Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Organisational Behaviour > Multiple Choice > Flashcards

Multiple Choice Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of these is a core underlying discipline that informs organisational behaviour?
    a) Motivation
    b) Sociology
    c) Teamwork
    d) Leadership
A

b) Sociology

Whilst organizational behaviour features a number of key topics such as motivation, teamwork and leadership, to study them draws on and uses a number of key underlying disciplines that inform it as a subject. OB in particular draws on psychology, social psychology, sociology, anthropology and political science.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which of these is not a key feature of a team?
    a) Mutual independence
    b) Mutual purpose
    c) Shared responsibility
    d) Working in the same department that is called a team
A

d) Working in the same department that is called a team

Whilst people who do the same role or work in the same department which has the title of being a team might share commonality, this does not necessarily mean they work together for the same purpose. A team is seen as having a more specific purpose and function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What is social loafing?
    a) A process where individuals in teams work less hard than they would individually.
    b) A process where individuals work harder when they are in teams.
    c) When someone hangs around with others and enjoys the camaraderie of being part of a team.
    d) Team building activities
A

a) A process where individuals in teams work less hard than they would individually.

Developed by Bibb Latané and colleagues (Harkins et al., 1980; Latané et al., 1979)social loafing theory suggests that people work harder individually than when they are part of a group. They did various experiments such as getting people to clap or pull agricultural equipment and found that the amount an individual produced on their own was up to twice what they would achieve when in a large group. Individuals, unconsciously, they concluded, feel less responsibility in a group than they do individually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which of the following is a particular benefit of teamwork to the organization asa whole, rather than the individual?
    a) Transfer of skills and technical expertise
    b) Learning skills from others
    c) Job enrichment
    d) Increased motivation
A

a) Transfer of skills and technical expertise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. In the Belbin Team Role a Shaper is:
    a) Outgoing, enthusiastic, communicative. Explores opportunities and develops contacts
    b) Single-minded, self-starting, dedicated. Provides knowledge and skills in rare supply
    c) Creative, imaginative, free-thinking. Generates ideas and solves difficult problems
    d) Challenging, dynamic, thrives on pressure. Has the drive and courage to overcome obstacles
A

d) Challenging, dynamic, thrives on pressure. Has the drive and courage to overcome obstacles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Tuckman’s stages of team formation go in what order?
    a) Norming, storming, forming, performing, adjourning
    b) Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning
    c) Founding, storming, norming, performing, adjourning
    d) Forming, staining, norming, performing, adjourning
A

b) Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What is groupthink?
    a) Negotiation a solution as part of the group
    b) Learning to compromise to fit within the group
    c) A meeting where everyone shares their ideas
    d) Social pressure put on individuals to think in a particular way
A

d) Social pressure put on individuals to think in a particular way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Why, according to Barker (1993) and Sewell (1998), can teamwork increase management control?
    a) Team members monitor and control each other’s actions.
    b) People within the team compete with each other for management’s favour.
    c) People can share more information and knowledge so individual skill diminishes.
    d) Creating high performance teams increases managements control.
A

a) Team members monitor and control each other’s actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Fill in the missing word in this definition of culture: ‘the basic assumptions and _______which are shared by members of an organization’
    a) Hopes
    b) Beliefs
    c) Fears
    d) Views
A

b) Beliefs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Early “personality trait” theories identified:
    a) Organizational culture

    b) Physical and Personality characteristics
    c) Bureaucracy

    d) Taylorism
A

b) Physical and Personality characteristics??

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Tannenbaum and Schmidt suggested four leadership styles located at points along which of the following continuum?
    a) Democratic, Autocratic, Persuasive, Consultative
    b) Autocratic, Persuasive, Consultative, Democratic
    c) Persuasive, Consultative, Democratic, Autocratic
    d) Consultative, Democratic, Autocratic, Persuasive
A

b) Autocratic, Persuasive, Consultative, Democratic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What, according to management gurus Deal and Kennedy, is the main reason that managers should be interested in transforming their culture?
    a) It increases a firm’s performance.
    b) It makes companies a happier place to work in.
    c) It saves time on training.
    d) It helps employees cope with change.
A

a) It increases a firm’s performance.

