Multiple Choice Practice Flashcards

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1
Q

1) Which of the following is correct with respect to sole proprietorships?
A) The sole proprietorship is a separate legal entity.
B) A sole proprietorship exists where two or more people carry on business together with a view toward profits.
C) The sole proprietor has limited liability.
D) The sole proprietor has unlimited liability.
E) A sole proprietorship must be incorporated.

A

D) The sole proprietor has unlimited liability.

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1
Q

3) Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to sole proprietorships?
A) The sole proprietor has the same extent of liability as a shareholder.
B) The sole proprietor must consult with the other owners before making any major decisions regarding the business.
C) The sole proprietor is responsible for the torts committed by an employee that take place within the scope of employment.
D) The sole proprietor need not adhere to any licensing and government regulations.
E) The sole proprietor has limited liability.

A

C) The sole proprietor is responsible for the torts committed by an employee that take place within the scope of employment.

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2
Q

Which one of the following situations will result in a partnership existing? Assume that no corporation has been created.
A) Joe and Mary own a house together and share the income from it.
B) A lawyer and a real estate agent split a commission.
C) Employees are given bonuses because of increased profits.
D) Joe pays back a debt to Harry by giving Harry a percentage of the profits from his business. E) Joe and Mary own a shoe store together and share the profits.

A

E) Joe and Mary own a shoe store together and share the profits.

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3
Q

Which of the following is the proper definition of a partnership as set out in the Partnership Act?
A) Partnership exists where two or more persons carry on business in common with a view to profit.
B) A partnership exists only where two or more people enter into a written agreement to be partners.
C) A partnership is created where a corporation with shareholders is registered with the federal government.
D) A partnership is only created where the partners actually share the profits from a business. E) A partnership exists where any business is carried on with a view toward profits.

A

A) Partnership exists where two or more persons carry on business in common with a view to profit.

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4
Q

Adams was approached by a Mr. McCarthy of XYZ Co., who requested that Adams pay
$10 000 to extinguish a debt owed by the partnership of Adams and Jefferson. Adams denied the partnership and the liability. In asserting his claim, McCarthy cited the following facts, all of which he could prove. Which of these facts is the strongest evidence of the existence of a partnership?
A) Adams and Jefferson co-owned property.
B) Adams and Jefferson shared gross returns from a business.
C) Adams and Jefferson worked together for a non-profit charity.
D) Adams received a commission from Jefferson based on the sale price of the goods sold by Adams for Jefferson.
E) Adams and Jefferson shared the profits from a business.

A

E) Adams and Jefferson shared the profits from a business.

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5
Q

In which of the following is there not a fiduciary duty owed? A) officer of a company to the company
B) partners to each other
C) manager to employer
D) agent to her principal
E) director to shareholders

A

E) director to shareholders

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6
Q

Which one of the following is correct with respect to the rights of partners unless they have agreed otherwise?
A) No major decision can be taken without a majority vote agreement of all partners.
B) Only the partners that have contributed the largest capital amount have the right to share in management.
C) All profits are shared equally among the partners.
D) A partner can sell her share of the partnership to another person without the agreement of the other partners.
E) Personal expenses incurred by the partners in the course of business are reimbursed.

A

C) All profits are shared equally among the partners.

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7
Q

Chuck, Howard, and Ben decide to start a business venture, developing and distributing educational software. For tax reasons, they do not incorporate. Each contributes $10 000, and Howard also contributes a truck and his programming expertise. They agree that all three will be actively involved in the day-to-day management of the business. To determine their rights and obligations, they enter into a one-page agreement that provides only that each of Chuck, Howard, and Ben will receive 33.3% of the profits but also states specifically they are not to be viewed as partners. Based on these facts, which of the following statements is true?
A) Chuck, Howard, and Ben will not be considered partners because of their express intention in their agreement.
B) Chuck, Howard, and Ben will be considered partners in the eyes of the law, because they share profits and are involved in the management of the business.
C) Chuck, Howard, and Ben will be considered partners, but someone claiming against the partnership will only be able to collect 33.3% from any one partner because of the agreement. D) Chuck, Howard, and Ben are not partners because they do not share profits in proportion to their capital contributions.
E) Chuck, Howard, and Ben are not partners because to be partners they must be professionals, such as dentists, lawyers, or doctors.

A

B) Chuck, Howard, and Ben will be considered partners in the eyes of the law, because they share profits and are involved in the management of the business.

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8
Q

12) Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the creation of a partnership?
A) A partnership can only be created with the consent of the parties.
B) The duties and obligations of partners to each other can be modified by agreement. C) The business activity must be continuing in order for it to indicate the existence of a partnership.
D) The common method of creating a partnership is by agreement.
E) An important indication as to whether a partnership exists is the sharing of the profits of the business activity.

A

A) A partnership can only be created with the consent of the parties.

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9
Q

In which one of the following situations will a court find that a partnership exists?
A) Joe sells his business to Harry for $10 000 for the assets and a further $20 000 for goodwill, the goodwill portion to be paid at a rate of 20% of the profits from the business until paid.
B) Joe is a partner in a shoe store and sells his share of the business to Harry without the consent of his partner.
C) Joe and Mary promote several dances at school and split the profits.
D) Joe, a partner in a law firm, dies and Joe’s widow takes over Joe’s share of the profits.
E) Joe and Mary, while attending university, purchase a house and share the profits from the rent after deducting expenses.

