	extensor carpi radialis.
E)	extensor digitorum longus.
A

E) extensor digitorum longus.

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29
Q 
1.	Which of these muscles is NOT located in the head:
A)	frontalis.
B)	sartorius.
C)	buccinator.
D)	zygomaticus.
E)	orbicularis oculi.
A

B) sartorius.

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30
Q 
1.	Which one of the following does NOT compress the abdomen:
A)	internal oblique.
B)	latissimus dorsi.
C)	external oblique.
D)	rectus abdominis.
E)	transverse abdominis.
A

B) latissimus dorsi.

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31
Q 
1.	A muscle located on the ventral (anterior) side of the body is the:
A)	occipitalis.
B)	gastrocnemius.
C)	gluteus medius.
D)	latissimus dorsi.
E)	pectoralis major.
A

D) latissimus dorsi?

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32
Q 
1.	A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling or blowing a trumpet called the:
A)	platysma.
B)	masseter.
C)	buccinator.
D)	temporalis.
E)	zygomaticus.
A

E) zygomaticus.

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33
Q 
1.	What is the main function of the quadriceps femoris group:
A)	arm flexion.
B)	foot inversion.
C)	thigh abduction.
D)	knee extension.
E)	hand supination.
A

D) knee extension.

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34
Q 
1.	A muscle group that works with and assists the action of a prime mover is a(n):
A)	fixator only.
B)	synergist only.
C)	antagonist only.
D)	antagonist and fixator.
E)	antagonist and synergist.
A

C) antagonist only.

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35
Q 
1.	Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in dorsiflexion and/or plantar flexion of the foot:
A)	soleus.
B)	iliopsoas.
C)	tibialis anterior.
D)	gastrocnemius.
E)	extensor digitorum longus.
A

B) iliopsoas.

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36
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the action of the orbicularis oris:
    A) closes the jaw.
    B) draws the eyebrows together.
    C) pulls the lower lip down and back.
    D) closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.
    E) allows blinking, squinting, and various other protective mechanisms for the eye.
A

D) closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.

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37
Q 
1.	Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the hip:
A)	sartorius
B)	iliopsoas
C)	biceps femoris
D)	gastrocnemius
E)	tibialis anterior
A

B) iliopsoas

38
Q 
1.	Which one of the following muscles is involved in abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint:
A)	deltoid.
B)	biceps brachii.
C)	triceps brachii.
D)	latissimus dorsi.
E)	pectoralis major.
A

A) deltoid.

39
Q 
1.	What is the origin of the deltoid muscle:
A)	distal humerus.
B)	proximal radius.
C)	proximal humerus.
D)	olecranon process of ulna.
E)	scapular spine and clavicle.
A

E) scapular spine and clavicle.

40
Q 
1.	While doing "jumping jacks" during an exercise class, your arms and legs move laterally away from the midline of your body. This motion is called:
A)	flexion.
B)	extension.
C)	abduction.
D)	adduction.
E)	circumduction.
A

C) abduction.

41
Q 
1.	Which of the following muscles are antagonists:
A)	masseter and temporalis.
B)	gastrocnemius and soleus.
C)	biceps brachii and triceps brachii.
D)	biceps femoris and biceps brachii.
E)	vastus medialis and vastus lateralis.
A

C) biceps brachii and triceps brachii.

42
Q 
1.	Which congenital muscle disease results from the degeneration and atrophy of muscles:
A)	scoliosis.
B)	spina bifida.
C)	multiple sclerosis.
D)	myasthenia gravis.
E)	muscular dystrophy.
A

E) muscular dystrophy.

43
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT a criteria generally used in naming muscles:
    A) action of the muscle.
    B) shape of the muscle.
    C) relative size of the muscle.
    D) number of origins of the muscle.
    E) method of attachment of the muscle to bone.
A

E) method of attachment of the muscle to bone.

44
Q 
1.	The neurotransmitter acetylcholine stimulated which type of muscles:
A)	cardiac muscles.
B)	skeletal muscles.
C)	smooth muscles.
D)	involuntary muscles.
E)	non-striated muscles.
A

B) skeletal muscles.

45
Q 
1.	The movement that occurs when you lift a cup of soup on your palm to your mouth is:
A)	eversion.
B)	inversion.
C)	pronation.
D)	supination.
E)	opposition.
A

D) supination.

46
Q

Cardiac and smooth muscle both have striations.

A

F

Cardiac and skeletal muscles both have striations.

47
Q

All types of muscle have endomysium covering individual muscle cells.

A

T

48
Q

Smooth muscles activity generates heat to help maintain body temperature.

A

F

Skeletal muscles activity generates heat to help maintain body temperature.

49
Q

The striations seen in skeletal muscle are actually alternating A and I bands.

A

T

50
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum wraps like a sleeve around the myofibril and stores and releases calcium.

A

T

51
Q

Thick filaments are made of a protein called actin.