One of the central claims that proponents of cultural change put forward is that it can make the organization more productive and efficient. For instance Deal and Kennedy estimate that ‘a company can gain as much as one or two hours of productive work per employee per day’ (1982: 15). Indeed considerable attention has been placed on the links between organizational culture and organizational performance.
The culture can also help employees cope well with change and make employees more satisfied with their jobs, but these are secondary outcomes rather than the central aim.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Deal and Kennedy’s module of culture is a kind of:
    a) List
    b) Typology
    c) Cultural diagram
    d) Cultural management tool kit
A

b) Typology

Deal and Kennedy produced a typology of different cultural types. A typology is a list of types and in this context is a way of classifying organizations’ cultures. Cultural typologies are useful as they provide a shorthand way of understanding cultures. However they can also be too simplistic, often covering up some of the complexity and variety of different organizational cultures. Therefore, they are useful but need to be treated with care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. What is the surface level of Edger Schein’s cultural iceberg?
    a) Intangible activities and routines
    b) The mission statement
    c) Values, beliefs and expectations
    d) Physical artefacts
A

d) Physical artefacts

The surface level of the iceberg, and therefore the most visible aspect are the physical artefacts. Whilst the physical artefacts (uniforms, buildings etc.) are the easiest to change, they are also the most superficial. However for management seeking to gain a quick hit they can be useful, but if the deeper aspect of the culture is not also transformed then a back-lash against the changes might occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Within Schein’s cultural model what are basic underlying assumptions?
    a) Really obvious stuff that everyone should know
    b) Key theoretical ideas about organizational culture
    c) The unconscious, taken-for-granted assumptions of organizational members
    d) Stated assumptions shared by organizational members
A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. How, according to Schein, can organizational leaders continue to influence the organization even when they retire?
    a) They can have their picture on the wall looking down on staff to remind them of their presence.
    b) They can return and give speeches to staff on regular occasions.
    c) Myths and stories about them can influence how staff think.
    d) Their name can be the company’s name as a constant reminder of who they were.
A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Which approach to personality sees personality as something which is measurable?
    a) Ideographic
    b) Nomothetic
    c) Social-radical
    d) All of the above
A

17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which personality measuring instrument uses four scales and is derived from the work of Jung?
    a) Cattell’s 16PF traits
    b) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
    c) Big five personality factors
    d) Keirsey’s temperament sorter
A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. How are the big five personality factors (McRae and Costa, 1990, 1996) also known?
    a) RIVER scale
    b) BROOK scale
    c) PONDS scale
    d) OCEAN scale
A

d) OCEAN scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which of the following selection techniques has the highest predictive validity?
    a) Personality assessment
    b) References
    c) Structured interview
    d) Unstructured interview
A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. ‘Individuals are unique and complex. Their personalities are always changing and can never be reduced to a measurement.’ Which approach to personality does this best describe?
    a) Nomothetic approach
    b) Ideographic approach
    c) Trait theories of personality
    d) Type theories of personality
A

21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Which of the following is a factor which may cause bias in an interview?
    a) Predictive validity
    b) Halo/horns effect
    c) Hawthorne effect
    d) Nomothetic approach
A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
    a) It is a perfect model of workplace motivation.
    b) It was devised by Maslow after meticulous research in workplace settings.
    c) It has been proven empirically to be accurate in workplace settings.
    d) It is a highly flawed model, although it does recognize that people are motivated differently.
A

23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of one of Herzberg’s (1966) motivating factors?
    a) Status within the organization
    b) Salary
    c) Recognition
    d) Working conditions
A

24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes how people are motivated according to process theories of motivation?
    a) People make subjective judgements based on past experiences and individual thought processes.
    b) People are located at different positions on a framework.
    c) Behaviour is modified through punishment and reward.
    d) People have different orientations to work.
A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. According to expectancy theory, why might you be answering this question now?
    a) Because it will help you to self-actualize.
    b) Because it will help you to understand the subject, get better module marks and ultimately a better degree.
    c) Because you have been told to do it by a tutor.
    d) Because you gain intrinsic satisfaction from answering the question correctly.
A

26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Which of these is not a principle of great man theory?
    a) Leaders are born not made.
    b) Great men rise up in times of crisis.
    c) We can learn from the biographies of great leaders.
    d) A great leader is only great in certain situations.
A

27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. In leadership trait theory what is a trait?
    a) A list of the things that make leaders different to everyone else.
    b) A list of the key things that a leader should do to be great.
    c) The list of key behaviours a leader exhibits.
    d) A list of key characteristics that makes a leader great.
A

28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. For the Ohio State leadership studies the perfect leader:
    a) Combines a focus on the task and the employee
    b) Focuses on the task and getting things done
    c) Inspires workers to aim higher and achieve more
    d) Is concerned about the small details and how to increase productivity
A

29

30
Q
  1. Contingency theory is based on the assumption that the ideal leader:
    a) Shapes their leadership style depending on the situation.
    b) Provides clear instructions to the followers so that they know what they are doing.
    c) Knows what their strengths are and makes the most out of them.
    d) Spends time with their followers and therefore listens and responds to their needs.
A

30

31
Q
  1. A transactional leader is one who:
    a) Inspires people and has strong interactions with them
    b) Does deals with people in order to get them to do things the leader wants
    c) Is the ideal form of leadership
    d) Works for long-term goals of the organization
A