A

C) Joe and Mary promote several dances at school and split the profits.

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10
Q

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to unlimited liability?
A) Only the partner’s share of the partnership assets can be used to satisfy the debt incurred by another partner.
B) Each partner can be held responsible for the debts of the partnership no matter how great they are.
C) Unlimited liability means the partner can lose what he has invested but no more.
D) The partner cannot only lose what she has invested but can also be required to pay an additional amount equal to what she has invested.
E) If there are two partners, each partner can be held responsible for an amount equal to but no more than one half of the debts of the partnership.

A

B) Each partner can be held responsible for the debts of the partnership no matter how great they are.

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11
Q

Fred and Carole were trying to create a list of the pros and cons of sole proprietorship, partnership, and corporation to determine the best structure for carrying on business. Which of the following is true with regard to being a general partner?
A) Each partner is an agent for every other partner and for the firm itself, so a partner may be liable for the contracts made by an incompetent partner.
B) Every general partner faces limited liability for the debts of the partnership.
C) A partner is liable for only the amount that he or she invested in the partnership firm.
D) Retiring from a partnership by giving notice to the partners frees a partner from the liabilities he or she faced while being a partner of the firm.
E) A partner is liable to pay from his or her personal assets only when the partner has committed a criminal act.

A

A) Each partner is an agent for every other partner and for the firm itself, so a partner may be liable for the contracts made by an incompetent partner.

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12
Q

Which of the following is correct with respect to partnership? A) A partnership can be made up of only limited partners.
B) Partnership is a separate legal entity.
C) Partners are not agents for each other.
D) General partners have unlimited liability.
E) General partners have limited liability.

A

D) General partners have unlimited liability. E) General partners have limited liability.

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13
Q

Dave and his sister Chris make unusual kites. They both create the designs and Dave makes the patterns. Friends have always wanted to buy their kites. After Chris completes a post- secondary marketing program, she begins to talk to Dave about going into business selling kites. Ed, a friend of Chris, wants to be involved. He says he could buy the supplies and do other odd chores. They decide to try to make a go of it and to share the profits as follows: Dave, 35%; Chris, 35%; and Ed, 30%. Things go well for seven months. They even hire George to deliver kites to the increased number of stores buying them. Unfortunately for the business, Chris and Ed become romantically involved. This is followed by a heated dispute. Ed disappears with $1300 collected from customers and $600 worth of supplies, which he had bought on behalf of the business from its regular supplier. At about the same time, George negligently breaks a customer’s $200 lamp while delivering a kite. On these facts, which of the following is true?
A) If the partnership funds are not sufficient to pay the partnership debts, the creditors can look to the individual partners for payment.
B) Although George broke the lamp while delivering a kite, the partners are not liable because it was George’s own fault.
C) When Ed buys supplies for the business on credit, he is acting as an agent for the business and he alone is liable for those debts.
D) Only Chris would be responsible for Ed’s misapplication of the customers’ money.
E) Since Dave, Chris, and Ed did not sign a partnership agreement, they are not considered a general partnership.

A

A) If the partnership funds are not sufficient to pay the partnership debts, the creditors can look to the individual partners for payment.

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14
Q

Recent changes in partnership law allow partnerships to be registered as a “limited liability partnership” or LLP. When carrying on business as a limited liability partnership, non-negligent partners stand to lose:
A) their investment in the firm.
B) all of their personal assets if a successful claim is brought against the partnership on the basis of another partner’s mistake.
C) absolutely nothing.
D) all of their personal assets except those protected from seizure under bankruptcy legislation.
E) assets jointly held with a spouse.

A

A) their investment in the firm.

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15
Q

Which of the following is an example of a breach of a fiduciary duty?
A) A partner in a firm learned of a business forced to sell some heavy equipment. Although the partnership could have used the equipment, he bought and sold it at a substantial profit before the partnership was given a chance to buy it.
B) A shareholder of ABC Ltd., a trucking corporation whose shares are listed on the Vancouver Stock Exchange, is working as an employee for ABC Ltd.’s competitor, Jonstone Trucking.
C) A shareholder of a corporation voted in favour of an acquisition by the corporation at the annual general meeting because he secretly had an interest in the corporation being purchased. D) The directors of the corporation, contrary to a request made by the shareholders, refused to declare dividends.
E) A promoter of a corporation sold property to the corporation for four times what he had paid for it after he made full disclosure of his interest to an independent board of directors, which voted for the purchase.

A

A) A partner in a firm learned of a business forced to sell some heavy equipment. Although the partnership could have used the equipment, he bought and sold it at a substantial profit before the partnership was given a chance to buy it.

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16
Q

Which of the following is a violation of the fiduciary duty of a partner?
A) A violation occurs where one partner carries on a business unrelated to the partnership with the permission of the partners.
B) A violation occurs where a partner uses the partnership property for partnership business.
C) A violation occurs where one partner learns of an investment opportunity in the field of the partnership and tells the partners. The partners decline on the opportunity, so he takes advantage of it himself.
D) A violation occurs where one partner uses information that he has gained from the partnership for the advantage of the partnership.
E) A violation occurs where one partner starts another business, without the consent of the other partners, that is the same as or in competition with the partnership business.

A

E) A violation occurs where one partner starts another business, without the consent of the other partners, that is the same as or in competition with the partnership business.

