Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSK > Muscle my way through these > Flashcards

Muscle my way through these Flashcards

1
Q

What nerve roots does the femoral nerve come from?

What portion of the femoral nerve becomes the saphenous? Where does it pass through?

A

L2, 3 and 4
Posterior division
Passes through adductor canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What muscle does the femoral nerve pass through?

What its relation to the inguinal canal?

A

Psoas major

Lies beneath it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where do tendon xanthomata’s occur?
What is their treatment?
Are they hard or soft?

A

Extensor tendons of hands and elbow, Achilles and patella tendon
treatment = statin to reduce risk of stroke and heart attack
soft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the cause of calcaneus spurs?

common associations?

A

Cause = excessive traction from plantar fascia

Plantar fasciitis, ankylosing spondylitis and Reiter’s disease (chlamydia infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is “Haglund’s deformity”?

What is it common name?

A

Posterior aspect of the calcaneus becomes prominent, easily palpated
Achilles’ tendon bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Sever’s disease?

Presentation?

A

Apophysitis of the calcaneus, painful break in cartilage usually found in young children
Pain on walking, running or standing. Less pain walking on tip toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What occurs in a Pott’s fracture?

A

Avulsion fracture of the medial malleous via tearing of the deltoid (medial) ligament due to strong eversion force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What tendon is most commonly damaged in an ankle sprain? Second common?

A

ATFL (anterior talo-fibular ligament)

Calcano-fibular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of X-ray is used to measure bone density?

A

DEXA = dual energy X-ray absorptiometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the ligaments of the knee?

Origin’s and insertions?

A

ACL - Anterior intercondylar tibial plateau & posterior intercondylar femoral fossa
PCL - Posteior intercondylar tibial plateau & anterior intercondylar femoral fossa
MCL - medial epicondyle of femur to medial tibial condyle
LCL - lateral epidondyle of femur to fibular head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What nerve roots does the femoral nerve originate from?

What reflex are they involved in?

A

L3/4

Knee reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the pathway of the femoral nerve from its root?

A

Forms in abdomen within psoas major
Descends into midpoint of inguinal ligament
Enters femoral triangle lateral to femoral artery and nerve
Passes along the anteriomedial thigh, branching into cutaneous and deep nerves
Continues into saphenous nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pseudogout crystals are…

Calcium oxalate or calcium pyrophosphate?

A

Calcium pyrophosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In tubular bones no more longitudinal growth will occur when..

A

When the epiphyseal plate has disappeared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Contraction of smooth muscle cell requires phosphorylation of the myosin light chain by what enzyme?

A

Kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Normal bone healing of stable bone fracture the x-ray in the 1st week shows increase in hypodense fracture line, why?

A

Stagnation in the blood supply kills the osteocytes & the matrix is broken down by osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

X-ray shows a sclerotic and flattened femoral head 9 months following a ORIF of a hip (patient has hip pain).
What is the diagnosis?
What is the arterial supply to the femoral head and neck?

A

Osteonecrosis of the femoral head

Lateral and medial circumflex arteries & their retinacular arteries, foveolar artery from ligamentum teres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Muscular atrophy from long-term glucocorticoid use is caused by?

A

Catabolic effect on muscle proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In Paget’s disease, which cells has abnormal activity?
What are the levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and calcium in the blood?
What medication is used to treat Paget’s?

A

Osteoclasts
ALP = elevated. Ca++ = normal
Bisphosphonates - Zelodronic acid (IV infusion) or Alendronate/Risedronate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
Which one of the following is not an extra-articulate feature of RA?
Anaemia?
Carpal tunnel?
Cirrhosis of the liver?
Peri-carditis?
A

Cirrhosis of the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
Most cases of acute osteomyelitis occur in?
What is the pathogenesis?
What is the most common cause?
Treatment?
Differential?
A

Children <5yrs
Bacteria in the metaphysis leading to cellulitis of the bone marrow -> exudate is forced into the bony cortex -> rupturing the periosteum
Staphylococcus aureus
Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin -> surgical if failure after 48-72hrs
Ewing’s sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where do tendon xanthoma’s occur?
Pathology?
What is their treatment?

A

Extensor tendons of the hands and elbow, Achilles and patella tendon
Hypercholesteremia
Statin to reduce risk of stroke and heart attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many joints between radius and ulna?

