Multiple Choice Qs

Question 1

Morphine Sulphate is classified as a

a) Schedule 1 agent
b) Schedule 2 agent
c) Schedule 4 agent
d) Schedule 8 agent

Answer 1

d) Schedule 8 agent

Question 2

The schedule a drug is classified into depends upon:

a) its toxicity
b) its strength/dose
c) its potential for abuse
d) All of the above

Answer 2

d) All of the above

Question 3

When a drug is ready to be administered to numerous patients under experienced clinical investigators, this phase of clinical trial is known as:

a) Phase I
b) Phase II
c) Phase III
d) Phase IV

Answer 3

c) Phase III

Question 4

A drug may appear in more than one schedule

a) True
b) False

Answer 4

a) True

Question 5

When reviewing a drug to be given, the nurse or midwife notes that the drug is excreted in the urine. What points should be included in the nurse’s assessment of the person

a) The persons liver function tests
b) The persons bladder tone
c) The persons renal function tests
d) The persons fluid intake
e) Other drugs being taken that could affect the kidney
f) The persons intake and output for the day

Answer 5

d) The persons fluid intake
e) Other drugs being taken that could affect the kidney
f) The persons intake and output for the day

Question 6

When considering the pharmacokinetics of a drug, what points would the healthcare professional need to consider?

a) How the drug will be absorbed
b) The way the drugs affects the body
c) Receptor-site activation and suppression
d) How the drug will be excreted
e) How the drug will be metabolised
f) The half-life of the drug

Answer 6

(all except B & C)

a) How the drug will be absorbed
d) How the drug will be excreted
e) How the drug will be metabolised
f) The half-life of the drug

Question 7

The half-life of a drug:
a) Is determined by a balance of all pharmacokinetic
processes
b) Is a constant factor for all drugs taken by a person
c) Is influenced by the fat distribution of the person
d) Can be calculated with the use of a body surface nomogram

Answer 7

a) Is determined by a balance of all pharmacokinetic processes

Question 8

A patient is being discharged from the hospital with a nebuliser for self-administration of inhalation medication. Which statement made by the client indicates to the nurse that client education has been successful?
a) ‘inhaled medications should only be taken in the
morning’
b) Doses for inhaled medication are larger than those
taken orally’
c) ‘medicines taken by inhalation produce a very rapid
response’
d) Inhaled drugs are often rendered inactive by hepatic
metabolic reactions’

Answer 8

c) ‘medicines taken by inhalation produce a very rapid

response’

Question 9

If the half-life of intravenous morphine sulfate is 20-30 minutes, this means that:
a) In 60 minutes, all of the drug will be eliminated
b) In 20-30 minutes, 50 per cent of the drug
concentration will be eliminated
c) The peak of the agent is 40 minutes
d) All doses should be reduced by 50 per cent to
prevent adverse effect

Answer 9

b) In 20-30 minutes, 50 per cent of the drug

concentration will be eliminated

Question 10

A client has developed severe diarrhoea following four days of self-administered antacid preparation. The nurse suspects that the diarrhoea may be caused by which type of antacid?

a) Aluminium Compounds
b) Magnesium Compounds (takes on laxative effect)
c) Calcium Compounds
d) Sodium Compounds

Answer 10

b) Magnesium Compounds (takes on laxative effect)

Question 11

A nurse taking care of a person who is receiving a proton pump inhibitor should teach the person to:
a) Take the drug after every meal
b) Chew or crush the tablets to increase their
absorption
c) Swallow tablets or capsules whole
d) Stop taking the drug after 3 weeks of therapy

Answer 11

c) Swallow tablets or capsules whole

Question 12

H2 receptors are found throughout the body including:

a) In the nasal passages, upper airways, and stomach
b) In the CNS and upper airways
c) In the respiratory tract and the heart
d) In the heart, CNS and stomach.

Answer 12

d) In the heart, CNS and stomach.