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17
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to the characteristics of corporations?
A) The shareholders would be vicariously liable for any damage caused by a employee of the corporation carrying out his or her duties.
B) The corporation is a separate legal person, but neither can sue nor be sued.
C) Directors are responsible for the shareholders of the corporation.
D) Shareholders are liable for the debts and other obligations of the corporation.
E) A shareholder’s liability is limited to the amount he or she paid for the shares.

A

E) A shareholder’s liability is limited to the amount he or she paid for the shares.

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18
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of incorporation? A) Shareholders owe a duty to the corporation.
B) Shareholders are liable for debts of the corporation.
C) Shares are easily transferred.
D) Shareholders can veto the decisions of directors.
E) There are no tax advantages as compared to a sole proprietorship.

A

C) Shares are easily transferred.

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19
Q

John and two friends incorporated a closely held corporation. Each bought an equal number of common shares in the corporation. Each became a director, an officer, and an authorized agent of the corporation. Which of the following is true?
A) Each of them, as a director, owes a fiduciary duty to the others, as shareholders.
B) As director, each owes a fiduciary duty to the creditors of the corporation.
C) The corporation is more highly regulated and less free of government regulations and control than a broadly held corporation would be.
D) If the affairs of the corporation are being conducted in a manner that is unfairly prejudicial to any one shareholder, that shareholder could seek relief from such oppression from the court.
E) Since the corporation is a legal fiction, all of its activities must be carried out through principals.

A

D) If the affairs of the corporation are being conducted in a manner that is unfairly prejudicial to any one shareholder, that shareholder could seek relief from such oppression from the court.

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20
Q

Which of the following is a fiduciary relationship?
A) directors of the corporation and the corporation
B) officer of the corporation and the shareholders
C) agent and the third party
D) shareholders and the corporation
E) director of the corporation and the shareholders of the corporation

A

A) directors of the corporation and the corporation

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21
Q

When a house is built on a lot, the house is an example of: A) a profit à prendre.
B) a house not being considered property.
C) a chattel.
D) an easement.
E) real property.

A

E) real property.

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22
Q

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to personal property that becomes attached to real property?
A) When a tenant attaches tangible personal property to the real property he has rented in order to use it in his trade or profession, those trade fixtures cannot be removed when he leaves.
B) When a person renting a home attaches a mirror to the wall to better use it, he cannot take that mirror with him when he leaves.
C) When tangible personal property becomes attached to the real property, it is unlawful to remove it under any circumstances.
D) When tangible personal property becomes attached, it becomes part of the real property.
E) The owner of real property does not have the right to detach a fixture if he so desires.

A

D) When tangible personal property becomes attached, it becomes part of the real property.

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23
Q

Which of the following is considered real property in legal terms?
A) chattels
B) land
C) a claim against someone that has value
D) intellectual property (ideas and creative work)
E) intangible property or chose in action

A

B) land

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24
Q

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the person who is entitled to found property?
A) When a person finds valuable property, he must turn it over to the police, and if the rightful owner is not found, the property goes to the government.
B) When a person finds a valuable watch in a public place, he is entitled to that property over everyone else except the rightful owner.
C) When a person finds a valuable watch in a public place, he is entitled to that property over everyone else including the rightful owner.
D) When an employee finds an item of lost property on the premises of his employer, he is entitled to that lost property if the rightful owner cannot be found.
E) You only have a claim to personal property you find if it is a chose in action.

A

B) When a person finds a valuable watch in a public place, he is entitled to that property over everyone else except the rightful owner.

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25
Q

After saving his money for years, Taylor was finally able to buy property with a small house and a lake. Which of the following is false?
A) Taylor’s interest is referred to as a fee simple.
B) Taylor owns all of the area above his land and all of the land below it.
C) Taylor can sell part of his interest and create a joint tenancy.
D) Taylor’s ownership extends to include “fixtures.”
E) Despite the extent of Taylor’s interest, the Crown can grant the mineral rights to someone else.
Ans

A

B) Taylor owns all of the area above his land and all of the land below it.

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26
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to real property law?
A) The essential characteristic of an estate in land is that the owner of the estate, whether it is a fee simple, life estate, or leasehold, has exclusive possession.
B) People gain an interest in land when they are given the right to use or access property for some particular purpose.
C) Restrictive covenants that are negative in nature are not binding on future owners.
D) A profit à prendre is a type of restrictive covenant attaching to all properties within a particular development plan.
E) An easement acquired by prescription must be restrictive in nature to be binding on subsequent purchasers of land.

A

A) The essential characteristic of an estate in land is that the owner of the estate, whether it is a fee simple, life estate, or leasehold, has exclusive possession.

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27
Q

Mario bought a small house in Nelson and was puzzled when he saw the conveyancing documents, which referred to a transfer of a “fee simple.” The following statements were made to him to explain the term. Which is correct?
A) The owner of the fee simple has the right to exclusive possession of the land until his death. B) If the owner of the fee simple dies without a will, his estate reverts back to the Crown.
C) The owner of the fee simple has rights to the surface of the earth and also unlimited use of the airspace above his property.
D) The owner of the fee simple also owns what is below the land, including mineral rights.
E) Technically, only the Crown owns the land, but the fee simple interest is the greatest bundle of rights, other than the Crown’s, that a person can own.