Name and articulations

A

3
Proximal radio-ulna = radial notch and radial head
Distal radio-ulna = ulna notch and ulna head
Interosseous = interosseous membrane and radial/ulna tuberosities

24
Q

Which parts of the humerus articulate with the radius at the elbow?
What the ulna at the elbow?

A

Humeroradial joint = capitalism of humerus and radial head
Humeroulna joint = trochlear process, coronoid and olecranon fossa of the humerus, trochlear notch, coronoid and olecranon process of the ulna

25
Q

Which joints are formed by the scapula with other bones?

What are the names of the parts of the scapula that form each joint?

A 
Glenohumeral = Glenoid cavity and humeral head 
Acromioclavicular = acromion process and distal clavicle
26
Q

Name 5 surrounding structures of the glenohumeral joint

Function of each

A

Clavicle - forms AC joint
Acromion - forms AC joint
Suprascapular - shoulder abduction 1st 15 degrees & joint stability
Infrascapular - external rotation
Glenohumeral ligaments - stabilisation of joint
Bicipital tendon - stabilisation
Triceps tendon - stabilisation
Pec Major - flexion, adduction & internal rotation

27
Q

What are the glenohumeral ligaments?

Which direction is a shoulder dislocation most likely to occur?

A

Glenohumeral - superior, inferior and middle, maintain ant surface of joint
Transverse - holds long head of biceps tendon in place
Coracohumeral - strengthens ant part of articular capsule
Dislocation = anterior

28
Q

What are the ligaments of the elbow?
What bones to they connect?
What nerve is compressed in cubital tunnel syndrome?

A

Anular - radio-ulnar
Collaterals - humeroradial and humeroulnar
Cubital = ulcer nerve

29
Q

Rotator cuff muscles, action and innervation

A

Teres minor - external rotation, axillary
Infraspinatus - external rotation, suprascapular
Suprascapular - abduction, suprascapular
Subscapularis - internal rotation, subscapular

30
Q

What are the 4 bursa of the glenohumeral joint?

A

Subacromial/deltoid
Supra-acromial
Subscapular
Subcoracoid

31
Q

What spinal roots does the brachial plexus originate from?

Cords are named in relation to what?

A

C5/6/7/8T1

Axillary artery - lateral, posterior and medial

32
Q

What cords are the median nerve formed from? Radial? Ulnar?

A 
Median = lateral and medial
Radial = posterior 
Ulnar = posterior
33
Q

How many branches does the median nerve have in the upper arm?
What is its pathway into the carpal tunnel?

A

None!
Lateral to brachial artery then medial 1/2 down humerus -> through the cubital fossa -> between flexor digitorum profundus and superficialis

34
Q

What are the 4 branches of the median nerve?

What is the function of each?

A

Ant interosseous - deep muscles of forearm
palmar cutaneous - skin of lateral palm
recurrent - thenar muscles
Palmar digital - skin of lateral 3 1/2 fingers

35
Q

Lateral epicondylitis is created by inflammation of?

What muscles originate here?

A

Common extensor tendon

Extensor carpi radialis/ulnaris, extensor digitorum, extensor indices, extensor digit minimi

36
Q

What encompasses Guyon’s canal?

What passes through here?

A

Pisiform and hook of hamate

Ulnar nerve and artery

37
Q

Presentation of ulnar, median and radial nerve palsy.

A 
Ulnar = claw, extend fingers but 4th/5th can't
Median = Pope's blessing, make a fist 2nd and 3rd digits can't flex and thumb unopposed 
Radial = wrist drop, brachioradialis, wrist and finger extension weakness
38
Q

What role do T-cells play in RA?

What role do osteoclasts play in RA?

A

Type III hypersensitivity reaction
T-cell autoimmune reaction causes activations of CD4+ and B-cells increasing cytokines and RANKL activation
Osteoclasts activation causes bone degradation and pannus formation leading to bony ankylosis

39
Q

What is each most likely to be…
Symmetrical polyarthritis?
Large, swollen joint?
Monoarthritis, hot joint?

A

RA
OA or gout or psoriatic
Septic arthritis

40
Q

What is the role of Calcitonin?
Where is it naturally produced?
When might this be used?