Question 13

Most antiemetics work with the CNS to decrease the activity of:

a) The medulla
b) The CTZ
c) The respiratory centre
d) The sympathetic nervous system

Answer 13

b) The CTZ

Question 14

The 5-HT3 receptor blockers, including ondansetron and granisetron are particularly effective in decreasing the nausea and vomiting associated with

a) Vestibular problems
b) Cancer chemotherapy
c) Pregnancy
d) Severe pain

Answer 14

b) Cancer chemotherapy

Question 15

Laxatives are drugs that are used to:
a) Increase the quantity of wastes excreted
b) Speed the passage of the intestinal contents
through the GI tract (could be this as well)
c) Increase digestion of intestinal contents
d) Increase the water content of the intestinal contents

Answer 15

d) Increase the water content of the intestinal contents

could be B as well

Question 16

Cathartic dependence can occur when:
a) People do not use laxatives routinely and
experience severe bouts of constipation
b) Chronic laxative use leads to a reliance on the
intense stimulation of laxatives
c) People maintain a nutritious high-fibre diet
d) People start an exercise program to promote bowel
elimination

Answer 16

b) Chronic laxative use leads to a reliance on the intense

stimulation of laxatives

Question 17

The nurse should inform the client who is prescribed a nebuliser treatment with salbutamol that a common adverse effect is:

a) An increased heart rate with palpitation
b) A predisposition to infection
c) Sedation
d) Temporary dyspnoea

Answer 17

a) An increased heart rate with palpitation (affects the

beta one receptors in heart)

Question 18

The nurse understands that ipratropium bromide is an effective bronchodilator because it:

a) Enhances the action of acetylcholine
b) Stimulates the beta-adrenergic cells in the bronchi
c) Antagonises the action of acetylcholine
d) Blocks the histamine receptors in the bronchi

Answer 18

c) Antagonises the action of acetylcholine

Question 19

Examples of preventer respiratory medications are:

a) Sympathomimetics and IgE monoclonal
b) Methylxanthines and corticosteroids
c) Mast cell stabilisers and corticosteroids
d) Antimuscarinics and leukotriene receptor antagonists

Answer 19

c) Mast cell stabilisers and corticosteroids

Question 20

Examples of corticosteroids used in the treatment of asthma are:

a) Fluticasone, budesonide and aminophylline
b) Beclamethasone, salbutamol and ipratropium
c) Ephedrine, eformoterol and theophylline
d) Budesonide, fluticasone and beclamethasone

Answer 20

d) Budesonide, fluticasone and beclamethasone

Question 21

Symbicort is an example of a combination medication preparation containing:

a) Eformoterol and budesonide
b) Ipratropium bromide and salbutamol
c) Fluticasone and salmeterol
d) Eformoterol and fluticasone

Answer 21

b) Ipratropium bromide and salbutamol

Question 22

Glucocorticoids are hormones which
a) Are released in response to high glucose levels
b) Help to regulate electrolyte levels
c) Help to regulate water balance in the body
d) Promote the preservation of energy through
increased glucose levels, protein breakdown, and fat
formation.

Answer 22

d) Promote the preservation of energy through
increased glucose levels, protein breakdown, and fat
formation.

Question 23

People who have been receiving corticosteroid therapy for a prolonged period and suddenly stop the drug will experience an adrenal crisis because their adrenal glands will not be producing any adrenal hormones. Your assessment of a person for the possibility of adrenal crisis may include

a) Physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shift
b) Acne development and hypertension
c) Water retention and increased speed of healing
d) Hyperglycaemia and water retention

Answer 23

a) Physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shift

Question 24

People who are taking corticosteroids would be expected to report which of the following?

a) Weight gain
b) Round or ‘moon face’ appearance
c) Feeling of wellbeing
d) Weight loss
e) Excessive hair growth
f) Fragile skin

Answer 24

a) Weight gain
b) Round or ‘moon face’ appearance
c) Feeling of well being
f) Fragile skin