A

E) Technically, only the Crown owns the land, but the fee simple interest is the greatest bundle of rights, other than the Crown’s, that a person can own.

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28
Q

If a person wanted to build a log cabin in a new subdivision. what might prevent him or her from doing so?
A) restrictive covenant
B) federal statute
C) prescription
D) easement
E) strata regulations

A

A) restrictive covenant

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29
Q

Brenna owns two adjacent lakeside lots. She sells one lot to Burt and Ernie, with the provisions that they agree not to develop any commercial facilities on the land and to plant a row of rose bushes between the properties. The covenants are registered in the appropriate land title office. Which of the following is true?
A) If Burt and Ernie do not plant the bushes as agreed, Brenna could sue them for private nuisance.
B) If Burt and Ernie sell the property, the new owner would not have to plant the row of rose bushes as provided in the original contract.
C) If Burt and Ernie sell the property, the new owner would have to plant the row of rose bushes as provided in the original contract.
D) The registration of a covenant guarantees that it is valid interest that runs with the land.
E) If Burt and Ernie sell their lot to Holly, Holly would not be bound by the covenant to refrain from developing commercial facilities.

A

B) If Burt and Ernie sell the property, the new owner would not have to plant the row of rose bushes as provided in the original contract.

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30
Q

Interests in land “run with the land.” This means that:
A) all interests in land give the owner of that interest the right to exclusive possession.
B) the interest in land is tied to the property itself and is therefore binding on subsequent owners of the land.
C) the fee simple and life estate are types of freehold estates.
D) a leasehold estate is a type of freehold estate.
E) contracts for interests in land are governed by the privity of contract rule (i.e., the contract affects only the parties to the contract).

A

B) the interest in land is tied to the property itself and is therefore binding on subsequent owners of the land.

31
Q

If a person habitually crosses property over a number of years with the permission of the owner, he can, in some provinces, acquire a right to cross that property even though there has been no actual documented grant of such a right. Acquiring such a right is this manner is called:
A) profit à prendre.
B) a dominant tenement.
C) prescription.
D) an estate in land.
E) adverse possession.

A

C) prescription.

32
Q

Mr. Hoo granted a first mortgage on his property to Vancouver Trust as security for a loan of $110 000 and a second mortgage to Hong Kong Bank as security for a loan of $25 000. Which of the following statements is false?
A) If Hoo were to default on his first mortgage, Vancouver Trust could start the foreclosure process.
B) If Hoo were to default on his first mortgage and the property was sold under court order, the proceeds from that sale would go first to Vancouver Trust, second to Hong Kong Bank, and the remainder, if any, to Hoo.
C) If Hoo were to default on his second mortgage only and the second mortgagee foreclosed, then the first mortgagee and Hoo himself would lose their interests in the property.
D) Hoo has given the fee simple interest in his property to Vancouver Trust; he has given Hong Kong Bank only his equity of redemption.
E) If Hoo were to default on his first mortgage, his creditors could ask that the court order the property to be sold to avoid foreclosure.

A

C) If Hoo were to default on his second mortgage only and the second mortgagee foreclosed, then the first mortgagee and Hoo himself would lose their interests in the property.

33
Q

Which of the following is false with regard to mortgages on land?
A) The right to foreclose is a remedy from the court of equity that allowed the mortgagee the right to end the mortgagor’s equitable right to redeem the property after default.
B) If the borrower (the mortgagor) is paying and otherwise honouring the terms of the mortgage, he is entitled to no interference with his use of the property by the mortgagee.
C) The courts of equity have given the borrower (mortgagor) the right to redeem his property even after default if he makes the appropriate payments.
D) A mortgage is a contract between a lender and a borrower that provides that the borrower not only gives the lender his promise to pay but also grants the lender title to his real property to hold as security.
E) A second or third mortgagee is not affected if the first mortgagee obtains an order of foreclosure.

A

E) A second or third mortgagee is not affected if the first mortgagee obtains an order of foreclosure.

34
Q

Consider the following statements regarding the nature of the landlord-tenant relationship. Indicate the true one.
A) A leasehold is one kind of interest less than an estate.
B) Leases are only available in residential tenancies.
C) The term of a lease must be for a definite period of time.
D) An oral lease is never enforceable.
E) A characteristic of leaseholds is that they grant to the holder the right of exclusive possession.

A

E) A characteristic of leaseholds is that they grant to the holder the right of exclusive possession.

35
Q

A periodic lease means:
A) a lease in which the parties agree to no set termination date but to the rental period being automatically renewed.
B) a term lease.
C) a lease created when a tenant is over-holding after the termination date of his lease without the landlord’s permission.
D) a tenancy created when an owner of property allows a purchaser to take possession before title transfers to him.
E) a lease granting the lessee exclusive possession for one year.

A

A) a lease in which the parties agree to no set termination date but to the rental period being automatically renewed.

36
Q

Which of the following is one of the implied rights of a lessee of a commercial tenancy?
A) The lessor will repair unfurnished premises.
B) The lessee will deliver vacant possession to the new tenant at the time they agreed the lease period would start.
C) The lessee will give the lessor possession.
D) The lessee can use and enjoy the premises for all usual purposes without physical interference from the lessor.
E) The lessor is assured against the interference by a third party.

A

D) The lessee can use and enjoy the premises for all usual purposes without physical interference from the lessor.

