multiple choice questions Flashcards

1
Q

Maximization of shareholder wealth is a concept in which:
Select one:
a. increased dividends are of primary importance.
b. increased cash flows are of primary importance.
c. increased earnings are of primary importance.
d. increased share price is of primary importance.

A

d. increased share price is of primary importance.

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2
Q
A conservative financing plan involves:
Select one: 
a. heavy reliance on equity. 
b. high degree of combined leverage.
c. heavy reliance on debt.
d. high degree of financial leverage.
A

A conservative financing plan involves:
Select one:
a. heavy reliance on equity.

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3
Q

A firm would be indifferent between financing plans when:
Select one:
a. return on assets equals return on equity.
b. the cost of borrowed funds equals the return on assets.
c. debt is equal to equity.
d. the cost of borrowed funds equals the return on equity.

A

b. the cost of borrowed funds equals the return on assets.

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4
Q

Money markets would include which of the following securities?
Select one:
a. Common stock and corporate bonds
b. Treasury bills and commercial paper
c. Certificates of deposit and preferred stock
d. Government bonds.

A

b. Treasury bills and commercial paper

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5
Q

Which of the following is true about the concept of leverage?
Select one:
a. At the break-even point, operating leverage is equal to zero.
b. Financial leverage measures the impact of fixed costs on earnings.
c. Combined leverage measures the impact of operating and financial leverage on EBIT.
d. Combined leverage measures the impact of operating and financial leverage on EPS.

A

d. Combined leverage measures the impact of operating and financial leverage on EPS.

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6
Q
When a corporation uses the financial markets to raise new funds, the sale of securities is made in the:
Select one:
a. primary market. 
b. third market.
c. on-line market.
d. secondary market.
A

a. primary market.

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7
Q

A limited partnership limits the profits partners may receive.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

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8
Q
If EBIT equals $140,000 and interest equals $21,000, with a tax rate of 31%, what is the degree of financial leverage?
Select one:
a. 6.67x
b. 1.18x 
c. 3.91x
d. 5.67x
A

b. 1.18x

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9
Q
A high DOL means:
Select one:
a. there is a large amount of equity.
b. there are high labour costs.
c. there is high debt.
d. there are high fixed costs.
A

d. there are high fixed costs.

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10
Q

Financial markets allocate capital based on:
Select one:
a. the pricing mechanism.
b. intervention by the Bank of Canada.
c. the efforts of financial intermediaries.
d. the number of treasury bills outstanding.

A

a. the pricing mechanism.

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11
Q
Well functioning capital market include the following attributes except?
Select one:
a. Liquidity
b. Static prices 
c. Transparency
d. Competitiveness
A

b. Static prices

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12
Q

The strong form of the efficient market hypothesis states that:
Select one:
a. market efficiency is strongest during an economic upswing.
b. all information both public and private is immediately reflected in stock prices.
c. prices reflect all public information.
d. past price data is positively correlated to future prices.

A

b. all information both public and private is immediately reflected in stock prices.

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13
Q
Financial instruments in the capital markets generally fall under what category in the balance sheet?
Select one:
a. Long-term liabilities and equities. 
b. Short-term liabilities and equities.
c. Near cash assets.
d. Marketable securities.
A

a. Long-term liabilities and equities.

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14
Q

Which of the following statements is not true with respect to organized securities exchanges?
Select one:
a. Securities exchanges provide corporations and shareholders increased liquidity for their securities.
b. Stocks traded on exchanges are referred to as unlisted securities.
c. Exchanges operate as “auction” markets.
d. Organized exchanges have a physical location.

A

b. Stocks traded on exchanges are referred to as unlisted securities.

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15
Q

The over-the-counter market:
Select one:
a. is limited to high net worth investors.
b. is made up of brokers buying and selling from their inventories.
c. is a close-knit organization of dealers linked together by computers and a telecommunications network.
d. trades mainly stocks of small companies.

A

c. is a close-knit organization of dealers linked together by computers and a telecommunications network.

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16
Q

Security markets provide liquidity:
Select one:
a. by allowing investors access to low-risk investments.
b. by allowing corporations to raise funds by selling new issues.
c. by maintaining confidence in corporate governance of listed firms.
d. by providing the widest range of information to investors.

A

b. by allowing corporations to raise funds by selling new issues.

