Multiple Questions ..state Exam

Question 1

1. Human vital activity is:
   a. The state of the body
   b. A combination of processes in the body and environment for meeting biological and social
   needs
   c. The state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being of a person
   d. Optimal functioning of organs and tissues in the human body
   e. A mode of existence of protein bodies

Answer 1

CORRECT ANSWER: b(b. A combination of processes in the body and environment for meeting biological and social needs

Question 2

2. Health is:
   a. The state of the body
   b. Assessment of physical development
   c. A moral criterion
   d. A marker of material well-being
   e. A result of the vital activity

Answer 2

CORRECT ANSWER: a( The state of the body)

Question 3

A disease is:
a. The state of the body
b. A diagnosis
c. An individual peculiarity
d. A health indicator
e. A moral criterion

Answer 3

CORRECT ANSWER: d (A health indicator)

Question 4

4. Adaptation of a person is:
   a. Absence of danger
   b. Non-fatal condition
   c. The state of protecting vital activity from internal factors
   d. Adjustment of the organism to the environment
   e. The state of being sick

Answer 4

CORRECT ANSWER: d (Adjustment of the organism to the environment

Question 5

Which of the following boosts body resistance to environmental exposure?
a. Sensible diet
b. Disinfection
c. Disinsection
d. Deactivation
e. Neutralization

Answer 5

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 6

6. A center of bacteriological contamination is the area with people which was affected by:
   a. Chemical weapon
   b. Bacteriological weapon
   c. Nuclear weapon
   d. Geophysical weapon
   e. Conventional weapon

Answer 6

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 7

7. The term “ conventional weapon” implies:
   a. Biological (bacteriological) weapon
   b. Nuclear weapon
   c. Weapon of mass destruction
   d. Fire and shock weapons of artillery, aviation, and engineering ammunition
   e. Chemical weapon

Answer 7

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 8

8. Which of the following is classification of armed conflicts?
   a. Major war, small war, large-scale war
   b. Armed conflict, localized war, regional war, large-scale war
   c. Civil war, guerrilla war, national war
   d. Borderline war, interstate conflict, small war
   e. Regional war, large-scale war, armed conflict

Answer 8

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 9

9. Who administers control over the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation?
   a. Commander-in-Chief of the Ground Forces
   b. Commander-in-Chief of the Air Forces
   c. Minister of Defense of the Russian Federation via the Ministry of Defense and the General
   Staff of the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation
   d. Chief of the General Staff of the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation 8
   e. Commander-in-Chief of the Navy

Answer 9

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 10

10. Types of the armed forces of the Russian Federation include:
    a. Ground forces, air forces, navy
    b. Special forces, rear, strategic army corps
    c. Air landing troops, special forces, rear
    d. Space forces, construction forces, missile troops
    e. Missile strategic troops, navy, rear

Answer 10

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 11

11. Which of the following is a unit of disaster medicine service at the local level?
    a. Medical aid post
    b. Ambulance team
    c. Voluntary medical aid team
    d. Specialized medical aid team
    e. Qualified medical care team

Answer 11

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 12

12. Which of the following is a local agency for preventing and eliminating the consequences of emergencies?
    a. Commission for civil defense, emergencies, and disaster recovery
    b. Department for civil defense, emergencies, and disaster recovery
    c. General civil defense units
    d. Civil defense units
    e. Fire-fighting service

Answer 12

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 13

13. Ambulance teams in the emergency area are working:
    a. In the affected area
    b. In a medical institution
    c. At a temporary base for the injured
    d. At the emergency room
    e. During the stages of medical evacuation

Answer 13

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 14

14. Disaster medicine units arriving in the disaster area to strengthen the ambulance are:
    a. Emergency teams
    b. Specialized medical aid teams
    c. Mobile medical complexes for disaster medicine
    d. Medical institutions of the Ministry of Healthcare
    e. Qualified medical care teams

Answer 14

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 15

15. Triage is a method of distributing the injured based on:
    a. Homogeneous treatment, preventive and evacuation measures
    b. The need for emergency medical care
    c. Division of the injured into “people who can walk themselves” and “people who should be carried on stretchers”
    d. Age
    e. Sex

Answer 15

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 16

16. Which of the following is used for disinfection of water in areas with emergency situations?
    a. Cystamine
    b. Etaperazin
    c. Pantocidum
    d. Perhydrol
    e. Aspirin

Answer 16

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 17

17. In peacetime, the treatment system which is used to provide medical care in emergencies is:
    a. One-stage
    b. Two-stage
    c. Three-stage
    d. Four-stage
    e. Multi-stage

Answer 17

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 18

18. The optimal timing to provide the first aid in emergencies is:
    a. 30 minutes
    b. 1 hour
    c. 2 hours
    d. 4 hours
    e. 6 hours

Answer 18

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 19

19. Which types of medical care are provided at the pre-hospital stage in case of disasters?
    a. Any type of care that can be used
    b. First aid, first medical care, qualified care
    c. First aid, pre-hospital care, specialized care
    d. First aid, pre-hospital care, first medical care
    e. First aid, specialized care, professional medical care

Answer 19

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 20

20. Which of the following is a method of medical care provision with massive admission of the injured?
    a. Rapid removal from the disaster area
    b. Provision of emergency care
    c. Well-organized evacuation
    d. Triage
    e. Emergency evacuation

Answer 20

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 21

21. Which of the following radionuclides determines the radiological situation in the first months after the accident?
    a. Cesium 137
    b. Iodine 131
    c. Barium 140
    d. Strontium 90
    e. Calcium 121

Answer 21

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 22

22. Which of the following is used to protect the thyroid gland during accidents at radiation hazardous facilities?
    a. Aprophenum
    b. Promedol
    c. Etaperazin
    d. Potassium iodide
    e. Cystamine

Answer 22

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 23

23. Which of the following replaces potassium iodide in radiological accidents?
    a. 5% iodine tincture
    b. 0.5% solution of chlorhexidine bigluconate
    c. 70% ethyl alcohol
    d. 96% ethyl alcohol
    e. Targin

Answer 23

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 24

24. Standard individual protective equipment in emergency situations includes:
    a. A double gauze mask, insulating gas mask, and chemical protection bag
    b. Individual first aid kit, individual dressing and anti-chemical kits
    c. Chemical protection suit, double gauze mask, and individual first aid kit
    d. Air-purifying respirator, individual first aid kit, and anti-chemical kit e. Field protective kit, personal first aid kit, and anti-chemical kit

Answer 24

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 25

25. Which of the following is intended for collective protection? a. Hospitals b. Civil defense units c. Shelters and hideouts d. Air-purifying respirators e. Public facilities

Answer 25

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 26

26. First aid care for severe acute radiation sickness includes: a. Antiemetic drugs b. Sedatives c. Cardiovascular drugs d. Antibiotics e. Pain relievers

Answer 26

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 27

27. Methods for temporary bleeding arrest include: a. Vessel ligation in a wound b. Stitching a wound c. Applying a hemostatic clamp d. Applying a splint e. Forced limb flexion

Answer 27

CORRECT ANSWER: e

Question 28

28. In the focus of ammonia contamination, to protect the respiratory system, a mask should be worn moistened with: a. Ethyl alcohol b. 5% acetic acid solution c. 2% baking soda solution d. 2% Novocaine solution e. Drinking water

Answer 28

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 29

29. Diseases that most complicate rescue operations in the emergency area are: a. Particularly dangerous infections b. Colds c. Cardiovascular diseases d. Skin and subcutaneous tissue lesions e. Musculoskeletal system diseases

Answer 29

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 30

30. Which of the following plays a crucial role in rescuing victims in emergencies? a. Medical service equipment b. Nature of emergency c. Time factor d. Warning of the population e. Availability of mechanical aids

Answer 30

CORRECT ANSWER: с

Question 31

31. Who is the author of the statement: “I will not give any woman a pessary to cause abortion”? a. Galen b. Ibn Sina c. Maimonides d. Hippocrates e. Paracelsus

Answer 31

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 32

32. Which of the following is the first ever international code of rules for human experimentation? a. Nuremberg Code b. Helsinki Declaration c. WMA Declaration of Sydney d. Lisbon Declaration e. Council of Europe Convention

Answer 32

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 33

33. An ethically acceptable type of harm that may arise in relations between a medical worker and a patient is: a. Harm caused by unqualified, unprofessional actions of a doctor or a nurse b. Harm caused by a failure to provide medical care or its non-performance c. Harm caused by negligence or evil intention, for example, by sordid motives d. Harm caused by actions which are reasonably required in a certain situation (for example, presence of pain or inconvenience during treatment) e. Moral harm

Answer 33

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 34

34. The main difference between law and morality is that: a. Law regulates at the level of individual moral consciousness and public opinion b. Law is implemented via legal acts, governmental decrees, and court orders through direct or indirect coercion. c. Law implies free and voluntary compliance with requirements d. Law comprises a system of prohibitions, ideals, and requirements accepted and shared in the society e. Law is a form of personal self-identification.