31

32
Q
  1. What is a transformational leader?
    a) Someone who is involved in organizational change.
    b) A leader, like Taylor, who provided new ways of carrying out management.
    c) A leader who inspires the workers to new levels by offering them a vision of a better future.
    d) A leader who tries to transform their staff by giving them rewards for what they do.
A

32

33
Q
  1. What is the ‘glass ceiling’?
    a) A barrier which prevents women from passing through to more senior positions in the company.
    b) An old fashioned idea that suggests that women should not make it to the boardroom in organizations.
    c) The effect where men can pass by women in women dominated professions.
    d) An approach which seeks to get more women in senior positions in organizations.
A

33

34
Q
  1. Who stated that: ‘A has power over B to the extent that he can get B to do something that B would not otherwise do’?
    a) Robert Dahl
    b) Jeffery Pfeffer
    c) Niccoló Machiavelli
    d) Stephen Lukes
A

34

35
Q
  1. According to Jeffery Pfeffer power is:
    a) Having something that someone else wants or needs where there are few other alternatives.
    b) The ability to control others.
    c) Being in the right position within the organization.
    d) The ability to set the agenda.
A

35

36
Q
  1. Why might empowering the workers be good for the organization?
    a) Because workers are better trained and therefore more productive.
    b) Empowered workers work best in a team.
    c) Managers have more control over telling people exactly what to do.
    d) Power resides at the level of the person actually doing the job, leading to better decision making and can satisfy customer needs.
A

36

37
Q
  1. Why does empowerment not necessarily produce greater freedom for the worker?
    a) Workers can get promoted but do not necessarily get paid more.
    b) Employees have increased responsibilities of how to carry out tasks without necessarily being able to set the wider goals of the organization.
    c) Empowered workers might set harder goals for themselves than management would have done.
    d) Empowered workers might share their secrets with management leading to greater control over them.
A

37

38
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of informal communication in an organization?
    a) Organization chart
    b) Matrix structure
    c) Gossip
    d) Company newsletter
A

38

39
Q
  1. According to Mehrabian (1971), what percentage of meaning is communicated through actual words?
    a) 7%
    b) 37%
    c) 55%
    d) 100%
A

39

40
Q
  1. What percentage of meaning of an original message does Nichols (1962) suggests remains after it has been communicated from the top to the bottom of an organization?
    a) 75%
    b) 50%
    c) 20%
    d) 10%
A

40

41
Q
  1. An interdisciplinary field, dedicated to the study of how individuals and groups tend to act in organizations, is called:
    a) sociology
    b) cultural anthropology
    c) psychology
    d) organizational behaviour
A

41

42
Q
  1. Organizational behaviour incorporates two distinct features which are:
    a) interdisciplinary and scientific
    b) interdisciplinary and explanatory
    c) explanatory and systematic
    d) interdisciplinary and systematic
A

42

43
Q
  1. People and Organizational context add what to the process of management?
    a) variety, uncertainty and complexity
    b) variety, certainty and complexity
    c) variety, uncertainty and conflict
    d) conflict, uncertainty and complexity
A

43

44
Q
  1. Idiographic approaches to personality are based on which of the following?
    a) self awareness rather than psychometric measurement
    b) self concept as measured by psychometric tests
    c) self concept rather than psychometric measurement
    d) self belief rather than psychometric measurement
A

44

45
Q
  1. Emotional intelligence, as an ability, does not contain one of the following branches. Which is it?
    a) use emotions to facilitate thinking
    b) manage emotions so as to achieve specific goals
    c) perceive emotions accurately in self and others
    d) understand emotional outburst in others and the signals conveyed by
A

45

46
Q

Which of the following is not one of the “Big Five” personality dimensions?

a) agreeableness
b) tolerance for ambiguity
c) openness to experience
d) emotional stability

A

46

47
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of the steps used in developing a psychometric test?
    a) development of appropriate test items
    b) subjecting the test to various reliability and validity assessments
    c) development of administrative arrangements for the testing process
    d) development of advertising literature aimed at recruitment managers
A

47

48
Q
  1. In an interview situation, the primacy effect suggests that the interviewer’s impression of the interviewee is likely to be based upon:
    a) how they answer the last few questions
    b) how previous interviewees performed
    c) the intentions of the interviewer
    d) the target’s physical appearance
A

48

49
Q
  1. The beliefs, feelings, and behavioural tendencies held by a person about an object, event, or person are called:
    a) attitudes
    b) intuitions
    c) sentiments
    d) perceptions
A

49

50
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the needs in the motivation theory, developed by Alderfer?
    a) growth needs
    b) relatedness needs
    c) social needs
    d) existence needs
A