A

Inhibits bone resorption
Thyroid gland
Hypercalcaemia

41
Q 
Which drug below does NOT help RA? And What does each drug do?
Methotrexate?
Leflunomide?
Naproxen?
Sulfasalazine?
A 
Naproxen = NSAID
Methotrexate = immune suppressant (reduces folic acid)
Leflunomide = DMARD (disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug)
Sulfasalazine = immune suppression and anti-inflammatory
42
Q

Anterior uveitis is most common in which rheumatological disorder?
What is the presentation of this disorder?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

More common in men than women, lower back and cervical neck pain, raised ESR

43
Q

When and what investigations should be performed in a person with PMR regarding GCA?
What are signs and symptoms of GCA?
What is the initial dose of prednisone? Next?
What if symptoms still persist?

A 
When signs or symptoms develop
Temporal artery biopsy 
S&amp;S = Temporal artery tenderness, headache, jaw pain, visual symptoms
15mg/day -> 20mg/day
Persistence = alternative diagnosis
44
Q

Ulnar deviation with flexion of fingers causing pain in anatomical snuff box - what is their called?
What is the differential diagnosis? Most common?
What tendons does this affect?
Treatment?

A

Finkelstein maneuver
De Quervain’s tenosinovitis (most common), OA, ganglia, radial nerve entrapment
Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
Forearm-based thumb spica splint + NSAID’s -> glucocorticoid injection + lidocaine

45
Q

What are the typical features of ulnar nerve entrapment?

A

Male
More obvious signs and symptoms on elbow flexion
weakness of grip
Hypothenar muscle wasting

46
Q

What is the presentation of compartment syndrome?
What is damaged first, arteries or nerves? Why?
What is the most diagnostic sign?
Treatment?

A

Severe unrelenting pain in a limb post-trauma.
Sensory loss (distal paraesthesia) occurs before motor loss since the thin cutaneous nerve fibres are more susceptible to ischaemia than the motor fibres.
Passive stretch of affected muscles causes ++pain
Open compartment fasciotomy.

47
Q

What is the age of onset for SLE vs Scleroderma?
Higher prevalence in male vs female?
What are the 4 pathological processes in Scleroderma?
Positive ANA higher in?

A 
SLE = 15-45
Scleroderma = 20-69
Female > male 
4 = inflammation, cross-linking of collagen, fibrosis of tissues and vascular endothelial changes leading to hypoxaemia 
ANA = SLE
48
Q

What 3 symptoms make up Reiter’s disease?

A

Urethritis, Arthritis and Conjunctivitis

49
Q

TNF-alpha block drugs:
What should be screened for before starting?
Do they increase malignancy risk?
Can they receive live vaccines?

A
  • Screen for latent TB
  • Don’t increase malignancy risk
  • No live vaccines
50
Q

What is more common; PMR or Fibromylagia?
Which disease typically has more co-morbidities?
What age group does PMR typically occur?

A

Fibromyalgia is more common (~5% vs ~0.5).
Fibro has more co-morbidities (IBS, chronic headache)
PMR occurs typically after 50yrs

51
Q

MoA of Colchicine vs Allopurinol?

A 
col = interrupts the cycle of urate crystal deposition in joint tissues and the resultant inflammatory response 
allo = blocks conversion of oxypurines to uric acid, decreasing serum uric acid concentrations
52
Q

What bones are fractured in a Colles fracture?

What are the 3 complications associated with a Colles fracture?

A

Ulnar styloid process and distal radius

Malunion, stiffness of the fingers and Sudeck’s atrophy (oedema and pain in all hand joints)

53
Q

What type of collagen is effected in osteogenesis imperfecta?
What are 3 complications of this disease?

A

Type 1 collagen

Deafness, blue sclera and repeated fractures

54
Q 
Osteosarcoma occur most commonly in what age range?
More common in males or females?
Site of tumour?
Pathophysiology of what tissue?
What is often the definitive treatment?
A 
10-25yr old
Males > females
Distal femur/knee, proximal humerus 
Cartilage along the metaphysis of long bones
Treatment = surgery
55
Q

Where are RA nodules located?

A

extensor surface of joints

56
Q

What muscle can be damaged in a scapular fracture not linked to a joint?
What nerve innervates this?

A

Serratus anterior

Long thoracic nerve

57
Q

Origin and insertion of gastrocnemius?

Innervation?

A 
Origin = Medial and lateral femoral condyles 
Insertion = Achilles tendon 
Innervation = tibial nerve

MSK (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions