Multiple Sclerosis (Ferguson) Flashcards

1
Q

MS is a disease which results in neurologic dysfunction due to the degradation of ______ (fatty substance which surrounds the nerve axon allowing for signal to be transmitted from one location in the CNS to another with greater speed and efficiency)

  • _______ process causes ____ areas of demyelination with associated inflammation that slows down or completely interrupts transmission of neural activity
A

Myelin

  • Autoimmune (AB against viral antigen that looks like myelin?), focal (doesn’t occur everywhere at the same time)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MS can present at nearly any age but is most typically seen in ________

  • Affects greater than _____ patients in the US alone, ~10-20/100,000 in the population
A

Young 20-40 year olds

  • 1,000,000 patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Risk Factors of MS:

  • Clear associations with both ____ and ____
    • Individuals in _____ climates develop MS at a strikingly high frequency - probable link to what?
    • _____ carry a 2-3x risk of development
    • Those with first degree relatives carry a ____x risk of development - or if other autoimmune diseases present
A
  • Environment, Genetics
    • Northern - vitamin D deficiency
    • Females
    • 20-40x risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What clinically isolated syndrome?

  • One of the most common presentations of demyelinating disease
  • Typically presents with complaints of progressive vision loss over days - “dirty dishwater” or “dense screen”, color desaturation
  • Mild pain with extraocular movements - inflammation near tendinous insertion points
  • Usually optic disc swelling can be seen after the first few days of symptoms
  • Afferent pupillary defect

Tx?

A

Optic Neuritis

Tx. 1 gram of IV methyl-prednisone for 3-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What can be seen on the Brain MRI that suggests a CIS?

A

Enhancing of the R optic nerve - optic neuritis

  • BBB breakdown - contrast seeps into
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the criteria for MS called?

  • Required minimal lesion burden
  • Lesions separated in space and time!
A

McDonald Criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If a patient does not fulfill the McDonald criteria for MS - only 1 lesion on MRI, no additional lesions –> what is his risk of developing MS in the future? Should he be started on disease modifying therapy at this time?

Some clinically isolated syndromes:

  • Optic neuritis
  • Brainstem syndrome
  • Spinal cord syndrome
  • Multifocal
A

Risk of development - ~20% in the future

  • Should NOT be started on disease modifying therapies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the name of this MRI finding - pathognomonic for MS?

A

Dawson’s fingers - demyelinating plaques through the corpus callosum (T2 hyperintensities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What additional work-up can be done to further establish a diagnosis of MS, but are not diagnostic in isolation?

  • What are the abnormalities one can find with this? (3)

(Can be absent very early on; however, in general 95-97% will have + findings)

A

LP, CSF analysis!

  • Oligoclonal banding, abnormally high IgG/albumin ratio, elevated IgG synthesis rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the long term therapeutic goals for MS?

  • _____ clinical relapses
  • _____ new and enlarging lesions on MRI
  • _____ disability accumulation
  • Achieve a tolerable ___ profile
  • ____ for long term safety
A
  • Reduce
  • Reduce
  • Reduce
  • side effect
  • Monitor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the traditional agents, “Platform therapies,” for long term management of MS?

  • ______
    • 1-a IM weekly (Avonex)
    • 1-a sc tiw (Rebif)
    • 1-b sq eod (Betaseron/Extavia)
    • Side effects?
  • ______
    • sq daily and tiw (Copaxone)
    • Side effects?
A
  • Beta interferon
    • Malaise, headache, fevers, myalgias, elevated liver enzymes
  • Glatiramer acetate
    • Injection site reactions, lipoatrophy, injection related chest tightness, dyspnea, flushing
    • ******Can use for pregnant patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

FYI - For traditional therapies, “platform agents”

Advantages

  • Proven efficacy
  • Excellent long-term safety
  • Limited monitoring requirements
  • New therapy regimens: double dose glatiramer, pegalated IFN-beta

Disadvantages

  • Injectable administration
  • Incomplete eficacy
  • Adherence concerns
  • Neutralizing antibody formation to interferon
  • Bothersome side effects
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Traditional Therapies:

  • ______ dose interferon (____) is more efficacious than _____ dose interferon (____)
  • ______ shows comparable efficacy to high dose interferon (Rebif)
  • _____ compelling evidence to combine high dose interferon with glatiramer
A
  • High (Rebif), Low (Avonex)
  • Glatiramer (Copaxone)
  • NO!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some oral therapies for the long term management of MS?

  • ?
  • ?
  • ?
A
  • Fingolimod (Gilenya)
  • Teriflunomide (Augbagio)
  • Dimethyl fumarate (Tecfidera)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What medication?

  • MOA: sequesters lymphocytes in the lympnodes
    • superior to low dose interferon
    • can cause significant bradycardia, hypotension in some
    • first dose must be monitored in office/hospital because of this
      • Common side effects - HA, ​diarrhea, cough, lymphopenia
A

Fingolimod (Gilenya)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What medication?

  • MOA: Limits an enzyme in the pyrimidine synthesis pathway in lymphocytes which blocks proliferation of activated T and B cells which are responsible for the inflammation in MS
    • Can result in teratogenicity! if patient becomes pregnant, it must be removed from the system with cholestyramine (category X)
    • Common side effects - diarrhea, nausea, alopecia, hepatotoxicity
A

Teriflunomide (Aubagio)

17
Q

What medication?

  • MOA: Activates the Nrf2 pathway which is involved in the cellular response to oxidative stress
  • Common side effects - flushing, diarrhea, nausea, 20% reduction in lymphocyte level
A

Dimethyl Fumarate (Tecfidera)

18
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Natalizumab (Tysabri) ?

  • Monthly IV infusion
  • Reduces relapse rate by 67%, MRI activity by 97%, slows disability progression
  • More effective than first line treatment, but more serious side effect profile
  • Second line due to risk of infection - 1/1000 risk of _______ (can be tested for with a serum AB study to predict patient risk)
A

Humanized monoclonal antibody targets alpha-4 integrin (present on every WBC [except neutrophils]) - blocks trafficking of leukocytes across the BBB

  • PML! Opportunistic infection caused by the JC virus, can lead to disability or death
19
Q

What clinically isolated syndrome?

  • demyelination of the spinal cord
  • Results in a wide range of neurological symptoms - hemi-sided weakness, sensory deficit, bowel-bladder dysfunction or some combination of all of the above depending on the location and size of the plaque

Steroids, PT, urology, bowel regimen

A

Transverse Myelitis

20
Q

______ is a variant of MS that fails to respond to disease modifying therapy

  • <10% of all MS cases
  • Diagnosis made in retrospect after trying/failing multiple agents
A

Primary Progressive MS

21
Q

Diagnosis?

  • Relapsing inflammatory demyelinating disease that most commonly affects optic nerves and the spinal cord, leading to sudden vision loss or weakness in one or both eyes, and loss of sensation and bladder function
  • Does NOT typically cause the same volume of subcortical white matter lesions
  • Can be assessed by ordering serum ________. How does this work?
  • Treated with ______. (antibody binds to CD20, widely expressed on B cells, from early pre-B cells to later in differentiation; causes apoptosis)
A

Neuromyleitis Optica (Devic’s disease)

  • NMO IgG antibody. Antibody to aquaporin 4 chloride channel
  • Tx. Rituxumab (Rituxan)
22
Q

What other symptomatology?

  • Increased tone in muscles secondary to CNS damage
  • Sx. spasms, tight muscles resulting in difficulty initiating movement, contracture when chronic

Tx. baclofen, bzds, tizandine; PT/OT, surgical - tendon release, baclofen pump

A

Spasticity

23
Q

What other symptomatology?

  • Common occurence in patients with MS, 30-50% of patients experiencing pain at some time in their illness
  • Tx accounts for nearly 30% of the medications used for symptom management in MS patients

Tx. TCAs, Anticonvulsants (Gabapentin, Pregabalin, Carbamazepine), SNRI (duloxetine)

A

Neuropathic Pain

24
Q

What other symptomatology?

Regularly affected: attention, learning/retrieval, info. processing speed, visual-spatial perception, executive function

Spared: Language/verbal skills

  • Significantly increased liklihood of this in patients with >T2 lesion area, >T1, T2 lesion load, > # of juxtacortical lesions

Tx. Stimulants (methylphenidates, amphetimine salts) –> NOT donepezil, rivastigmine!!

A

Cognition Dysfunction

25
Q

What other symptomatology?

  • Failure to empty, failure to store, or combination
    • Empty: large flaccid bladder, inability of the urinary sphincter to relax
      • Urgency, frequency, hesitancy, nocturia, incontinence, incomplete emptying, frequent UTIs
      • Tx. catheterization, alpha-blockers
    • Store: normal to small sized hypertonic bladder
      • Urgency, frequency, incontinence
      • Tx. scheduled voiding, limit fluids, anticholinergic medications, eliminating diuretics, botox in bladder
A

Bladder Problems