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17
Q

Which of the following are advantages to private bond placement over public offerings?
Select one:
a. Higher interest costs.
b. Greater flexibility in negotiating terms.
c. Lower registration fees.
d. Lower interest costs.

A

b. Greater flexibility in negotiating terms.

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18
Q

Maxwell Corp. is coming to the market with a new offering of 300,000 shares, at $25 to the public. Maxwell will receive $22 per share. The firm has 1 million shares outstanding and earnings of $6 million. What is the amount of dilution in earnings per share?
Select one:
a. $1.77.
b. $2.00.
c. No dilution occurs since new money is received by Maxwell.
d. $1.38.

A

d. $1.38.

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19
Q

The advantages of being publically traded include all of the following except:
Select one:
a. corporate information on profit margins and product lines must be divulged.
b. the corporation may tap the security markets for a greater amount of funds by selling securities directly to the public through a public placement.
c. shareholders of a heretofore private corporation may also sell part of their holdings if the corporation decides to go public.
d. going public allows the firm to play the merger game, using marketable securities for the purchase of other firms.

A

a. corporate information on profit margins and product lines must be divulged.

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20
Q

Dilution of earnings occurs because:
Select one:
a. poor financial performance leading to reduced earnings.
b. a new issue of common stock creates more shares outstanding that reduces earnings per share temporarily.
c. the company suffers a decline in earnings after taxes.
d. the investment dealer collects an underwriting fee.

A

b. a new issue of common stock creates more shares outstanding that reduces earnings per share temporarily.

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21
Q

Market stabilization:
Select one:
a. is accomplished by repurchasing securities as the market price moves below the initial public offering price.
b. is the action by the managing investment dealer to keep the price of newly issued securities from rising quickly.
c. usually lasts 3-6 days but can last up to 60 days if a security is difficult to distribute.
d. can always keep prices of securities from falling.

A

a. is accomplished by repurchasing securities as the market price moves below the initial public offering price.

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22
Q
Raybac is about to go public. Its present shareholders own 500,000 shares. The new public issue will represent 800,000 shares. The shares will be priced at $25 to the public with a 4% spread. The out-of pocket costs will be $450,000. What is the net proceeds to the firm?
Select one:
a. $18,750,000 
b. $19,550,000
c. $19,200,000
d. $18,250,000
A

a. $18,750,000

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23
Q
Vansteelandt Inc. has net income of $4,000,000 and 1,000,000 shares outstanding. Its common stock is currently selling for $50 per share. It needs to raise $2,000,000 in funds for a new asset. Its investment dealer plans to sell an issue of common stock to the public for $48 with a spread of 4% on offer price. How much must Vansteelandt's after tax income increase to prevent dilution of EPS?
Select one:
a. $40,000
b. $173,612 
c. $80,000
d. $41,667
A

b. $173,612

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24
Q
Firm X needs to net $7,800,000 from the sale of common stock. Its investment dealer has informed the firm that the retail price will be $22 per share, and that the firm will receive $19 per share. Out-of-pocket costs are $100,000. How many shares must be sold?
Select one:
a. 354,545
b. 410,526
c. 415,790 
d. 359,091
A

c. 415,790

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25
Q
General Corp. issued new shares at $37.60 with an underwriting fee of $2.22 per share. Calculate the underwriting spread on this new share issue.
Select one:
a. 5.90% 
b. 7.00%
c. 4.56%
d. 7.96%
A

a. 5.90%

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26
Q

The spread is the underwriter’s compensation based on:
Select one:
a. a fee schedule set by the securities commission.
b. the price of the security to the public.
c. the price paid by the brokers.
d. the net proceeds to the firm or the government.

A

b. the price of the security to the public.

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27
Q

The spread is the underwriter’s compensation based on:
Select one:
a. a fee schedule set by the securities commission.
b. the price of the security to the public.
c. the price paid by the brokers.
d. the net proceeds to the firm or the government.

A

b. the price of the security to the public.

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28
Q
Capital budgeting is primarily concerned with:
Select one:
a. capital formation in the economy.
b. planning future financing needs.
c. minimizing the cost of capital.
d. evaluating investment alternatives.
A

d. evaluating investment alternatives.