A

F
Thin filaments are made of strands of a protein called actin, which is twisted around strands of a protein called tropomyosin. Thick filaments are made of a protein called myosin. Each individual muscle fiber is covered in an insulating fibrous connective tissue called endomysium.

52
Q

1 Aerobic respiration requires the use of oxygen to generate ATP. Answer:

A

T

53
Q

Oxygen debt promotes lactic acid accumulation on muscles from anaerobic cellular respiration.

A

T

54
Q

A sustained partial contraction of skeletal muscle is called muscle tone.

A

T

55
Q

An aponeurosis is a rope-like piece of muscle fascia that forms indirect connections to muscles of the leg.

A

F
An aponeurosis is made of layers of delicate, thin sheaths. Tendons, in contrast, are tough and rope-like. … Aponeuroses can act as fascia. Fascia is a fibrous tissue that envelopes muscles or organs, to bind muscles together or to other tissues.

56
Q

A muscle twitch results when the muscle is stimulated so rapidly that no evidence of relaxation is seen.

A

F
Twitch summation or treppe is the addition of a second twitch, resulting in greater tension, and it results from stimulating the muscle before it has a chance to relax completely. Tetanus is prolonged contraction without relaxation and results from repeating stimulation before the muscle has a chance to relax at all.

57
Q

1 The effect of the neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to temporarily modify its permeability of ions such as Na+ and K+.

A

T
It performs several functions in cell physiology. -ATPase enzyme is a solute pump that pumps sodium out of cells while pumping potassium into cells, both against their concentration gradients. This pumping is active (i.e. it uses energy from ATP).

58
Q

1 When a muscle fiber contracts, the I bands diminish in size, the H zones disappear, and the A bands move closer together but do not diminish in length.

A

T

59
Q

Biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis all cause arm flexion at the elbow joint.

A

T

60
Q

The deltoid is a prime mover of arm adduction

A

F
Prime mover of arm adduction – climbing, throwing, pushing. … Prime mover for arm abduction. Antagonist to pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi.

61
Q

The deepest muscle of the abdominal wall is the transversus abdominis.

A

T

62
Q

Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion are synergistic actions.

A

F
Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion. Dorsiflexion is the movement of the foot upwards, so that the foot is closer to the shin. For a movement to be considered dorsiflexion, the foot should be raised upward between 10 and 30 degrees. Dorsiflexion uses the muscles in the front part (anterior) of the foot

63
Q

Plantar flexion at the ankle joint is accomplished by the tibialis anterior muscle.

A

F
In order to propel food down to the esophagus, the pharyngeal constrictor muscles are used. Plantar flexion at the ankle joint is accomplished by the tibialis anterior muscle.

64
Q

The hamstring group inserts into the distal tibia.

A

F
The hamstring tendons flank the space behind the knee. The most medial muscle, the semimembranosus, inserts on the medial condyle of the tibia bone. The semitendinosus inserts on the superior part of the medial tibia. The most lateral hamstring, the biceps femoris, inserts on the lateral side of the fibula.

65
Q

Muscle development in babies occurs in a cephalic/caudal direction.

A

T

66
Q

Supination and pronation refer to up and down movements of the foot at the ankle.

A

F
Pronation at the forearm is a rotational movement where the hand and upper arm are turned inwards. Pronation of the foot refers to turning of the sole outwards, so that weight is borne on the medial part of the foot. Supination of the forearm occurs when the forearm or palm are rotated outwards.

67
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis produces ATP in the absence of glucose.

A

F
The anaerobic glycolysis (lactic acid) system is dominant from about 10–30 seconds during a maximal effort. It replenishes very quickly over this period and produces 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule or about 5% of glucose’s energy potential (38 ATP molecules).

68
Q

1 The muscle referred to as the “smiling” muscle because it raised the corner of the mouth upward is the zygomaticus.

A

T

69
Q

Body location skeletal

A

skeletal muscle is attached to bones or to skin (some facial muscles);

70
Q

Body location Cardiac

A

cardiac
muscle is located in the walls of the heart

71
Q

Body location smooth

A

smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow visceral organs (other than the heart).


72
Q

Microscopic anatomy Skeletal

A

skeletal muscle consists of very long,cylindrical, multinucleated cells with
very obvious striations

73
Q

Microscopic anatomy Cardiac

A

cardiac muscle consists of branching chains of cells that are uninucleated and possess striations and intercalated discs

74
Q

Microscopic anatomy Smooth

A

smooth muscle consists of single fusiform,uninucleated cells that lack striations.


75
Q

Regulation of contraction-skeletal muscle

A

is voluntary via nervous system controls, but this normal voluntary control can be overridden by involuntary reflex arcs

76
Q

Regulation of contraction-Cardiac

A

cardiac muscle is involuntary via the heart pacemaker, nervous system controls, and hormones
smooth muscle is involuntary via nervous system controls, hormones, other chemicals,and stretching.


77
Q

Regulation of contraction-smooth

A

smooth muscle is involuntary via nervous system controls, hormones, other chemicals,and stretching.


78
Q

; cardiac muscle is rhythmic; smooth muscle is
sometimes rhythmic

A

is slow to fast

79
Q

Speed of contraction of cardiac muscle

A

slow

80
Q

Speed of contraction of smooth muscle

A

smooth muscle is the slowest

81
Q


Rhythmicity-skeletal muscle

A

is arrhythmic

82
Q


Rhythmicity cardiac muscle

A

is rhythmic

83
Q


Rhythmicity of smoothie muscle

A

sometimes rhythmic

84
Q
  1. Describe the events that occur from the time that a motor neuron releases acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction until muscle cell contraction occurs.
A

Acetylcholine is released, which diffuses through the synaptic cleft and attaches to receptors on the sarcolemma. The sarcolemma permeability to sodium ions increases briefly, causing sodium ions to rush into the muscle cell, which changes the electrical conditions of the resting sarcolemma. An action potential is initiated and sweeps over the entire sarcolemma. Calcium ions are released from storage areas inside the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle cell. They
attach to the myofilaments, which triggers the sliding of the myofilaments and causes a muscle cell contraction.

85
Q

List the seven criteria that are used in naming muscles and give an example of each.

A

Muscles have many shapes & sizes . They are named on the basis of several criteria.
l. Direction of the muscle fibers (e.g.,external oblique)
2. Relative size of the muscle (e.g.,maximus, minimus,longus) 3. Location of the muscle
(e.g.,temporalis,frontalis)
4. Number of origins (e.g.,biceps, triceps, quadriceps)
5. Location of the muscle’s origin and insertion (e.g.,the sternocleidomastoid muscle has its
origin on the sternum [sterno] and clavicle [cleido] and inserts on the mastoid process of the temporal bone)
6. Shape of the muscle (e.g.,the deltoid muscle is roughly triangular - deltoid means
“triangular”)
7. Action of the muscle (e.g.,the adductor muscles of the thigh all bring about its adduction, and the extensor muscles of the wrist all extend the wrist)

86
Q
  1. What is the effect of aging on skeletal muscles?
A

The Effects of Aging and Training on Skeletal Muscle. Aging results in a gradual loss of muscle function, and there are predictable age-related alterations in skeletal muscle function. The typical adult will lose muscle mass with age; the loss varies according to sex and the level of muscle activity.

87
Q
  1. Discuss the role of the myosin heads in sliding filament theory.
A

The calcium triggers the binding ofmyosin headsto actinfilamentsand the initiation of theslidingoffilaments

88
Q
  1. Fascicle arrangements produce skeletal muscles with different structures and functional properties, and determine their individual range of motion and power. List the seven different fascicle arrangements of human skeletal muscles and give a specific example of each:
A

Muscle cells are called muscle fibers. A bundle of muscle fibers is called a fascicle. A fascicle is
surrounded by a connective tissue sheath called the perimysium. Fascicle arrangements produce skeletal muscles with different structures and functional properties, and determine their individual range of motion and power.
1. Circular-orbicularis oris,orbicularis oculi
2. Convergent-pectoralis major
3. Parallel-sartorius
4. Fusiform-biceps brachii
5. Unipennate-extensor digitorum longus
6. Bipennate-rectus femoris
7. Multipennate-deltoid

89
Q
  1. Discuss the importance of calcium in skeletal muscle contraction.
A

The importance of CalciumIons. Ca2+ions play animportant roleinmuscle contractionby creating interactions between the proteins, myosin and actin. The Ca2+ions bind to the C component of the actin filament, which exposes the binding site for the myosin head to bind to in order to stimulate amuscle contraction.

90
Q
  1. Explain how isometric and isotonic contractions differ, using examples of each.
A

Musclecontractionsare classified as eitherisotonicorisometric. In anisotonic contraction(iso=equal; tonic= tension), the tension (force ofcontraction) developedbythe muscle remains almost constant while the muscle changes its length. … The two types ofisotonic contractionsare concentric and eccentric.

91
Q

What types of movements are demonstrated by your feet and ankles when you drive a car? 1. Describe these movements.

A

Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
Dorsiflexion is the movement of the foot upwards, so that the foot is closer to the shin. … The tendons of the muscles that pass through the front of the foot and into the ankle joint include: tibialis anterior. extensor hallucis longus.
Plantar flexion is a movement in which the top of your foot points away from your leg. You use plantar flexion whenever you stand on the tip of your toes or point your toes.

92
Q
  1. Explain how muscle movements mature in a baby, using examples of each.
A
  1. Muscle development starts at cephalic (head)– caudal (tail)
2. muscle control develops in a proximal/distal direction
ex. babies wave before they can grab something

Muscular system (1 decks)

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