Answer 34

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 35

35. The golden rule of morality is: a. You should accustom yourself to virtuous deeds and actions, and not to words about virtue b. A human personality is infinite: this is a postulate of morality c. Treat others in a way you would like them to treat you d. The good can be advocated only through good deeds e. The man should be considered as a goal, and not as a means of solving any tasks

Answer 35

CORRECT ANSWER: с

Question 36

36. Who is not able to give an informed consent? a. Foreign citizens b. Persons of female sex c. Persons under 21 years d. Persons with severe diseases that impair and affect consciousness e. Persons under 18 years

Answer 36

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 37

37. A method of genetic engineering that is aimed at replicating a human or animal genotype and creating and distributing genetic copies of humans and animals through asexual reproduction or other manipulations with genetic material is called: a. Cloning b. Positive eugenics c. Negative eugenics d. Intervention in the human genome e. Gene therapy

Answer 37

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 38

38. A patient (participant of a study) may refuse from taking part in an experiment according to ethical requirements: a. Before the experiment (before signing the agreement on taking part in the experiment) b. During the experiment, if an advance payment for taking part in the experiment has not been received c. During the experiment, if the patient (participant of the study) has returned the advance payment d. At the final stage of the experiment, if the findings of the experiment have already been pre- determined e. At any stage of the experiment, regardless of the advance payment.

Answer 38

CORRECT ANSWER: е

Question 39

39. Which of the provisions belongs to deontology? 13 a. The task of achieving the common good is more important than interests of an individual person b. A deed is considered morally justified to an extent to which it leads to maximization of the common good c. A motive of an action should be performing an obligation d. Benefit is the basis of morality and a criterion of human deeds e. Righteous life of a person is associated with self-restriction.

Answer 39

CORRECT ANSWER: с

Question 40

40. Which principle of bioethics appeared in the last third of the XX century? a. Principle of justice b. Principle of respect to patient’s autonomy c. Principle of politeness d. Principle of benevolence e. ‘Do no harm’ principle

Answer 40

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 41

41. A type of organ harvesting from the corpse for transplantation which is called “presumed refusal” implies: a. Medical workers can harvest organs from a corpse for transplantation, since the corpse is state property b. If, while alive, the patient did not refuse from organ harvesting and neither did their relatives, it is assumed that consent was given to this procedure c. If consent (clearly expressed by the patient while alive) was not given to organ harvesting for transplantation, patient’s non-consent to this procedure is assumed d. If relatives of the deceased do not give consent to organ harvesting e. If relatives of the deceased give consent to organ harvesting

Answer 41

CORRECT ANSWER: с

Question 42

42. Which of the following is a definition of euthanasia? a. Any action or failure to act which in its nature or intention results in death, which aim is eliminating pain and suffering b. Assisted suicide of a terminally ill patient c. Ending a life of unnecessary people d. Medical and socio-psychological care for dying patients e. Relieving suffering of dying patients

Answer 42

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 43

43. Xenotransplantation is: a. Transplantation of tissues and organs from an embryo b. Transplantation of tissues and organs from a corpse c. Transplantation of tissues and organs from non-human animals d. Transplantation of tissues and organs from a living donor who is a recipient’s relative e. Transplantation of tissues and organs from a living donor who is not a recipient’s relative

Answer 43

CORRECT ANSWER: с

Question 44

44. The most ancient and conventional model of doctor-patient interaction which is compared to parent-child interaction is called: a. Advisory b. Collegial c. Technical D. Paternalistic E. Interpretative

Answer 44

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 45

45. Intervention in person’s health may be carried out on the basis of: a. A voluntary and informed patient’s consent b. Medical indications c. Rare clinical presentation of the disease and its educational value d. A request from patient’s relatives e. Making profit

Answer 45

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 46

46. “Voluntary compliance of a patient with a treatment course or a therapeutic procedure after receiving adequate information from the doctor” is a definition of: a. Competent patient b. Patient’s autonomy c. Rule of honesty d. Rule of confidentiality e. Informed consent

Answer 46

CORRECT ANSWER: е

Question 47

47. “The information about a patient that a doctor receives cannot be conveyed to third parties without a given consent from this patient” is a definition of: a. Rule of honesty b. Rule of confidentiality c. Rule of politeness d. Principle of justice e.Principle of benevolence

Answer 47

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 48

48. According to the Russian legislation, a mother of a child born following IVF with a donor egg, is: a. A delivered woman is recognized as a mother only if the donor egg belongs to her b. A woman who donated the egg is recognized as a mother along with a woman who delivered the baby c. A mother is a woman who delivered the baby (and who signed an informed consent to implantation of the embryo) d. A mother is considered a female customer (social mother) e. A mother is considered a woman who donated the womb.

Answer 48

CORRECT ANSWER: с

Question 49

49. Which of the following is the characteristic of active voluntary euthanasia? a. At patient’s request, the doctor assists in their dying by providing the patient with means and information necessary for that b. The doctor administers lethal dose of a drug at the request of the competent patient c. The doctor administers lethal dose of a drug without the knowledge or consent of the patient d. The doctor stops life-sustaining treatment at the request of patient’s relatives, without the knowledge or consent of the patient e. The doctor stops life-sustaining treatment at the request of the competent patient

Answer 49

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 50

50. Palliative care is a. Forced medical care b. Unconventional methods of treatment, prevention, and health improvement based on the principles of alternative medicine c. Life-sustaining treatment (mechanical ventilation, artificial circulation, parenteral nutrition) d. Medical care that provides temporary relief from the symptoms, but does not cure the disease e. Medical care provided to the patient immediately after surgery

Answer 50

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 51

51. Hospice is a facility that a. Provides care for dying patients b. Provides care for cancer patients c. Provides care for socially disadvantaged patients d. Provides home care for patients e. Provides care for elderly patients

Answer 51

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 52

52. What is the attitude to euthanasia according to the Russian legislation? a. Active euthanasia is forbidden, passive euthanasia is allowed with a written consent from the patient b. Only active euthanasia is forbidden c. Only passive euthanasia is forbidden d. Both active and passive euthanasia are allowed e. Both active and passive euthanasia are forbidden

Answer 52

CORRECT ANSWER: е

Question 53

53. A new criterion of death according to WMA Declaration of Sydney is: a. Irreversible loss of function of the cerebral cortex b. Irreversible loss of function of the cerebral hemispheres c. Irreversible loss of all functions of the brain, including the brain stem and first cervical segments d. Long-term absence of unassisted breathing and heartbeat e. Loss of consciousness for three months

Answer 53

CORRECT ANSWER: с

Question 54

54. Which provision describes liberal opinion (“in favor of”) on induced abortions? a. An embryo is a potential human, that is why it has undeniable rights and dignity b. A woman must not be made to carry an undesired fetus, otherwise the principle of patient’s autonomy is violated c. Abortion is killing of an innocent human being d. Dangerous and inevitable consequences of abortion include impairment of physical and mental health of a woman e. An embryo has a specific ontological and moral status and is not a part of a mother’s organism