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29
Q

A firm may adopt capital rationing because:
Select one:
a. it has a constraint on the amount of funds
b. it is hesitant to use external sources of financing.
c. it wishes to maximize value.
d. it is fearful of too much growth.

A

a. it has a constraint on the amount of funds

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30
Q

Which of the following statements about the “payback period” is true?
Select one:
a. The payback period considers cash flows after the payback has been reached.
b. The payback period uses discounted cash-flow techniques.
c. The payback period generally leads to the same decision as other investment selection methods.
d. The payback period does not consider the time value of money.

A

d. The payback period does not consider the time value of money.

31
Q

The profitability index will give the same investment decision as:
Select one:
a. the payback period.
b. the average accounting return.
c. the net present value.
d. It can be different from each of these techniques.

A

c. the net present value.

32
Q

The internal rate of return is:
Select one:
a. unrelated to the weighted average cost of capital.
b. the discount rate that produces a positive project net present value.
c. the discount rate that produces a project net present value of zero.
d. less than the weighted average cost of capital.

A

c. the discount rate that produces a project net present value of zero.

33
Q

The net present value method is a better method of evaluation than the internal rate of return method because:
Select one:
a. the NPV method includes accruals and other accounting discounts.
b. the NPV method discounts cash flows at the firm’s more conservative cost of capital.
c. the NPV method is a more liberal method of analysis.
d. the NPV method discounts cash flows at the internal rate of return.

A

b. the NPV method discounts cash flows at the firm’s more conservative cost of capital.

34
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of beta?
Select one:
a. A beta of 1.0 is of equal risk with the market.
b. Beta measures only the volatility of returns on an individual bond relative to a bond market index.
c. A beta of greater than 1.0 has less risk than the market.
d. Beta measures the correlation between the risk free rate and the market rate of risk.

A

a. A beta of 1.0 is of equal risk with the market.

35
Q

A correlation coefficient of zero indicates:
Select one:
a. the projects have the same standard deviation.
b. there is no correlation and no risk reduction between combined projects.
c. there is no correlation, but some risk reduction when the projects are combined.
d. the projects have the same expected value.

A

c. there is no correlation, but some risk reduction when the projects are combined.

36
Q
Projects that are totally uncorrelated provide:
Select one:
a. Need more information.
b. extreme risk reduction.
c. some risk reduction. 
d. no risk reduction.
A

c. some risk reduction.

37
Q

The concept of being risk averse means:
Select one:
a. investors would prefer investments with high standard deviations and greater opportunity for gain.
b. for a given situation investors would prefer relative uncertainty to certainty.
c. that the greater the risk the higher the expected return must be.
d. that the lower the volatility the higher the standard deviation must be.

A

c. that the greater the risk the higher the expected return must be.

38
Q
The firm's highest risk-adjusted discount should be applied to:
Select one:
a. a new product in a foreign market. 
b. the repair of old machinery.
c. a new product in a related field.
d. the purchase of new equipment.
A

a. a new product in a foreign market.

39
Q

In order to reduce risk in a firm, the firm would seek to enter a business that:
Select one:
a. has high positive correlation with its present business.
b. has zero correlation with its present business.
c. has high negative correlation with its present business.
d. has low correlation with its present business.

A

c. has high negative correlation with its present business.

40
Q
A 20-year bond pays 12% on a face value of $1,000. If similar bonds are currently yielding 9%, what is the market value of the bond?
Select one:
a. Over $1,200
b. Not enough information given to tell
c. Over $1,000
d. Under $1,000
A

a. Over $1,200

41
Q
A 10-year bond pays 8% annual interest (paid semi-annually). If similar bonds are currently yielding 6% annually, what is the market value of the bond?
Select one:
a. $1,148.77 
b. $1,080.00
c. $1,000.00
d. $1,147.20
A

a. $1,148.77

42
Q
A 14-year stripped (zero-coupon) bond was issued with a $1,000 par value and a coupon of 9%. If similar bonds are currently yielding 12%, what is the approximate market value of the bond?
Select one:
a. $299
b. $1,000
c. $205 
d. $801
A

c. $205

43
Q
A 10-year bond pays 12% interest on a $1,000 face value annually. If it currently sells for $1,100, what is its approximate yield to maturity?
Select one:
a. 11.00%
b. 10.91%
c. 12.00%
d. 10.35%
A

d. 10.35%

44
Q
A 4-year bond pays 4% annual interest (paid semi-annually). It currently sells for $872.25. What is the bond's yield to maturity?
Select one:
a. 4.59%
b. 6.06% 
c. 7.78%
d. 4.00%
A

c. 7.78%

45
Q

A bond which has a yield to maturity less than its coupon interest rate will sell for a price:
Select one:
a. above par.
b. that is equal to the face value of the bond plus the value of all interest payments.
c. below par.
d. at par.

A

a. above par.

46
Q

The dividend valuation model stresses the:
Select one:
a. importance of earnings per share.
b. importance of dividends and legal rules for maximum payment.
c. relationship of dividends to earnings per share.
d. relationship of dividends to market prices.

A

d. relationship of dividends to market prices.

47
Q
An issue of common stock is selling for $57.20. The year-end dividend is expected to be $2.32 assuming a constant growth rate of 6%. What is the required rate of return?
Select one:
a. 10.3%
b. 4.1%
c. 10.1% 
d. 6.0%
A

c. 10.1%

48
Q
A preferred share has a price of $40 and pays an annual dividend of $1.20.  What is the preferred share's yield?
Select one:
a. 0.03%
b. 30%
c. 3% 
d. 0.3%
A

c. 3%

49
Q
An issue of common stock has just paid a dividend of $3.75. Its growth rate is 8%. What is its price if the market's rate of return is 16%?
Select one:
a. $50.63 
b. $46.88
c. $54.38
d. $25.01
A

a. $50.63

50
Q
An issue of common stock is expected to pay a dividend of $4.80 at the end of the year. Its growth rate is equal to 8%. If the required rate of return is 13%, what is its current price?
Select one:
a. $48.00
b. $36.92
c. $103.68 
d. $96.00
A

d. $96.00

51
Q
An issue of preferred stock is paying an annual dividend of $5. The growth rate for the firm's common stock is 12%. What is the preferred stock price if the required rate of return is 10%?
Select one:
a. $41.67
b. $22.73
c. $50.00 
d. $5.00
A

c. $50.00

52
Q

Which is a characteristic of the cost of preferred stock?
Select one:
a. Preferred stock dividends are fixed, they are tax deductible.
b. The price earnings ratio stays the same.
c. Preferred stock is valued as a perpetuity.
d. Preferred stock has no maturity, the cost analysis is similar to that of debt.

A

c. Preferred stock is valued as a perpetuity.

53
Q

The longer the supernormal growth period for a firm’s lasts,:
Select one:
a. the lower the required rate of return used in finding the price of its common stock.
b. the lower the value of its common stock.
c. the higher the value of its preferred stock.
d. the higher the value of its common stock.

A

d. the higher the value of its common stock.

54
Q

Valuation of financial assets requires knowledge of:
Select one:
a. future cash flows.
b. appropriate discount rate.
c. past asset performance.
d. future cash flows and appropriate discount rate.

A

d. future cash flows and appropriate discount rate.

55
Q

Carey Co. needs $200,000 to complete a project. If a compensating balance of 15% is required, how much must be borrowed?

a. $200,000
b. $235,000
c. $235,294
d. $230,000

A

c. $235,294

56
Q
In financing accounts receivable, pledging uses receivables \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ while factoring uses receivables \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. to sell; to purchase
b. as collateral; to sell 
c. as collateral; to purchase
d. to sell; as collateral
A

b. as collateral; to sell

57
Q
In determining the cost of bank financing, which is the important factor?
Select one:
a. Annual rate.
b. Prime rate. 
c. Discount rate.
d. Nominal rate.
A

a. Annual rate.

58
Q

The average price of a 91-day Treasury Bill is 98.671 with a maturity value of 100.

The nominal yield is:

5.40%
5.51%
6.00%
6.51%
The effective annual yield is:
5.51%
5.40%
6.00%
6.51%

A
  1. 40%

5. 51%

59
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of commercial paper?
Select one:
a. Issued by small firms.
b. Rates are usually above prime rates on business loans.
c. One-to-two year maturity.
d. Issued by large firms.

A

d. Issued by large firms.

60
Q
Mr. Phelps borrows $3,000 for 30 days and pays $80 interest. What is his annual rate of interest?
Select one:
a. 24.54%
b. 32.44% 
c. 2.67%
d. 16.24%
A

b. 32.44%

61
Q
If Analog computers can borrow at 9.5% for 3 years, what is the annual rate of interest on an $800,000 loan where a 15% compensating balance is required?
Select one:
a. 17.27%.
b. 11.18%. 
c. 3.16%.
d. 9.50%.
A

b. 11.18%.

62
Q
Marty McFly is going to borrow $8,000 for 120 days and pay $215 in interest.  What is the annual rate of interest if the loan is discounted?
Select one:
a. 8.00%
b. 8.17%
c. 8.40% 
d. 8.50%
A

c. 8.40%

63
Q
The cost of forgoing the discount on trade credit of 1/10, net 30 is equal to:
Select one:
a. 22.35%.
b. 18.43%. 
c. 12.00%
d. 20.52%.
A

b. 18.43%

64
Q

Large firms tend to be:
Select one:
a. firms with low levels of inventory turnover and accounts receivable turnover.
b. firms with high levels of profitability.
c. net users of trade credit.
d. net suppliers of trade credit.

A

d. net suppliers of trade credit.

65
Q
If a firm has total accounts receivable of $6,000,000 and its average daily credit sales are $45,000 what is its collection period?
Select one:
a. 133 days 
b. 156 days
c. 45 days
d. 120 days
A

a. 133 days

66
Q
The three primary policy variables to consider when extending credit include all of the following except:
Select one:
a. the terms of trade.
b. the level of interest rates. 
c. collection policy.
d. credit standards.
A

b. the level of interest rates.

67
Q
Average daily remittances are $5 million, and "extended disbursement float" adds 5 days to the disbursement schedule, how much should the firm be willing to pay for a cash management system if the firm earns 12% on excess funds.
Select one:
a. $3,000,000 
b. $0
c. $1,000,000
d. $600,000
A

a. $3,000,000

68
Q

“Float” takes place because:
Select one:
a. a firm is early in paying its bills.
b. a lag exists between writing a cheque and it being debited to the bank account.
c. the level of cash on the firm’s books is equal to the level of cash in the bank.
d. a customer writes “hot” cheques.

A

b. a lag exists between writing a cheque and it being debited to the bank account.

69
Q

The costs of carrying inventory do not include:
Select one:
a. the cost of warehouse space.
b. the interest on funds tied up in inventory.
c. ordering costs.
d. insurance and handling costs.

A

c. ordering costs.

70
Q
Driveline Sprockets expects total sales of $20,000. The price per unit is $5. The firm estimates an ordering cost of $9.00 per order, with an inventory carrying cost of $1.20 per unit. What is the optimum order size?
Select one:
a. 245 units 
b. 173 units
c. 1,852 units
d. 2,000 units
A

a. 245 units

71
Q

A bankers’ acceptance:
Select one:
a. is a long term investment accepted by the bank.
b. may be accepted by the corporation for future payment.
c. is a draft drawn on a corporation.
d. is traded in a relatively liquid market until maturity.

A

d. is traded in a relatively liquid market until maturity.

72
Q

Commercial paper is selling for 97.682 of par and matures in 91 days. What is the yield as quoted in the market?

9.52%
8.76%
2.185%
9.06%
….
The effective annual rate is

  1. 87%
  2. 762%
  3. 185%
  4. 76%
A
  1. 52%

9. 87%

73
Q
Mountain Home Systems, Inc. is debating whether to expand its sales in a new market. Sales are currently $5,000,000 annually, but MHS Inc. expects sales to increase to $7,000,000 annually if it enters this market.   MHS Inc. also knows that 15% of its sales are ultimately be uncollectible. In addition, collection costs will be 2% of sales and the firm's production costs are 72% of sales. Selling expenses are 8% of sales and Mountain Home has an opportunity cost of funds (before tax) of 20%. Mountain Home can turn its receivables 5 times per year. Should Mountain Home Systems Co. enter the new market? 
The incremental contribution margin is:
560,000
1,400,000
1,440,000
1,960,000
The incremental bad debt expense is:
(300,000)
300,000
1,050,000
(1,050,000)
The incremental selling expenses are:
(160,000)
(400,000)
560,000
(560,000
The change in accounts receivable is:

400,000
(400,000)
1,400,000
(1,400,000)

A

560,0000

(300,000)

(160,000)

400,000