37
Q

Which one of the following mistakes voids a contract?
A) Two parties contracted for a shipload of coal, but unknown to both parties, at the time of the contract the ship had sunk and the coal had been lost.
B) Two parties contracted for the sale and purchase of a painting for the price of $800. When the contract was written up, the price was incorrectly stated as $900.
C) Sally and Mary had a serious misunderstanding about a term in the contract; the court found that the more reasonable interpretation was that of Sally.
D) When Mr. and Mrs. Houston put their property up for sale, Sam, without speaking to the Houstons or to their agent about the land, offered close to the asking price because he thought it was suitable for growing wheat. After his offer was accepted, he learned it was not suitable for wheat.
E) Sam bought three gallons of paint, but found he had made a mistake; two would have been sufficient.

A

A) Two parties contracted for a shipload of coal, but unknown to both parties, at the time of the contract the ship had sunk and the coal had been lost.

38
Q

Which of the following will have the likely consequence of the court’s finding the contract void on the grounds of mistake?
A) Ms. Hunt bought some property erroneously thinking that the province was planning to put a highway nearby, even though the seller had never made any such suggestion. She wants out of the contract.
B) The parties signed a document that stated the consideration as $1100 instead of the $900 that the buyer and seller had contracted for, but the buyer cannot prove the terms of the original contract.
C) Annette bought a suit thinking she would be invited back for a second interview. She wasn’t and now wants to return the suit on the basis of mistake.
D) Mary contracted to buy “the Acura car” from a collector of cars. He was selling his 1994 model but she thought she was buying the 1990 model. The court, looking at all evidence, found that the collector’s interpretation was the more reasonable.
E) Mr. Armstrong accepted the offer by Sidhu, who was selling a “computer program,” but learned that they had a different understanding of what program was meant. The court cannot say that one interpretation is better than the other.

A

E) Mr. Armstrong accepted the offer by Sidhu, who was selling a “computer program,” but learned that they had a different understanding of what program was meant. The court cannot say that one interpretation is better than the other.

39
Q

Jones offers to sell Smith his car. Smith thinks Jones is selling his 2009 Toyota, and Jones thinks he is selling his 2012 Pontiac. This is an example of which of the following?
A) a mistake
B) fraudulent misrepresentation
C) shared mistake
D) misunderstanding
E) one-sided mistake

A

D) misunderstanding

40
Q

The longer Adolph stayed on this job, the more he hated it. He thought the boss was too demanding. He especially disliked being reprimanded for being late. One afternoon, he was asked by a secretary to take a letter to the boss for his signature. The boss had had an eye operation and was recuperating at home. Adolph got two signatures, one on the letter and one on a note promising to pay Adolph $1000 in consideration for services rendered. The boss was not careless, but couldn’t read the papers. What plea or argument, if any, could the boss use to avoid paying on the promissory note?
A) unconscionability
B) duress
C) shared mistake
D) rectification
E) non est factum

A

E) non est factum

41
Q

Mr. and Mrs. H were induced to sign a mortgage in favour of M Co. Ltd. by Johnston, a man living with their daughter. Johnston led them to believe that the document was an unimportant amendment to an existing mortgage, when in reality it was a second substantial mortgage of their home. Neither read the document nor questioned it. When the payments were in arrears, the mortgagee took an action for foreclosure (to take Mr. and Mrs. H’s home). Which of the following is correct with respect to the legal position of the parties?
A) Mr. and Mrs. H will likely have to honour the mortgage contract even though they didn’t read it.
B) If the court finds that Johnston has committed a fraudulent misrepresentation, Mr. and Mrs. H will not have to honour the mortgage.
C) If the court finds that this is an example of undue influence by Johnston, Mr. and Mrs. H will not have to honour the mortgage.
D) If the court finds that this is an example of duress by Johnston, Mr. and Mrs. H will not have to honour the mortgage.
E) If Mr. and Mrs. H can show they didn’t read the document, they will not have to honour the mortgage contract.

A

A) Mr. and Mrs. H will likely have to honour the mortgage contract even though they didn’t read it.

42
Q

Len’s new secretary asked him to sign four letters that she said concerned general office matters. One of the “letters” was, in fact, a cheque for $500, payable to the secretary. The secretary cashed the cheque at her bank, and when her bank presented the cheque for payment, Len refused to pay it. He said he had been tricked and it was all a mistake. On these facts, which of the following is true?
A) Len would be obligated to honour the cheque no matter how careful he had been.
B) Even if Len had been careless, he will not have to honour the cheque.
C) Len may be able to avoid his obligation on the cheque on the basis of duress.
D) Len may be able to avoid his obligation on the cheque on the basis of unconscionability.
E) Len may be able to avoid his obligation on the cheque on the basis of non est factum.

A

E) Len may be able to avoid his obligation on the cheque on the basis of non est factum.

43
Q

With regard to exemption clauses, which of the following is true?
A) When exemption clauses appear unfair, courts generally will not allow them.
B) Courts are generally reluctant to interfere with exemption clauses, even when they may appear unfair.
C) When an exemption clause leads to an “unconscionable, unfair, or unreasonable result,” the doctrine of fundamental breach would apply.
D) To overrule an exemption clause, the courts first consider whether there exists some “overriding policy” on the part of the defendant.
E) Courts are more likely to interfere with a contract in a commercial relationship than with a contract in a consumer relationship.