Answer 54

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 55

55. Which of the statements about surrogacy can be related to conservative viewpoint (“against”)? a. For a family which cannot have a child due to mother’s inability to conceive or carry a fetus, it is the only way to have a baby that will be genetically native for the father b. Surrogacy is not commercialization of childbearing, but a deeply humane act of love and cooperation c. In surrogacy, children resemble goods; the rich may hire women for carrying their offspring d. In fact surrogacy does not differ much from adoption, since parents get the desired baby e. Not only does surrogacy afflict no harm to children, but it is also the only way of confirming the value of family life for childless couples

Answer 55

CORRECT ANSWER: с

Question 56

56. Which of the following is a social indication for induced abortion (up to 22 weeks of pregnancy) in the Russian Federation? a. Death of the husband during pregnancy b. I-II disability group of the husband c. Imprisonment of the woman d. Family with many children (more than 3 children) e. Pregnancy following a rape

Answer 56

CORRECT ANSWER: е

Question 57

57. Who is the mother of a child born following surrogacy, according to the Family Code of the Russian Federation (in case of a controversial situation)? a. A woman who gave birth to the child b. A woman whose egg was used c. Depends on how the contract was compiled d. The decision is made by the court in every certain case depending on the circumstances e. The decision is made by the commission at the medical facility where in vitro fertilization was carried out, chaired by the chief physician

Answer 57

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 58

58. In the Russian Federation, clinical trials of drugs can be carried out: a. On minors who do not have parents b. On pregnant women c. On individuals with mental disorders and the ones recognized as disabled in accordance with the procedure established by the law of the Russian Federation “On psychiatric care and guarantees of the rights of citizens during its provision” d. On military servicemen e. On persons serving sentences in prison as well as on persons kept in custody in pre-trial detention centers

Answer 58

CORRECT ANSWER: с

Question 59

59. It is possible to communicate information about the child constituting a medical secret to his/her parents or legal representative (without the consent of the patient): a. When the child is under 14 years b. When the child is under 15 years c. When the child is under 16 years d. When the child is under 18 years e. Depends on the level of development of the child

Answer 59

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 60

60. According to the Declaration of Helsinki, a non-therapeutic experiment is: a. A method of research conducted not by a therapist, but by any other specialist b. Based on the practice of working with patients c. Research without protocol d. Medical research aimed at developing medical science and drug testing. It is carried out more often on healthy people. e. Research aimed at healing the sick

Answer 60

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 61

61. When did the ancient Russian state of Kievan Rus appear? a. IX century b. XV century c. XVII century d. XVIII century e. XIX century

Answer 61

CORRECT ASNWER: a

Question 62

62. Who is the ruler of Kievan Rus, under whom Christianity was adopted? a. Yaroslav the Wise b. Saint Vladimir c. Svyatoslav Igorevich d. Igor the Old e. Oleg the Prophet

Answer 62

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 63

63. How was the first set of laws of Kievan Rus called? a. Sobornoye Ulozheniye (Council Code) b. Sudebnik (Code of Laws) c. Russkaya Pravda (Rus’ Justice) d. Table of Ranks e. Constitution

Answer 63

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 64

64. The names of Theophanes the Greek, Andrey Rublev, and Dionysius are associated with the development of: a. Book printing b. Architecture c. Icon painting d. Chronicle writing e. Music

Answer 64

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 65

65. Who won in the Battle on the Ice? a. Dmitry Donskoy b. Peter I c. Svyatoslav Igorevich d. Alexander Nevsky e. Ivan the Terrible

Answer 65

CORRECT ASNWER: d

Question 66

66. Who led the Tatar-Mongol invasion of the Russian lands in the XIII century? A. Genghis Khan B. Batu Khan C. Tamerlane D. Tokhtamysh E. Uzbek Khan

Answer 66

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 67

67.Where was the first big victory of the Russian troops over the main military forces of the Golden Horde? a. at the Borodino Field b. at the Neva River c. at the Chudskkoye Lake d. at the Kulikovo Field E. near Poltava

Answer 67

CORRECT ASNWER: d

Question 68

68. Who is the hero of old Russian heroic poems? a. Stepan Razin b. Grigory Rasputin c. Ilya Muromets d. Emelyan Pugachev e. Boris Godunov

Answer 68

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 69

69. The time of peasants’ moving from one owner to another, according to the Code of Laws of 1497, was called a. Zapovedniye Leta (Forbidden Years) b. St.George’s Day c. Urochniye Leta (Fixed Years) d. Otkhodnichestvo (Seasonal Work) e. Mesyachina (Monthly payment in kind

Answer 69

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 70

70. Which of these Russian rulers was the first to receive the title of Tsar? a. Yaroslav the Wise b. Ivan the Terrible c. Mikhail Romanov d. Peter I e. Boris Godunov

Answer 70

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 71

71. After which event did the dependence of the Russian lands on the Golden Horde end? a. Battle on the Ice b. Standing on the Ugra River c. Siege of Azov d. Battle of the Nations e. Battle of Poltava

Answer 71

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 72

72. What was the result of the foreign policy of Ivan the Terrible? a. Annexation of Crimea to Russia b. Annexation of Left-bank Ukraine to Russia c. Annexation of the Kazan and Astrakhan khanates to Russia d. Annexation of Poland to Russia e. Russia’s acquisition of the access to the Baltic Sea

Answer 72

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 73

73. A system of measures taken by Ivan the Terrible for reinforcement of the autocratic power is called: a. Mestnichestvo (Order of precedence) b. Oprichnina c. Zemshchina d. Khovanshchina e. Nestyazhatelstvo (Non-possessors’ movement)

Answer 73

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 74

74. Which of the following rulers belongs to the Time of Troubles? a. Ivan the Terrible b. Dmitry Donskoy c. Boris Godunov d. Elizaveta Petrovna e. Princess Olga

Answer 74

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 75

NWER: c 75. Enthronement of the Romanov dynasty belongs to: a. The XV century b. The XVI century c. The XVII century d. The XVIII century e. The XIX century

Answer 75

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 76

76. The Kunstkamera founded by Peter I is: a. A museum of natural sciences b. A theatre c. A picture gallery d. An orthodox church e. A botanic garden

Answer 76

CORRECT ASNWER: a

Question 77

77. Under whose reign did Russia become the empire? a. Ivan the Terrible b. Peter I c. Alexander II d. Nicholas II e. Stalin

Answer 77

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 78

78. Whose reign belongs to the epoch of coups? a. Peter I b. Paul I c. Alexander I d. Anna Ioannovna e. Princess Olga

Answer 78

CORRECT ASNWER: d

Question 79

79. Who initiated the foundation of Moscow University? a. Dashkova b. Derzhavin c. Tatishchev d. Novikov e. Lomonosov

Answer 79

CORRECT ASNWER: e

Question 80

80. Which event belongs to the reign of Alexander I? a. World War I b. Civil War c. Patriotic War of 1812 d. Great Northern War e. Great Crimean War

Answer 80

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 81

81. Who was a contemporary of Nicholas I? a. Pushkin b. Tolstoy c. Chekhov d. Radishchev e. Bulgakov

Answer 81

CORRECT ASNWER: a

Question 82

82. When was the serfdom abolished? a. 1861 b. 1865 c. 1961 d. 1855 e. 1888

Answer 82

CORRECT ASNWER: a

Question 83

83. Semyonov-Tyan-Shansky and Przhevalsky were famous: a. Mathematicians b. Travelers c. Chemists d. Physicists e. Writers

Answer 83

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 84

84. Which of the following belongs to the reign of Nicholas II? a. Establishment of Synod b. Creation of nuclear weapon c. Copper Riot d. Bloody Sunday e. Serfdom of peasants

Answer 84

CORRECT ASNWER: d

Question 85

85. Who came to power following the October Revolution of 1917? a. Cadets b. Monarchists c. Anarchists d. Slavophiles e. Bolshevists