50

51
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a content theory of motivation?
    a) Herzberg’s two-factor theory
    b) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory
    c) Alderfer’s ERG theory
    d) Locke’s goal theory
A

51

52
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the levels, within Maslow’s theory of motivation?
    a) society needs
    b) physiological needs
    c) self-actualization needs
    d) esteem needs
A

52

53
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three key elements, in Vrooms model of expectancy theory in work motivation?
    a) instrumentality
    b) responsibility
    c) valance
    d) expectancy
A

53

54
Q

Which of the following is one of the hygiene factors identified by Herzberg?

a) responsibility
b) working conditions
c) advancement
d) recognition

A

54

55
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which equity (or balance) could be restored, in Adams’ equity theory of motivation?

a) influencing others
b) leaving the situation
c) maintaining perception of equity
d) changing inputs

A

55

56
Q

Who proposed a two dimensional leadership theory called the Leadership Grid?

a) Blake; Mouton
b) Hersey; Blanchard
c) Vroom; Yetton
d) Tannenbaum; Schmidt

A

56

57
Q

The Leadership Grid used two leader behaviours which were called:

a) employee-centred and job centred
b) consideration and initiating structure
c) concern for people and concern for production
d) relationship-oriented and task-oriented

A

57

58
Q

The path-goal theory was first developed by:

a) Fred Fiedler
b) Hersey and Blanchard
c) Blake and Mouton
d) House

A

58

59
Q
  1. Which approach is a model of leadership that describes the relationship between leadership styles, and specific organizational situations.
    a) contingency approach
    b) behavioural approach
    c) trait approach
    d) organizational approach
A

59

60
Q
  1. Which leaders manage by exception, to a significant degree, according to Bass?
    a) transactional
    b) charismatic
    c) transformational
    d) supportive
A

60

61
Q
  1. In which stage of group development have conflicts largely been resolved, the team become more cohesive, and members settled into their roles?
    a) norming
    b) storming
    c) forming
    d) performing
A

61

62
Q
  1. Conflict that occurs between teams in an organization is referred to as:
    a) intraorganizational conflict
    b) interorganizational conflict
    c) intergroup conflict
    d) interpersonal conflict
A

62

63
Q
  1. Which of the following styles, of conflict management, results in one party to the dispute subjugating themselves to the wishes of the other?
    a) collaborating
    b) avoiding
    c) accommodating
    d) compromising
A

63

64
Q
  1. Handy describes one type of culture as based upon the expertise within the organization, as vested in the individuals within it, and reflected in the way that they must be organized to meet the needs of the business. Which of the following reflects this type of culture?
    a) role culture
    b) person culture
    c) power culture
    d) task culture
A

64

65
Q
  1. According to Deal and Kennedy, this type of culture is associated with low risk and slow feedback. Which of the following represents this type of culture?
    a) macho culture
    b) bet your company culture
    c) work and play hard culture
    d) process culture
A

65

66
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the Hofstede dimensions of culture?
    a) long-term versus short-term orientation
    b) power distance
    c) gender specific
    d) individualism – collectivism
A

66

67
Q
  1. What do content theories on motivation attempt to explain:
    a) how managers can influence the level of overall contentment in a workforce by recognizing and praising workers’ contributions.
    b) the actual process of motivation.
    c) those specific things that actually motivate the individual at work.
    d) people’s feelings of how fairly they have been treated in comparison with 
the treatment received by others.
A

67

68
Q
  1. Which view of personality “believes that personality is primarily determined by heredity, biology and genetics”?
    a) Negative reinforcement
    b) Idiographic

    c) The looking glass self
    d) Nomothetic
A

68

69
Q
    1. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a formal group?
      a) Tends to have permanent membership.
      b) Activities are task-oriented.
      c) Members are self-selecting on the basis of common interest.
      d) Activities contribute directly to the organization’s goals.
A

69

70
Q
  1. Some stress is good and necessary for increase in performance. Which model proposes this?
    a) Hans Selye’s 3 stage model
    b) Yerkes-Dodson inverted U curve
    c) Friedman and Rosenman’s Personality types
    d) Alderfer’s ERG theory
A

70

71
Q
  1. Which of the following disciplines do not have any contribution in the study and understanding of organization culture?
    a) Anthropology
    b) Physiotherapy
    c) Socio-psychology
    d) Economics
A

71

72
Q
  1. Which of the following should be true of managers in relationship to conflict?
    a) Managers should generally encourage low levels of conflict because it improves performance, up to a certain point.
    b) Managers should generally ignore conflict.
    c) Managers should attempt to eliminate conflict because the organization 
rewards them for keeping conflict out of their area of responsibility.
    d) Managers should show no consistent attitude toward conflict.
A

72

Organisational Behaviour (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions