Multiple-choice questions

Question 1

What is NOT a reason for testing?
a. To enable developers to code as quickly as possible
b. To reduce the risk of failures in operation
c. To contribute to the quality of the components or systems
d. To meet any applicable contractual or legal requirements

Answer 1

a. To enable developers to code as quickly as possible

Question 2

Consider the following definitions and match the term with the definition.
1. A reason or purpose for designing and executing a test
2. The component or system to be tested
3. Confirmation by examination and through provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use or application have been fulfilled

a. 1) test object 2) test objective 3) validation
b. 1) test objective 2) test object 3) validation
c. 1) validation 2) test basis 3) verification
d. 1) test objective 2) test object 3) verification

Answer 2

b. 1) test objective 2) test object 3) validation

Question 3

Which statement about quality assurance (QA) is true?
a. QA and testing are the same
b. QA includes both testing and root cause analysis
c. Testing is quality control, not QA
d. QA does not apply to testing

Answer 3

c. Testing is quality control, not QA

Question 4

It is important to ensure that test design starts during the requirements definition. Which of the following test objectives supports this?
a. Preventing defects in the system
b. Finding defects through dynamic testing
c. Gaining confidence in the system
d. Finishing the project on time

Answer 4

a. Preventing defects in the system

Question 5

A test team consistently finds a large number of defects during development, including system testing. Although the test manager understands that this is good defect finding within their budget for her test team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying that the test team misses some bugs that the users find after release. Given that the users are generally happy with the system and that the failures that have occurred have generally been low-impact, which of the following testing principles is most likely to help the test manager explain to these managers and executives why some defects are likely to be missed?
a. Exhaustive testing is impossible
b. Defect clustering
c. Pesticide paradox
d. Absence-of-errors fallacy

Answer 5

a. Exhaustive testing is impossible

Question 6

What are the benefits of traceability between the test basis and test work products?
a. Traceability means that test basis documents and test work products do not need to be reviewed
b. Traceability ensures that test work products are limited in number to save time in producing them
c. Traceability enables test progress and defects to be reported with reference to requirements, which is more understandable to stakeholders
d. Traceability enables developers to produce code that is easier to test

Answer 6

c. Traceability enables test progress and defects to be reported with reference to requirements, which is more understandable to stakeholders

Question 7

Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?
a. Understanding what managers value about testing
b. Explaining test results in a neutral fashion
c. Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs
d. Promoting better quality software whenever possible

Answer 7

b. Explaining test results in a neutral fashion

Question 8

Given the following test work products, identify the major activity in a test process that produces it.
1. Test execution schedule
2. Test cases
3. Test progress reports
4. Defect reports

a. 1) Test planning 2) Test design 3) Test execution 4) Test implementation
b. 1) Test execution 2) Test analysis 3) Test completion 4) Test implementation
c. 1) Test control 2) Test analysis 3) Test monitoring 4) Test implementation
d. 1) Test implementation 2) Test design 3) Test monitoring 4) Test execution

Answer 8

d. 1) Test implementation 2) Test design 3) Test monitoring 4) Test execution

Question 9

Which of the following statements is true?
a. Overlapping test levels and test activities are more common in sequential life cycle models than in iterative incremental models
b. The V-model is an iterative incremental life cycle model because each development activity has a corresponding test activity
c. When completed, iterative incremental life cycle models are more likely to deliver the full set of features originally envisioned by stakeholders than sequential models
d. In iterative and incremental life cycle models, delivery of usable software to end-users is much more frequent than in sequential models

Answer 9

d. In iterative and incremental life cycle models, delivery of usable software to end-users is much more frequent than in sequential models

Question 10

What level of testing is typically performed by system administration staff?
a. Regulatory acceptance testing
b. System testing
c. System integration testing
d. Operational acceptance testing

Answer 10

d. Operational acceptance testing

Question 11

Which of the following is a test type?
a. Component testing
b. Functional testing
c. System testing
d. Acceptance testing

Answer 11

b. Functional testing

Question 12

Consider the three triggers for maintenance, and match the event with the correct trigger:
1. Data conversion from one system to another
2. Upgrade of COTS software
3. Test of data archiving
4. System now runs on a different platform and operating system
5. Testing restore or retrieve procedures
6. Patches for security vulnerabilities

a. Modification: 2 and 3, Migration: 1 and 5, Retirement: 4 and 6
b. Modification: 2 and 6, Migration: 1 and 4, Retirement: 3 and 5
c. Modification: 2 and 4, Migration: 1 and 3, Retirement: 5 and 6
d. Modification: 1 and 5, Migration: 2 and 3, Retirement: 4 and 6

Answer 12

b. Modification: 2 and 6, Migration: 1 and 4, Retirement: 3 and 5

Question 13

Which of these is a functional test?
a. Measuring response time on an online booking system
b. Checking the effect of high volumes of traffic in a call centre system
c. Checking the online booking screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers
d. Checking how easy the system is to use, particularly for users with disabilities such as impaired vision

Answer 13

c. Checking the online booking screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers

Question 14

Which of the following is true, regarding the process of testing emergency fixes?
a. There is no time to test the change before it goes live, so only the best developers should do this work and should not involve testers as they slow down the process
b. Just run the retest of the defect actually fixed
c. Always run a full regression test of the whole system in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected
d. Retest the changed area and then use risk assessment to decide on a reasonable subset of the whole regression test to run in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected

Answer 14

d. Retest the changed area and then use risk assessment to decide on a reasonable subset of the whole regression test to run in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected

Question 15

A regression test:
a. Is only run once
b. Will always be automated
c. Will check unchanged areas of the software to see if they have been affected
d. Will check changed areas of the software to see if they have been affected

Answer 15

c. Will check unchanged areas of the software to see if they have been affected

Question 16

Non-functional testing includes:
a. Testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b. Testing the quality attributes of the system including reliability and usability
c. Gaining user approval for the system
d. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function

Answer 16

b. Testing the quality attributes of the system including reliability and usability

Question 17

Beta testing is:
a. Performed by customers at their own site
b. Performed by customers at the software developer’s site
c. Performed by an independent test team
d. Useful to test software developed for a specific customer or user

Answer 17

a. Performed by customers at their own site

Question 18

Which of the following artefacts can NOT be examined using review techniques?
a. Software code
b. User story
c. Test designs
d. User’s intentions

Answer 18

d. User’s intentions

Question 19

Which of the following are the main activities of the work product review process?
1. Planning
2. Initiate review
3. Select reviewers
4. Individual review
5. Review meeting
6. Evaluating review findings against exit criteria
7. Issue communication and analysis
8. Fixing and reporting

a. 1, 2, 4, 7, 8
b. 2, 3, 4, 5, 8
c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 7
d. 1, 4, 5, 6, 7

Answer 19

a. 1, 2, 4, 7, 8

Question 20

Which statement about static and dynamic testing is True?
a. Static testing and dynamic testing have different objectives
b. Static testing and dynamic testing find the same types of defect
c. Static testing identifies defects through failures; dynamic testing finds defects directly
d. Static testing can find some types of defect with less effort than dynamic testing

Answer 20

d. Static testing can find some types of defect with less effort than dynamic testing

Question 21

What statement about reviews is True?
a. Inspections are led by a trained moderator, but this is not necessary for technical reviews
b. Technical reviews are led by a trained leader, inspections are not
c. In a walkthrough, the author does not attend
d. Participants for a walkthrough always need to be thoroughly trained

Answer 21

a. Inspections are led by a trained moderator, but this is not necessary for technical reviews

Question 22

Which statement below is True?
a. Management ensures effective running of review meetings; the review leader decides who will be involved
b. Management is responsible for review planning; the facilitator monitors ongoing cost effectiveness
c. Management organizes when and where reviews will take place; the review leader assigns staff, budget, and time
d. Management decides on the execution of reviews; the facilitator is often the person on whom the success of the review depends

Answer 22

d. Management decides on the execution of reviews; the facilitator is often the person on whom the success of the review depends

Question 23

Match the following characteristics with the type of review.
1. Led by the author
2. Undocumented
3. Reviewers are technical peers of the author
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry and exit criteria
INSP: Inspection
TR: Technical review
IR: informal review
W: Walkthrough

a. INSP: 4, TR: 3, IR: 2 and 5, W: 1
b. INSP: 4 and 5, TR: 3, IR: 2, W: 1
c. INSP: 1 and 5, TR: 3, IR: 2, W: 4
d. INSP: 5, TR: 4, IR: 3, W: 1 and 2

Answer 23

b. INSP: 4 and 5, TR: 3, IR: 2, W: 1

Question 24

Which of the following statements about success factors in reviews are True?
1. Reviewers should try to review as much of the work product as they can
2. The author acknowledges and appreciates defects found in their work
3. Each review has clear objectives, which are communicated to the reviewers
4. Testers are not normally involved in review, as their work focuses on test design
5. Checklists should be standardized and used for all types of work product

a. 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 5

Answer 24

a. 2 and 3

Question 25

Which review technique is this: reviewing a requirements specification or user story from the point of view of an end-user of the system, using a checklist?
a. Checklist-based
b. Role-based
c. Perspective-based
d. Scenario-based

Answer 25

c. Perspective-based

Question 26

Consider the following specification for a review:
When you sign up, you must give your first and last name, postal address, phone number, email address and password. When you log in, you must give your last name, phone number and password. You are logged in until you select Log Out followed by answering ‘Yes’ to ‘Are you sure?’ When you are logged in, you can update your details, but you need to confirm the change by entering a secure code sent to your phone. You then need to log in again.
The following are potential defects in the specification:
1. Incorrect timeout for the secure code sent to the phone
2. Buffer overflow for lengthy postal address
3. Cannot change your phone number, as the code is sent to the old number
4. Details are stored as an additional entry in the database for every change

a. 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1 and 4

Answer 26

c. 1, 2 and 4