Answer 85

CORRECT ASNWER: e

Question 86

86. Who was the leader of the Bolshevik party? a. Kolchak b. Lenin c. Milyukov d. Makhno e. Stolypin

Answer 86

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 87

87. Which notion belongs to the reign of Stalin? a. Rehabilitation b. Gulag (Main Directorate of Camps and Correctional Labor Facilities) c. Perestroika (Reformation) d. Virgin lands reclamation e. CIS (Commonwealth of Independent States)

Answer 87

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 88

88. How was the plan of Nazi Germany to conquer USSR called? a. Citadel b. Typhoon c. Ost d. Barbarossa e. Drive to the East (Drang nach Osten)

Answer 88

CORRECT ASNWER: d

Question 89

89. Policy of Gorbachev was called: a. Thaw b. Era of stagnation c. Perestroika d. Collectivization e. War communism

Answer 89

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 90

90. Under whose reign did mass construction of houses with separate flats for families start? a. Stalin b. Khrushchev c. Brezhnev d. Gorbachev e. Yeltsin

Answer 90

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 91

91. Psychology is a science that studies: a. Methods of scientific knowledge b. The laws of development and functioning of society c. Psyche and mental phenomena d. Morphology of the human body, its systems and organs e. Substances, their composition, and properties

Answer 91

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 92

92. Which of the following belongs to mental properties? a. Memory b. Perception c. Speech d. Thinking e. Temperament

Answer 92

CORRECT ASNWER: e

Question 93

93. The highest mental cognitive processes include: a. Abilities b. Imagination c. Character d. Intelligence E. Temperament

Answer 93

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 94

94. Which of the following is the physiological basis of sensations? a. Emotion b. Receptor c. Tibia d. The system of motives and values e. Hair

Answer 94

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 95

95. Sensitivity arising from the receptors located in the internal organs is called: a. Interoceptive b. Visual c. Proprioceptive d. Exteroceptive e. Auditory

Answer 95

CORRECT ASNWER: a

Question 96

96. Sensitivity of the position of parts of the body relative to one other and in space (joint position sense) is called: a. Interoceptive b. Visual c. Proprioceptive d. Exteroceptive e. Auditory

Answer 96

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 97

97. The object identified in the process of perception against some background is called: a. Figure b. Stimulus c. Reaction d. Space e. Time

Answer 97

CORRECT ASNWER: a

Question 98

98. The highest cognitive process which is characterized by memorizing, preserving, recognizing, reproducing, and forgetting traces of past experience is called: a. Sensation b. Thinking c. Speech d. Memory e. Attention

Answer 98

CORRECT ASNWER: d

Question 99

99. Who is the author of the Forgetting Curve? a. Freud b. Maslow c. Adler d. Jung e. Ribot

Answer 99

CORRECT ASNWER: e

Question 100

100. The highest cognitive process which is characterized by transformation of perceptions that reflect reality and creation of new perceptions on this basis is called: a. Sensation b. Imagination c. Speech d. Memory e. Attention

Answer 100

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 101

101. According to the degree of volitional efforts, imagination can be: a. Dormant b. Sleepy c. Active d. Passive e. Intentional

Answer 101

CORRECT ASNWER: e

Question 102

102. Intentional and passive imagination include: a. Reproduction b. Sleep c. Daydreams d. Dreams e. Creativity

Answer 102

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 103

103. The highest cognitive process the essence of which is generation of new knowledge on the basis of creative reflection and human transformation of reality is called: a. Sensation b. Thinking c. Speech d. Memory e. Attention

Answer 103

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 104

104. Which of the following belongs to forms of thinking? a. Inference b. Abstraction c. Synthesis d. Analysis e. Comparison

Answer 104

CORRECT ASNWER: a

Question 105

105. Which of the following belongs to operations of thinking? a. Inference b. Generalization c. Concept d. Imagination e. Judgment

Answer 105

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 106

106. The types of thinking according to the degree of novelty include: a. Reproductive thinking b. Visual and figurative thinking c. Visual active thinking d. Abstract reasoning e. Intuitive thinking

Answer 106

CORRECT ASNWER: a

Question 107

107. A special type of thinking the essence of which lies in practical transformation carried out with real objects is called: a. Reproductive thinking b. Visual and figurative thinking c. Visual active thinking d. Abstract reasoning e. Intuitive thinking

Answer 107

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 108

108. Mental connection of parts of objects or phenomena into one whole is called: a. Inference b. Deduction c. Synthesis d. Imagination e. Judgment

Answer 108

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 109

109. Inference made in relation to a particular case on the basis of a generality is called: a. Inference b. Deduction c. Synthesis d. Imagination e. Judgment

Answer 109

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 110

110. The highest cognitive process, the process of communication between people through language is called: a. Memory b. Perception c. Speech d. Thinking e. Temperament

Answer 110

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 111

111. Which of the following belongs to types of speech? a. Impact b. Designation c. Oral communication d. Message e. Expression

Answer 111

CORRECT ASNWER: c

Question 112

112. The functions of speech include: a. Written b. Designating c. Oral d. Internal e. External

Answer 112

CORRECT ASNWER: b

Question 113

113. Which of the following types of speech takes place in the form of conversation? a. Written speech b. Designation c. Dialogue d. Message e. Kinetic speech

Answer 113

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 114

114. The highest cognitive process which is characterized by the direction and concentration of mental activity on something specific is called: a. Sensation b. Thinking c. Speech d. Memory e. Attention

Answer 114

CORRECT ANSWER: e

Question 115

115. A type of attention in which it is required to make volitional efforts to direct and concentrate mental activity is called: a. Post-voluntary b. Agnosia c. Involuntary d. Inattention e. Voluntary

Answer 115

CORRECT ANSWER: e

Question 116

116. A mental state and process characterized by a person's conscious regulation of their behavior and activities, expressed in the ability to overcome internal and external difficulties when performing purposeful actions and deeds, is called: a. Memory b. Emotion c. Speech d. Will e. Temperament

Answer 116

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 117

117. The most powerful and weakly controlled type of emotional reaction is called: a. Feeling b. Emotion c. Heat of passion d. Will e. Temperament

Answer 117

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 118

118. A set of mental characteristics typical of an individual which are associated with emotional excitability, i.e. rapidity of emergence of feelings, on the one hand, and their intensity, on the other hand, is called: a. Memory b. Emotion c. Speech d. Will e. Temperament

Answer 118

CORRECT ANSWER: e

Question 119

119. Science about development and teaching of a person is called: a. Sociology b. Methodology c. Philosophy d. Psychology e. Pedagogy

Answer 119

CORRECT ANSWER: e

Question 120

120. A set of pedagogical actions and techniques aimed at organizing the educational process and creating conditions that motivate students to master educational material independently, proactively, and creatively in the process of cognitive activity is called: a. Active learning method b. Passive teaching method c. Lecture and seminar system d. Classroom learning e. Pedagogical competence

Answer 120

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 121

121. Law is: a. Expression of the spirit of the people formed throughout history b. The system of compulsory rules of conduct established by the state c. Interest protected by the state d. State law enforcement system e. Citizen's right to work

Answer 121

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 122

122. Which of the following are elements of legal relationship? a. Subjects, object, content b. Hypothesis, disposition, sanction c. Legal capacity, active capacity, legal personality d. Event, action, inaction e. Legal facts, events, actions

Answer 122

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 123

123. The structure of a legal rule includes: a. Hypothesis, disposition, sanction b. Hypothesis, restitution, sanction c. Disposition, restitution, sanction d. Hypothesis, wrongful act, sanction e. Hypothesis, sanction, legal fact

Answer 123

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 124

124. Which of the following belongs to branches of substantive law? a. Law of the arbitration proceedings b. Constitutional law c. Law civil proceedings d. Law of criminal proceedings e. Law of labor proceedings

Answer 124

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 125

125. The subjective side of the offense is: a. Blame b. Circumstances c. Harmful consequences d. Subject of the offense e. Object of legal relationship

Answer 125

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 126

126. A citizen of the Russian Federation of what age can become the President of the Russian Federation? a. Not younger than 21 years b. Not younger than 25 years c. Not younger than 35 years d. Not younger than 30 years e. Not younger than 22 years

Answer 126

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 127

127. For which term are deputies of the State Duma of the Russian Federation elected? a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 6 years d. 4 years e. 7 years

Answer 127

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 128

128. Who appoints the Chairman of the Government of the Russian Federation? a. Government of the Russian Federation b. Federation Council of the Russian Federation c. Constitutional Court of the Russian Federation d. President of the Russian Federation e. State Duma of the Russian Federation

Answer 128

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 129

129. The content of proprietary right includes the right to: a. Health care b. Dispose of property c. Rest d. Salary e. Bonuses

Answer 129

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 130

130. The legal capacity of a citizen is terminated with: a. Attaining majority b. Death c. Incapacity d. Disability e. Limitation of legal capacity

Answer 130

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 131

131. Full partnerships: a. Are not liable for the obligations of a full partnership b. Are responsible for the obligations of a full partnership c. Bear the risk of losses associated with the activities of the partnership d. Are exempt from fulfilling obligations e. Are responsible in the amount of a share contribution

Answer 131

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 132

132. Full action capacity occurs before the age of 18, provided: a. An especially grave crime is committed b. Child birth c. Basic education is completed d. Marriage e. General education is completed

Answer 132

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 133

133. A transaction made pro forma is called: a. Sham b. Fictitious c. Contentious d. Smart e. Illegal

Answer 133

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 134

134. Marriage is not allowed: a. Between cousins and sisters b. Without love c. Between foster parents and adopted children d. Between homeless persons e. Between citizens who do not have registration at the place of residence

Answer 134

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 135

135. A marriage is declared invalid by: a. Guardianship and Trusteeship Authority b. Registry Office c. Local government d. Court e. Regional executive authorities

Answer 135

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 136

136. Disputes about division of joint tenancy in case of divorce are considered in: a. Court b. Registry office c. Prosecutor's office d. Local self-government executive body e. Regional executive body

Answer 136

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 137

137. Name the circumstance which excludes criminality of the act: a. Alcohol intoxication b. Heat of passion c. Extreme necessity d. Pregnancy e. Minority of the accused

Answer 137

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 138

138. Arrest is appointed for a period from: a. 1 to 6 months b. 2 months to 1 year c. 1 to 12 months d. 2 months to 2 years e. 1 to 2 years

Answer 138

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 139

139. The essence of criminal punishment is: a. Penalty b. Retribution c. Repression d. Restoration of violated interests e. Reprisal

Answer 139

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 140

140. Non-attendance is: a. Absence from work for more than four hours in a row b. Absence from work for no good reason c. Being more than 1 hour late for work d. Being more than 3 hours late for work e. Being 2 hours late for work

Answer 140

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 141

141. Name a way to protect labor rights and freedoms: a. Appeal to the President of the Russian Federation b. Judicial protection c. Appeal to the prosecutor's office d. Appeal to the local self-government executive body e. Reporting to the police

Answer 141

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 142

142. State labor inspectors are representatives of: a. Trade union b. President c. Governments d. State e. The prosecutor

Answer 142

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 143

143. The decision of the labor dispute committee can be appealed against in: a. Trade union b. Court c. Prosecutor's office d. Territorial body of the Federal Labor Inspection e. Police

Answer 143

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 144

144. Who is not allowed to be recalled from vacation? a. Women with children under the age of 14 years b. Employees who have worked in the organization for 20 years c. Employees under 18 years d. Women with disabled children e. Employees under 20 years

Answer 144

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 145

145. It is forbidden not to provide annual paid leave for a. 5 years in a row b. 2 years in a row c. 10 years in a row d. 3 years in a row e. 1 year

Answer 145

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 146

146. The age of administrative liability is: a. 18 years b. 16 years c. 14 years d. 15 years e. 17 years

Answer 146

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 147

147. Disqualification is: a. Administrative punishment b. Disciplinary punishment c. Criminal punishment d. Civil law punishment e. Moral punishment

Answer 147

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 148

148. The basic principles of health protection include the priority of: a. The interests of the working population b. The interests of the medical institution in providing medical care c. Children's health d. Health care for the elderly e. Interests of civil servants

Answer 148

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 149

149. Medical and pharmaceutical professionals are not entitled to: a. Professional training b. Labor stimulation c. Concealment of information from the patient about their state of health d. Professional liability insurance e. Bonus payments

Answer 149

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 150

150. Who carries out licensing of pharmaceutical activities? a. Legislative bodies b. Executive bodies c. Judicial bodies d. Ministry of Health e. Ministry of Labor

Answer 150

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 151

151. Anaerobic glycolytic system is the main pathway of ATP resynthesis during: a. Running of100 meters b. Running of 800 meters c. Running of 3.2 kilometers d. Marathon run e. Cross-country walking

Answer 151

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 152

152. Creatine phosphokinase system is the main pathway for ATP resynthesis during: a. Swimming of 400 m b. Running of 50 meters c. Running of 1.6 km d. Running of 10 km e. Marathon swim

Answer 152

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 153

153. The body contains an amount of ATP sufficient for vital activity for several: a. Seconds b. Minutes c. Hours d. Days e. Years

Answer 153

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 154

154. The main goal of vocational applied physical training is: a. Development and maintenance of the required level of professionally important physical and mental qualities b. Sports improvement c. Prevention of infectious diseases d. Increase in labor productivity e. All of the above stated variants are correct

Answer 154

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 155

155. Which profession is characterized by significant emotional and static stress and prolonged intense attention? a. Surgeon b. General practitioner c. Pediatrician d. Laboratory doctor e. Pharmacist

Answer 155

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 156

156. The main goal of industrial physical education is: a. Health promotion, increased efficiency of labor productivity b. Sports improvement c. Prevention of infectious diseases d. Prevention of occupational diseases e. Decrease in incidence of diseases

Answer 156

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 157

157. Which of the following is the shortest form of industrial gymnastics lasting only 20-30 seconds? a. Introductory gymnastics b. Physical exercise break c. Physical exercise minute d. Micro-break for active rest e. Rest at lunchtime

Answer 157

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 158

158. Which of the following is the main endogenous source of heat in the human body during the period of intense activity? a. Gastrointestinal tract b. Nervous system c. Skeletal muscles d. Liver e. Adipose tissue

Answer 158

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 159

159. The internal temperature of the human body which is optimal is: a. 37.0 ° C b. 36.6 ° C c. 37.5 ° C d. 36.0 ° C e. 35.5 ° C

Answer 159

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 160

160. “Internal heat transfer” from internal organs and muscles to the skin is provided by the mechanism of: a. Conduction b. Convection c. Radiation d. Evaporation e. Active transport

Answer 160

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 161

161. Which of the following is the central regulator of body temperature? a. Hypothalamus b. Pituitary gland c. Limbic system d. Medulla e. Cortex

Answer 161

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 162

162. Which of the following is controlled by the somatic nervous system? a. Contractile thermogenesis b. Non-contractile thermogenesis c. Change in vascular tone d. Sweating e. Urination

Answer 162

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 163

163. Which hormones contribute to an increase in heat production under conditions of cold stress? a. Adrenaline and thyroxin b. Vasopressin and aldosterone c. Insulin and growth hormone d. Glucocorticoids e. Aldosterone and vasopressin

Answer 163

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 164

164. The main energy substrates during physical activity under cold stress conditions are: a. Glucose and glycogen b. Free fatty acids c. Proteins d. Ketone bodies e. Nucleic acids

Answer 164

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 165

165. Which stages in the development of most adaptive reactions are distinguished? a. Immediate and long-term stages b. Immediate, long-term, and resistance stages c. Immediate, intermediate, long-term, and resistance stages d. Long-term and resistance stages e. Compensation

Answer 165

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 166

166. The state of overexertion and breakdown of specific and non-specific adaptation mechanisms is called a. Maladaptation b. Readaptation c. Eustress d. Distress e. Stress

Answer 166

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 167

167. Adaptation to motor activity promotes adaptation to hypoxia and hypothermia due to the mechanism of: a. Positive cross adaptation b. Positive feedback c. Negative feedback d. Negative cross adaptation e. Urgent adaptation

Answer 167

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 168

168. Which formula is used to quickly calculate the maximum heart rate (HRmax)? a. HRmax = 220 - age (in years) b. HRmax = 220 - height (in cm) c. HRmax = 220 - weight (in kg) d. HRmax = height (in cm) - age (in years) e. HRmax = weight (in kg) - age (in years)

Answer 168

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 169

169. Which of the following is supplied with blood the most during physical activity? a. Brain b. Heart c. Kidneys d. Liver e. Muscles

Answer 169

CORRECT ANSWER: e

Question 170

170. Physical qualities of a person include: a. Strength, endurance, speed, flexibility, agility b. Strength, speed, dynamism, agility, endurance c. Strength, endurance, speed, flexibility d. Strength, endurance, speed, dexterity e. Strength, endurance, speed, plasticity, dexterity

Answer 170

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 171

171. Physical qualities of a person are determined by: a. Heredity b. Influence of exertion c. Heredity and long-term adaptation of the body to physical activity d. Influence of the coach e. Volitional efforts of an athlete

Answer 171

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 172

172. The increase in the volume of skeletal muscles in the process of adaptation to physical activity occurs due to: a. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of muscle fibers b. Hyperplasia of muscle fibers c. Hypertrophy of muscle fibers d. Increase in the number of muscle fibers e. Growth of connective tissue

Answer 172

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 173

173. Which of the following is used to develop strength? a. External resistance b. Own body weight c. Self-resistance exercises, external resistances, body weight d. External resistance and own body weight e. Dumbbells and weights

Answer 173

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 174

174. The body aerobic performance depends on: a. Functional reserve of the circulatory, respiration, blood, and cellular respiration systems b. Functional reserve of the circulatory system c. The level of hemoglobin d. Lung capacity e. Activity of aerobic metabolism enzymes in skeletal muscles

Answer 174

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 175

175. Endurance is mainly developed by the following sports: a. Skiing, swimming, long-distance running, walking, cycling b. Boxing, powerlifting, skiing, swimming, long-distance running c. Rhythmic and artistic gymnastics d. Alpine skiing, sprinting, swimming, cycling, weightlifting e. Motorcycle racing

Answer 175

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 176

176. Which of the following helps to develop dexterity? a. Physical exercises of increased coordination complexity b. Speed exercises c. Strength exercises d. Aerobic exercises e. Cyclic exercises

Answer 176

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 177

177. Which of the following helps to develop flexibility? a. High-amplitude exercises b. Repeated physical exercises with increasing amplitude c. Strength exercises d. Speed exercises e. Endurance exercise

Answer 177

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 178

178. The main constituents of human health are: a. Mental, physical, material health b. Physical, mental, social (spiritual) health c. Social, physical health d. Material, mental, ideological health e. Physical, mental health

Answer 178

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 179

179. Which of the following factors determine population health? a. Genetic, medical, ecological factors b. Lifestyle, genetics, medicine, ecology c. Medicine, welfare, ecology d. Ecology, lifestyle, medicine e. Quality, availability, and timeliness of medical care

Answer 179

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 180

180. The main factor that determines the level of population health in economically developed countries is: a. Availability, timeliness, and quality of medical care b. Lifestyle of the population c. Material well-being and income of the population d. Ecology e. Material well-being

Answer 180

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 181

181. Mental unification of parts into a single whole is called: a. Synthesis b. Analysis c. Comparison d. Characteristic e. Modeling

Answer 181

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 182

182. Logical reasoning from general to particular is called: a. Analogy b. Modeling c. Induction d. Deduction e. Characteristic

Answer 182

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 183

183. Theoretical knowledge includes: a. Experiment b. Measurement c. Observation d. Idealization e. Comparison

Answer 183

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 184

184. Proponents of asceticism advocate: a. Denying secular temptations b. Altruism in the name of serving ideals c. Taking advantage of everything d. Enjoying life e. Public activity

Answer 184

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 185

185. Understanding every human action as predetermined in advance is called: a. Fatalism b. Voluntarism c. Nihilism d. Pragmatism e. Cynicism

Answer 185

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 186

186. Unintentional distortion of knowledge is called: a. Lying b. Fantasy c. Delusion d. Truth e. Doubt

Answer 186

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 187

187. The ability of a person to solve problems without realizing a way to solve them is called: a. Contemplation b. Observation c. Intelligence d. Intuition e. Inference

Answer 187

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 188

188. A single representative of a biological species or social group is called: a. Individual b. Species c. Hero d. Personality e. Individuality

Answer 188

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 189

189. A form of scientific knowledge containing an assumption and that needs to be proved is called: a. Law b. Principle c. Definition d. Theory e. Hypothesis

Answer 189

CORRECT ANSWER: e

Question 190

190. The system of techniques, procedures, and rules used to obtain reliable knowledge is called: a. Theory b. Method c. Paradigm d. Knowledge e. Skill

Answer 190

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 191

191. Norms in which the formal equality of people is fixed are called: a. Right b. Morality c. Religion d. Politics e. Philosophy

Answer 191

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 192

192. Human ideas about the good, evil, happiness, and duty are embodied in norms of: a. Politics b. Science c. Arts d. Law e. Morality

Answer 192

CORRECT ANSWER: e

Question 193

193. Philosophical discipline exploring the origin and nature of morality and morals is called: a. Aesthetics b. Ethics c. Ergonomics d. Logics e. Anthropology

Answer 193

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 194

194. The form of sensory cognition is called: a. Sensation b. Judgment c. Hypothesis d. Premonition e. Comprehension

Answer 194

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 195

195. The source of understanding the world is the mind. Who advocates this idea? a. Intuitionists b. Sensualists c. Spiritualists d. Rationalists e. Empiricists

Answer 195

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 196

196. Feelings are the source of knowledge of the world. Who advocates this idea? a. Intuitionists b. Sensualists c. Spiritualists d. Rationalists e. Existentialists

Answer 196

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 197

197. Mental division of the whole into its parts is called: a. Synthesis b. Analysis c. Analogy d. Deduction e. Induction

Answer 197

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 198

198. Which of the following are results of empirical research? a. Scientific facts b. Scientific theories c. Scientific hypotheses d. Scientific problems e. Scientific ideas

Answer 198

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 199

199. Logical reasoning from particular to general is called: a. Generalization b. Modeling c. Induction d. Deduction e. Analogy

Answer 199

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 200

200. Knowledge the truth of which has not been proved is called: a. Hypothetical b. Theoretical c. Empirical d. Delusion e. Generalization

Answer 200

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 201

201. The ability of an individual to assess their inner world and behavior is called: a. Psyche b. Self-awareness c. Will d. Emotions e. Memory

Answer 201

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 202

202. A logical method of transferring some features of one object to another object which is similar to the first one is called: a. Generalization b. Analogy c. Modeling d. Abstraction e. Construction

Answer 202

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 203

203. The first historical form of holistic and imaginative perception of the world is called: a. Mythology b. Science c. Politics d. Philosophy e. Religion

Answer 203

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 204

204. Personality's view on something is called: a. Concept b. Opinion c. Fact d. Truth e. Knowledge

Answer 204

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 205

205. The question about the meaning of life is caused by the thought of whether it is worth living, if every person is: a. Spiritless b. Mortal c. Lonely d. Weak e. Suppressed

Answer 205

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 206

206. Unlike opinion, knowledge: a. Expresses the subjective opinion of a person b. Does not require justification c. Has a sign of truth d. Is intuitive e. Does not need confirmation

Answer 206

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 207

207. Philosophy seeks to attain: a. Rational knowledge b. Technical knowledge c. Applied knowledge d. Ordinary knowledge e. Intuitive knowledge

Answer 207

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 208

208. One of the basic characteristics of the scientific type of cognition is: a. Spontaneity b. Arbitrariness c. Consistency d. Reliance on faith e. Subjectivity

Answer 208

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 209

209. The doctrine denying the existence of God is called: a. Atheism b. Atomism c. Skepticism d. Voluntarism

Answer 209

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 210

210. The concept of truth is applicable to: a. Question b. Knowledge c. Assumption d. Assessment e. Intuition

Answer 210

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 211

211. The modern economy is: a. Market economy b. Economy of limited resources c. Political economy d. Mixed economy e. Command-administrative economy

Answer 211

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 212

212. Which of the following is the object of economy? a. Economic sphere of society b. Limited resources c. Growing needs d. Technological progress e. Global problems of humanity

Answer 212

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 213

213. Who is the author of the first diagram illustrating circulation of social goods? a. Smith b. Montchrestien c. Marx d. Quesnay e. Keynes

Answer 213

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 214

214. The process of movement of material goods from one subject to another is called: a. Distribution b. Exchange c. Production d. Consumption e. Discounting

Answer 214

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 215

215. Factors of production are: a. Production conditions b. Means of production c. Natural resources d. Terms of delivery of goods (contract) e. Production goods

Answer 215

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 216

216. The value of a good measured by a lost opportunity is called: a. Market value b. Exchange value c. Use value d. Alternative cost e. Surplus value

Answer 216

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 217

217. Increase in the income of chocolate consumers, other conditions being equal, will lead to: a. Increased supply and demand for chocolate b. Shift of the demand curve for chocolate downwards to the left c. Increased demand for chocolate d. Increased market size for chocolate e. Reduced elasticity of chocolate

Answer 217

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 218

218. The trade balance is positive, if: a. The country imports less goods than it exports b. The country imports are high c. The country exports are high d. The country imports more goods than it exports e. The country economic borders are closed

Answer 218

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 219

219. Macroeconomics reflects: a. Market and interests of a private owner b. State, interests of everyone c. A and B are correct d. There is no right answer e. Market

Answer 219

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 220

220. Market fiasco manifests itself through: a. Lack of incentives to produce goods and services for collective use b. Failure to strike the balance between economic interests of sellers and buyers c. Lack of mechanisms for removing non-competitive enterprises d. Failure to communicate the volume and structure of production to companies e. Lack of digitalization mechanisms

Answer 220

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 221

221. The state budget deficit can be financed by: a. Expanding the list of levied taxes b. Profits of state-owned enterprises c. Withdrawing funds from the Gold Reserves d. Issuing money and liabilities e. Selling state territories

Answer 221

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 222

222. What are the factors of economic growth? a. Capital gain b. Growth of educational level c. Improvement of allocated resources d. Improvement of technology based on the technological progress e. All answers are correct

Answer 222

CORRECT ANSWER: e

Question 223

223. If supply decreased by 10% in response to a 5% reduction in price, then the supply is characterized by: a. High elasticity b. Inelasticity c. Absolute inelasticity d. Unitary elasticity e. Absolute elasticity

Answer 223

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 224

224. The total amount of taxes collected in the state is 720 billion currency units, GDP is 1,840 billion currency units. What is the level of taxation in the country? a. 3.9% b. 23% c. 61% d. 39% e. 35%

Answer 224

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 225

225. The functions of a commercial bank include: a. Administrating government accounts b. Keeping the required reserves of a commercial bank c. Opening and maintaining customer accounts, including foreign ones d. Administering clients' funds without their consent e. Giving loans to regional budgets

Answer 225

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 226

226. The Gini coefficient tends towards zero, if: a. Most of the population have no minimum means of subsistence b. Income inequality in society is insignificant c. There is an increase in income inequality d. There is a sharp decline in the income of the bulk of the population e. The country has a high level of inclusiveness

Answer 226

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 227

227. Which of the following is the definition of deflation? a. A decrease in the general price level in the economy b. Inability of a company or person to pay their debts on time c. Price of units of one currency in units of another currency d. Annual government spending and revenue plan e. There is no right answer

Answer 227

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 228

228. Common features of markets for monopolistic and perfect competition include: a. No significant barriers for entering the industry b. Production of unique goods c. Production of similar goods d. Many sellers and buyers operating in the market e. Control over prices of goods

Answer 228

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 229

229. The main economic problems of society are: a. What to produce b. For whom to produce c. How to produce d. A and B e. A, B, and C

Answer 229

CORRECT ANSWER: e

Question 230

230. Growth of consumer income is graphically expressed in: a. A parallel shift of the budget line upwards to the right b. Changing the slope of the budget line c. Reducing the slope of the budget line d. A parallel shift of the budget line downwards to the left e. A perpendicular shift of the budget line

Answer 230

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 231

231. An oligopolist maximizes profits when a. Marginal costs are equal to marginal revenue b. Marginal costs are equal to product price c. Average costs are equal to product price d. Average costs area equal to marginal costs e. Semi-variable costs exceed fixed costs

Answer 231

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 232

232. An increase in the number of applied factors by n times caused an increase in the volume of production by more than n times. This is a characteristic of: a. The law of increasing productivity b. Constant returns to scale c. Decreasing returns to scale d. Increasing returns to scale e. Extensive growth

Answer 232

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 233

233. The total profit of a company is calculated as: a. A sum of cumulative fixed and variable costs b. A difference between price and average total costs c. A difference between gross income and gross costs d. Product of price and the quantity of goods e. Total cost function of all means of production

Answer 233

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 234

234. The policy of high prices means that the growth of total income occurs due to: a. Improvement of the quality b. Increased prices c. Lower prices d. Increase in the amount of goods or services e. There is no right answer

Answer 234

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 235

235. The transition period is not accompanied by: a. The impact of the state on the economy through the system of financial regulators b. Transitional recession c. Loss of the state sole control over economic resources d. Budget crisis e. Economic growth

Answer 235

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 236

236. Money serves as: a. Currency b. A means of value preservation c. Monetary unit d. All answers are correct e. A means of payment

Answer 236

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 237

237. A product, the demand level for which falls with an increase in income at each price value is called: a. Ordinary product b. Luxury product c. Interchangeable product d. Poor quality product e. Complementary product

Answer 237

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 238

238. If the price rises, and the volume of output in the economy falls, this can be illustrated by a shift in the: a. Aggregate supply curve to the left b. Aggregate supply curve to the right c. Aggregate demand curve to the left d. Aggregate demand curve to the right e. All answers are correct

Answer 238

answers are correct CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 239

239. The disadvantages of a planned economy include: a. Lack of market for public goods b. Inhibition of the technological progress c. Suppressed inflation in the form of deficits d. Widespread manual labor e. Centralized management

Answer 239

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 240

240. According to the technological approach, economic systems are divided into: a. Developed, developing, backward, poor b. Pre-industrial, industrial, post-industrial c. Primitive, slave-owning, feudal, capitalist, communist d. Traditional, market, mixed e. Market, command-administrative, socialist

Answer 240

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 241

241. In which word is the combination “ti” pronounced as [tsi]: a. intestínum b. eminéntia c. óstium d. mediastínum

Answer 241

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 242

242. In which word is the combination “ngu” not pronounced as [ngv]: a. língua b. inguinális c. únguis d. ángulus

Answer 242

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 243

243. Which Gen.sg. form of the noun gánglion is correct? a. ganglioni b. ganglion c. ganglii d. ganglionin

Answer 243

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 244

244. Which translation of the term “anterior lamina” is correct? a. lamina anteriora b. lamina anterior c. lamina anterius d. lamina anteria

Answer 244

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 245

245.Which translation of the term “great foramen” is correct? a. foramen occipitale major b. foramen occipitale majus c. foramen occipitale magnus d. foramen occipitale magnum

Answer 245

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 246

246.Which translation of the term “rotator muscles” is correct? a. musculi levatores b. musculi flexores c. muscules rotatores d. muscula pronatores

Answer 246

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 247

247.Which translation of the term “ethmoid bones” is correct? a. ossa cribrosa b. osses ethmoidales c. osses cribroses d. ossa ethmoidalia

Answer 247

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 248

248.Which translation of the term “vessels of vessels” is correct? a. vasa vasorum b. vasis vasium c. vases vasum d. vasa vasum