A

B) Courts are generally reluctant to interfere with exemption clauses, even when they may appear unfair.

44
Q

It came to your attention that your great-grandmother had signed a contract pursuant to which she would be paying $5000 for an electronic organ that retails in reputable stores for $3000. Furthermore, the interest being charged is 18%, even though today’s rate fell to a 20-year low. This debt is totally out of line with her pension income. It is apparent that she was misled by the door-to-door salesperson who came to her home. On these facts, which of the following laws is the most likely to help her?
A) non est factum
B) misrepresentation only
C) unconscionability only
D) both unconscionability and misrepresentation
E) undue influence only

A

D) both unconscionability and misrepresentation

45
Q

Which of the following is false with regard to misrepresentation?
A) If the seller induces the buyer to buy by making a misrepresentation that she honestly thought was true, the buyer has no remedy in equity.
B) A misrepresentation can be made about a term of a contract and result in an award of damages.
C) For fraudulent misrepresentation, the buyer can be granted the equitable remedy of rescission. D) Fraudulent misrepresentation can result in the seller being sued for damages for the tort of deceit.
E) In law, a misrepresentation is a false statement of fact that persuades someone to enter into a contract.

A

regard to misrepresentation?
A) If the seller induces the buyer to buy by making a misrepresentation that she honestly thought was true, the buyer has no remedy in equity.

46
Q

Mr. Copperfield, a collector of movie memorabilia, bid $50 000 on the Batmobile. After taking delivery, he discovered that the car was not the one actually used in the film Batman; it was merely one of five cars used to promote the film. He is suing the seller, Mr. Eisenberg. If Copperfield could prove any of the following, which would entitle him to return the Batmobile and get his money back?
A) innocent misrepresentation by Eisenberg
B) fraudulent misrepresentation by Eisenberg
C) breach of contract by Eisenberg
D) negligent misrepresentation by Eisenberg
E) all of the above

A

E) all of the above

47
Q

Damages as a remedy will not be available in which of the following situations?
A) Jones makes a negligent misstatement, persuading Smith to enter a contract with him.
B) Jones, although being careful, makes an innocent misrepresentation, persuading Smith to enter a contract with him.
C) Jones makes a fraudulent misrepresentation, persuading Smith to enter a contract with him.
D) A false statement made by Jones becomes a term of the contract.
E) none of the above

A

B) Jones, although being careful, makes an innocent misrepresentation, persuading Smith to enter a contract with him.

48
Q

When the courts find that undue influence is present, the resulting contract is:
A) binding.
B) void.
C) illegal.
D) voidable.
E) unenforceable.

A

D) voidable.

49
Q

Which of the following is an example of duress?
A) Joe wants to purchase Smith’s car from him, and Smith sells it to someone else.
B) Joe refuses to sell Harry his car unless Harry offers him more money.
C) Joe threatens to smash Harry’s car if Harry won’t sell it to him.
D) Joe, knowing of Harry’s financial situation, refuses to sell him his car.
E) Joe counter-offers Harry’s original offer.

A

C) Joe threatens to smash Harry’s car if Harry won’t sell it to him.

50
Q

Randal embezzled $6000 of his employer’s money and then disappeared. The employer’s accountant called at Randal’s residence and discovered that his wife had a $3500 term deposit. When the accountant threatened to have her husband arrested and imprisoned if she did not agree to sign over the deposit, she assigned the term deposit to the employer to help to defray the loss from the embezzlement. If the wife were later to sue for return of the term deposit, what would be her grounds for avoiding the assignment?
A) mistake of law
B) non est factum
C) duress
D) fraudulent misrepresentation
E) undue influence

A

C) duress

51
Q

With regard to the law governing privity of contract and assignment, which of the following is true?
A) A statutory assignment is more difficult to enforce than an equitable assignment.
B) A party to a contract for services can assign both his contractual obligations and his contractual rights.
C) An employee sent by his employer to do a routine job for one of the employer’s customers is not in a contractual relationship with the customer.
D) Novation refers to the modifications of the privity of contract rule since it allows a stranger to the contract to receive benefits from the contract.
E) Assignments are modifications of the privity of contract rule since they allow ending the original contract and entering into a new contract with changes in terms, such as substituting one party for another.

A

C) An employee sent by his employer to do a routine job for one of the employer’s customers is not in a contractual relationship with the customer.

52
Q

Privity of contract applies in which of the following situations?
A) where an insurance contract is involved
B) where a trust has been created
C) where a trust is involved
D) where an interest in land is involved
E) where goods are being sold

A

E) where goods are being sold

53
Q

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to breach of contract?
A) When a contract is repudiated before performance is due, the victim must wait until the time of performance before taking any action.
B) When a condition is breached, the victim can treat the contract as ended.
C) When a warranty is breached, the victim can treat the contract as ended.
D) When a contract for the purchase of goods is breached, the warranty will require that the goods be repaired by the seller.
E) When a condition is breached, a person can only sue for damages but must perform his or her part of the contract.

A

B) When a condition is breached, the victim can treat the contract as ended.

54
Q

Identify the exception in one of the following situations, whereby the contract is discharged by frustration.
A) Rudolph is due to appear in a local variety theatre that has just been destroyed in a fire of unknown origin.
B) Frank has contracted to ride Emperor, a prize horse, in the Canada Day races on July 1, but on June 28 the horse breaks a leg and has to be destroyed.
C) Jack contracts with Bill to build a barn on his one-hectare lot, but before the permit is obtained, a new law prohibits barns on less than three hectares.
D) Gregory, a trucker with whom you contracted last month to haul potatoes tomorrow, phones to tell you that his truck has broken down.
E) Jerry, a doctor, is due to perform a heart transplant operation on Mary, and the night before the surgery his arthritis becomes so painful that he cannot hold a scalpel.

A

D) Gregory, a trucker with whom you contracted last month to haul potatoes tomorrow, phones to tell you that his truck has broken down.

55
Q

Harry agreed to make a new violin for Ted at a particularly attractive price. Before he finished crafting it, however, an opportunity arose to work as a salesman for Joe’s Fine Cars. Since it was clear that he could never make a living as a violin maker, Harry took the job and refused to finish the violin for Ted. Which of the following is the appropriate remedy in these circumstances?
A) injunction
B) specific performance
C) rescission
D) damages
E) no remedy

A

D) damages

56
Q

Rick was a talented computer programmer and had agreed to work for Bill in his successful computer software business, signing a one-year contract to that effect. On the day he was to start work, and after a week of training where he learned a considerable amount of confidential information about Bill’s operation, Rick phoned Bill and announced that he was going to work for Bill’s competitor instead. Which of the following is the appropriate remedy in these circumstances?
A) specific performance
B) no remedy
C) rescission
D) accounting
E) injunction

A

E) injunction

57
Q

Which of the following contracts would be covered by the Sale of Goods Act?
A) a contract for the sale of a famous painting
B) the trade of a car for a boat involving no money
C) the purchase of a house
D) a contract for medical services with a doctor
E) the sale of corporate shares

A

A) a contract for the sale of a famous painting

58
Q

To which of the following transactions would the Sale of Goods Act apply?
A) a contract for a boat
B) a contract with a warehouse owner to store a Chevrolet car
C) a contract for a house
D) a contract for a haircut
E) a contract to have a dress mended and cleaned

A

A) a contract for a boat

59
Q

In the sale of goods:
A) title and ownership are separate concepts.
B) ownership and possession are separate concepts.
C) a change in possession and a transfer of title are the same thing.
D) the buyer always has title when goods are paid for.
E) the seller always has title when goods are paid for.

A

B) ownership and possession are separate concepts.

60
Q

Which of the following complaints would lead to a successful action under the Sale of Goods Act?
A) “Waiter, there’s a spider in my sandwich.”
B) “I paid $10 for government bonds, but you have sent me shares in a private company that I’ve never heard of!”
C) “You are not going to honour our contract for the land?! I planned to build on that lot in the spring!”
D) “I left the car here with orders to adjust the front lights; I did not order a tune-up!”
E) “I hired you to wait tables, not to stand around doing stand-up comedy routines.”

A

A) “Waiter, there’s a spider in my sandwich.”

61
Q

If you buy a toaster from a second-hand dealer of small appliances, which of the following is true?
A) The Sale of Goods Act prohibits the seller from exempting himself from liability in the event that the toaster is not fit for purpose.
B) The risk of loss depends on who has possession of the toaster.
C) The Sale of Goods Act does not apply.
D) Title to the toaster would pass at the time the buyer picked it up the next day.
E) There is an implied term of the contract that the seller has good title (i.e., the right to sell it).

A

E) There is an implied term of the contract that the seller has good title (i.e., the right to sell it).

62
Q

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the Sale of Goods Act?
A) The parties are restricted to contract out of any of the terms of the Sale of Goods Act.
B) The Sale of Goods Act does apply to the sale of land.
C) The terms included in the Sale of Goods Act override the terms agreed upon by the parties to such a sale of goods.
D) Some of the terms of the Sale of Goods Act are implied in the contract of sale.
E) The Sale of Goods Act does apply to the assignment of a contractual claim.

A

D) Some of the terms of the Sale of Goods Act are implied in the contract of sale.

63
Q

Which of the following is not able to file a lien against the property under the Builders’ Lien Act?
A) suppliers
B) workers
C) lenders
D) subcontractors
E) contractors

A

C) lenders

64
Q

Which of the following entitles a creditor to perfection of a security interest under the Personal Property Security Act?
A) the point in time when the creation of a security interest by entering into a security agreement with the debtor
B) the point in time when value is given under the contract to the debtor
C) the point in time when the creditor obtains a claim against the assets
D) the point in time when the creditor takes physical possession of the property used as security such as share certificates or bonds
E) The point in time when the creditor searches the title of the asset through the PPSA registration system

A

D) the point in time when the creditor takes physical possession of the property used as security such as share certificates or bonds

65
Q

Which of the following is an example of an agent as opposed to an employee? A) Joe worked as a delivery driver for Smith Textiles Ltd.
B) Joe worked as the purchasing agent for Smith Textiles Ltd.
C) Joe worked in the mailroom of Smith Textiles Ltd., sorting mail.
D) Joe worked as a janitor for Smith Textiles Ltd.
E) Joe worked as a mechanic for Smith Used Cars Ltd.

A

B) Joe worked as the purchasing agent for Smith Textiles Ltd.