Answer 248

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 249

249.What information about a noun is contained in the dictionary? a. Nom.Sg. form / ending of Gen.Sg. / gender designation b. Nom.Sg. form/ ending of Nom.Pl. / gender designation c. Nom.Sg. form / Gen.Sg. form d. Nom.Sg. form / gender designation / number designation

Answer 249

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 250

250.What information does the dictionary form of an adjective contain? a. Form of the nominative case, masculine gender b. Singular and plural forms of the masculine gender c. Form of the masculine gender and ending of the neuter gender d. Form of the masculine gender, endings of the feminine and neuter gender

Answer 250

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 251

251. Which translation of the term “short artery” is correct? a. arteriae brevis b. arteria brevis c. arteriae breve d. arteriarum breviarum

Answer 251

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 252

252. What does the second part of the dictionary form posterior,ius denote? a. Gen.Sg. form for all genders b. Form of the feminine gender, Nom.Sg. c. Form of the neuter gender, Nom.Sg. d. The second form is incorrect (does not exist)

Answer 252

CORRECT ANSWER: с

Question 253

253.How is the term “osseous nasal septum” correctly translated? a. septum osseum nasi b. sulcus nasi ossei c. septum nasi osseum d. sulcus osseus nasalis

Answer 253

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 254

254.What is the Gen. sg. form of the adjective posterior, ius: a. posterioris b. posteris c. posterius d. posteriori

Answer 254

A

Question 255

255. Finish the term “body of the hyoid bone” - corpus ossis ...? a. hypoglossi b. sublingualis c. hyoidei d. subacuti

Answer 255

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 256

256.Which term element means “narrowing”? a. -sclerosis b. -stenosis c. -stasis d. -spasmus

Answer 256

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 257

257.Which term element is missing in “dactyl...”, which means “cramps in the fingers”? a. -algia b. -odynia c. -spasmus d. –plegia

Answer 257

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 258

258. Which ending is missing in the term “bronchitis chronic...”? a. -is b. -us c. -a d. –ae

Answer 258

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 259

259. Which term element means “hernia”? a. -lithus b. -cele c. -cysta d. –plasia

Answer 259

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 260

260. Which term element is missing in the term “histo ...”, which means “tissue degradation”? a. -malacia b. -lysis c. -sclerosis d. –rrhexis

Answer 260

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 261

261. How to translate “site of decreased resistance” correctly? a. locus minimi resistentiae b. locus minoris resistentiae c. locus minimae resistentiae d. locus minorae resistentiae

Answer 261

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 262

262. Which translation of the term “haematuria” is correct? a. Presence of urea in the blood b. Presence of glucose in the blood c. Presence of glucose in the urine d. Presence of blood in the urine

Answer 262

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 263

263. What does the expression “Anamnesis morbi” mean? a. Data about life b. Data about treatment c. Data about a disease d. Data about death

Answer 263

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 264

264. How is the expression “Status naturalis” translated? a. Favorable prognosis b. Local state c. Site of decreased resistance d. Natural state

Answer 264

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 265

265.How is the term “encephalomyelitis” translated? a. Inflammation of the brain b. Meningitis c. Inflammation of the brain and spinal cord d. Inflammation of the spinal cord

Answer 265

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 266

266.What does the term “metrorrhagia” mean? a. Intestinal bleeding b. Uterine bleeding c. Rectal bleeding d. Nasal bleed

Answer 266

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 267

267.Which of the following terms means “dryness of the oral mucosa”? a. Xerocheilia b. Xerostomia c. Xerostoma d. Xerosis

Answer 267

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 268

268.How is the term “haematogenus” translated? a. Of renal origin b. Originating from blood c. Hematogenesis d. Of stomach origin

Answer 268

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 269

269.How is the term “pneumatosis” translated? a. Inflammation of the lung b. Accumulation of air in any part of the body c. Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity d. Pulmonary consolidation

Answer 269

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 270

270. How to write the term “skin redness” in Latin? a. Eritrodermia b. Erytrodermia c. Erytrodaermia d. Erythrodermia

Answer 270

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 271

271. How to translate “paralysis affecting symmetrical parts of the body” in Latin? a. Deeplegia b. Periplegia c. Hemiplegia d. Diplegia

Answer 271

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 272

272. Which term is used to denote “treatment with mental impact”? a. Psychiatry b. Psychotherapy c. Deep analysis d. Psychopathology

Answer 272

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 273

273.Which prefix is missing in the term “...luxation”, which means “incomplete dislocation”? a. hypo- b. de- c. sub- d. re-

Answer 273

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 274

274.What does the term “dermatosis” mean? a. Skin inflammation b. Purulent skin disease c. Dry skin d. Common name for skin diseases

Answer 274

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 275

275. What does the prefix “infra-” mean? a. Inside b. Transfer c. Under, below d. Between

Answer 275

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 276

276.How is the term “arthrosis” translated? a. Pain in the joints b. Chronic cartilage disease c. Inflammation of the joints d. Chronic joint disease

Answer 276

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 277

277.What does the term “toxicosis” mean? a. The presence of toxic substances in the blood b. A disease caused by the presence of toxic substances in the blood c. Fear of poisoning d. The presence of toxic substances in the urine

Answer 277

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 278

278.Which ending is missing in the phrase “caries dent...”, which means “caries of teeth”? a. -is b. -um c. -ium d. –es

Answer 278

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 279

279. Which ending is missing in the term “vitium cord...”, which means “cardiac failure”? a. -is b. -ium c. -i d. -um

Answer 279

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 280

280. Which word form is missing in the term “asthma...”, which means “bronchial asthma”? a. Bronchialis b. Bronchiale c. Bronchiali d. Bronchialium

Answer 280

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 281

281. How is the expression “habitus aegroti” translated? a. Condition of a patient b. Appearance of a patient c. Trust of a patient d. Complaints of a patient

Answer 281

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 282

282. Which words in prescriptions are not shortened? А. Names of drug forms В. Names of plant parts С. Recommendations to a pharmacist D. Names of chemical compounds

Answer 282

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 283

283.How is the word “drop/drops” shortened in prescriptions? a. gt. b. gut. c. gts. d. gtt.

Answer 283

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 284

284. Which shortened variant of the word “tablet” is correct? a. tab. b. tabb. c. tabl. d. tabul.

Answer 284

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 285

285. Which translation of the phrase “Repeat twice” is correct? a. Repete bis b. Repetatur c. Repetatur bis d. Repetere bis

Answer 285

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 286

286. Who is the author of the phrase “Primum noli nocere”? a. Galen b. Celsus c. Hippocrates d. Abu Ali Sina

Answer 286

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 287

287.Which ending is missing in the phrase “pro dos...”? a. -e b. -i c. -es d. –ibus

Answer 287

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 288

288.Which translation of the phrase “pro die” is correct? a. Single dose b. The highest dose c. Daily dose d. Minimum dose

Answer 288

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 289

289. Which ending in the term “Extractum Belladonn...” is missing? a. -um b. -i c. -a d. -ae

Answer 289

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Question 290

290. How is the expression “Prognosis dubia” translated? a. For prognosis b. Good prognosis c. Doubtful prognosis d. Recovery prognosis e. Life prognosis

Answer 290

CORRECT ANSWER: c

Question 291

291.What does the word element “xanth-” mean? a. White b. Yellow c. Blue d. Red

Answer 291

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 292

292. Which translation of the word element “thi(o-)” is correct? a. Tea b. Sulfur c. Ethyl d. Thyroid gland

Answer 292

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 293

293.Which translation of the phrase “auxiliary agent” is correct? a. Remedium externum b. Remedium adjuvans c. Remedium constituens d. Remedium laxans e. Remedium purgans

Answer 293

CORRECT ANSWER: b

Question 294

294. Which ending is missing in the term “Solutio Synoestroli oleos...”? a. -a b. -ae c. -i d. –o

Answer 294

CORRECT ANSWER: a

Question 295

295.Which ending is missing in the term “Extractum Belladonnae sicc...”? a. -ae b. -us c. -i d. –um

Answer 295

CORRECT ANSWER: d