66
Q

A principal is bound in contract with the third party with whom the agent dealt if the agent is:
A) within his or her implied authority.
B) within his or her express authority.
C) within his or her apparent authority.
D) outside his or her authority but the principal ratified it.
E) all of the above

A

E) all of the above

67
Q

An agency relationship can be created by:
A) apparent authority.
B) estoppel.
C) ratification.
D) actual authority.
E) all of the above.

A

E) all of the above.

68
Q

Sam hires Joe to negotiate and sign a contract with Ken on Sam’s behalf. Which of the following is true?
A) If Joe acts outside express, implied, and apparent authority, Sam is not bound by the contract, even if he ratifies the contract.
B) If Joe acts within his apparent authority, but outside his express or implied authority, Sam will be bound by the contract.
C) If Joe acts outside his express authority and negotiates and signs the contract with Ken, Sam may not be a party to that contract.
D) If Joe acts outside his express, implied, and apparent authority, he could be sued by Sam, but not by Ken, because he has no contractual relationship with Ken.
E) If Joe acts outside his implied and express authority, Sam will owe him for his services.

A

B) If Joe acts within his apparent authority, but outside his express or implied authority, Sam will be bound by the contract.

68
Q

With respect to duties owed by an agent to his or her principal, which of the following statements is false with regard to agency law?
A) Failure of an agent to obey his or her principal and to act within the authority given him allows the principal to sue the agent for breach of contract.
B) When an agent enters a contract on behalf of his principal but does so in breach of his or her duties to the principal, the contract is void and cannot bind the principal.
C) An agent must use reasonable care, skill, and diligence in the performance of his or her duties as agent.
D) Generally, an agent may not delegate his or her authority without the authorization of his or her principal.
E) Failure of an agent to perform his or her duties personally may allow his or her principal to sue the agent for breach of contract.

A

B) When an agent enters a contract on behalf of his principal but does so in breach of his or her duties to the principal, the contract is void and cannot bind the principal.

69
Q

In certain cases, a third party can hold a principal to a contract even though the agent acted outside the authorization given him by his or her principal and even though his or her principal elected not to ratify the contract made by the agent. The third party can enforce the contract because of:
A) the reasonable agent theory.
B) the agent’s apparent authority.
C) agency by express agreement.
D) fiduciary duty.
E) the failure of the principal to register the agency agreement.

A

B) the agent’s apparent authority.

70
Q

With respect to the formation of agency by estoppel, which of the following statements is true?
A) If the principal tells an agent specifically not to sell something and the agent, in disobedience of those instructions, sells it anyway, the principal may be bound by the contract because of estoppel.
B) The issue of apparent authority arises only if a person acts as an agent when he or she has express or implied authority.
C) When a party terminates an express agency agreement with an agent and notifies third parties with whom that agent normally dealt, that party will be liable on a contract made for it by that “fired” agent.
D) When a third party suspects that the agent it deals with has no authority, there is no obligation on it to question the agent’s alleged authority.
E) When a party represents, by words or conduct, that someone is its agent, that party can later deny liability on a contract made for it by that agent on the basis that no express agency agreement existed.

A

A) If the principal tells an agent specifically not to sell something and the agent, in disobedience of those instructions, sells it anyway, the principal may be bound by the contract because of estoppel.

71
Q

If a third party relies on the principal’s representation that the agent has the authority to act, which of the following is true?
A) The principal can claim the agent had no authority.
B) The principal cannot claim the agent had no authority.
C) The principal can claim estoppel.
D) The agent is solely liable for the conduct if it results in injury to the third party.
E) The agent can sue the principal for breach of contract.

A

B) The principal cannot claim the agent had no authority.

72
Q

If Matt is an agent for Art, which of the following is false?
A) Matt cannot act as an agent for Art and for the person Art is dealing with at the same time without the permission of both.
B) Matt owes a fiduciary duty to Art.
C) Matt could act as an agent for Art even if he were not paid to do so.
D) Even when Matt is acting as an agent, he need not put the interest of Art above his own.
E) Matt must use reasonable care, skill, and diligence in his service to Art.

A

D) Even when Matt is acting as an agent, he need not put the interest of Art above his own.

73
Q

Which of the following is correct with respect to an agent’s performance of his or her duties?
A) The agent must never compete with the principal.
B) The agent must never take advantage of the third party.
C) The principal need not reimburse the agent for any reasonable expenses incurred in the process of performing the agency responsibilities.
D) When an agent fails to act in the best interest of the principal and is an independent contractor, this is just cause for constructive dismissal.
E) The agent may profit at the expense of the principal if the agent acquires some previously unknown information.

A

A) The agent must never compete with the principal.

74
Q

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to remedies for wrongful dismissal?
A) The court will usually order the employer to take the employee back.
B) The damages that are payable to the employee are calculated on the basis of what the employee would have received had he been given reasonable notice whether or not he gets another job.
C) The court will issue an injunction to prevent the employer from hiring someone else to take the employee’s place.
D) If the employee gets another job within the period of notice he should have received, that will affect the amount of damages he will receive.
E) It is up to the employee to determine the amount of notice he should have been given.

A

D) If the employee gets another job within the period of notice he should have received, that will affect the amount of damages he will receive.

75
Q

The process by which a particular union achieves the status of bargaining agent for a group of employees is called:
A) certification.
B) binding arbitration.
C) arbitration.
D) conciliation.
E) job action.

A

A) certification.