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175.302 Abnormal and Therapeutic Psychology > Multichoice Quizzes > Flashcards

Multichoice Quizzes Flashcards

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1
Q

Personality disorders are defined as:

a. any psychological disorder having an onset before age 12 and recurring at least three times during adult life.
b. long-standing, pervasive, inflexible and maladaptive personality traits that impair social and occupational functioning.
c. a chronic pattern of extreme instability in relationships, mood, and self-image.
d. maladaptive behaviors that consistently violate the rights of others.

A

b. long-standing, pervasive, inflexible and maladaptive personality traits that impair social and occupational functioning.

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2
Q

A concern about the DSM-5 classification system for personality disorders is that

a. about half of the people who met criteria for one personality disorder also met the criteria for another personality disorder.
b. some of the disorders are rare in community settings, and even in most clinical settings.
c. many people who seem to have a serious personality problem don’t fit any of the personality disorder diagnoses.
d. all of the above.

A

d. all of the above.

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3
Q

Compared to normal personality styles, personality disorders are more

a. dangerous and immoral.
b. inborn and physiological.
c. bizarre and out of control.
d. pervasive and inflexible.

A

d. pervasive and inflexible.

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4
Q

Unusual and eccentric thoughts and behavior (psychoticism), interpersonal detachment, and suspiciousness are characteristics of the DSM-5 __________ personality disorder.

a. narcissistic
b. avoidant
c. schizotypal
d. borderline

A

c. schizotypal

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5
Q

The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for avoidant personality disorder include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. fear of disapproval
b. positive sense of oneself
c. preoccupation with criticism or rejection
d. inhibition in establishing social relationships

A

b. positive sense of oneself

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6
Q

The DSM-5 description of borderline personality disorder includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a. extremely fragile self-concept.
b. chronic feelings of emptiness.
c. engage in verbal or physical acts of aggression when angry.
d. multiple interpersonal relationships.

A

d. multiple interpersonal relationships.

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7
Q

Social anxiety disorder is most similar to which personality disorder?

a. schizoid
b. avoidant
c. dependent
d. antisocial

A

b. avoidant

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8
Q

Carla has a difficult time maintaining friendships. She is generally suspicious of the motives of other people, often misinterpreting the behavior of her friends. Based on this information, the most likely personality disorder diagnosis for Carla would be

a. paranoid personality disorder
b. histrionic personality disorder
c. dependent personality disorder
d. avoidant personality disorder

A

a. paranoid personality disorder

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9
Q

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder lacks the __________ associated with OCD.

a. personality
b. relevance
c. obsessions and compulsive behavior
d. severity

A

c. obsessions and compulsive behavior

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10
Q

The most challenging client for a therapist is one diagnosed with __________ personality disorder.

a. borderline
b. obsessive-compulsive
c. schizotypal
d. avoidant

A

a. borderline

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11
Q

Which of the following age ranges fits the label “old-old”?

a. 65-74
b. 75-84
c. 85-94
d. 95+

A

b. 75-84

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12
Q

Compared with young people, people over the age of 60 tend to

a. experience more negative emotion.
b. experience more physiological reactivity in response to emotionally charged topics.
c. report more somatic symptoms.
d. experience less negative emotion.

A

d. experience less negative emotion.

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is an example of a time-of-measurement effect?

a. Because of the effects of aging on the brain, older adults do worse than younger adults on measures of “fluid” intelligence.
b. In a longitudinal study, many of the elderly subjects died before the follow-up data was collected.
c. Because exercise has become widely promoted in the media, many older adults are now exercising and thus are healthier than predicted by earlier measures of their physical well-being.
d. Today’s older adults are less likely to seek mental health services because when they were growing up, mental illness was stigmatized.

A

c. Because exercise has become widely promoted in the media, many older adults are now exercising and thus are healthier than predicted by earlier measures of their physical well-being.

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14
Q

The course of dementia may be all of the following EXCEPT

a. progressive.
b. static.
c. remitting.
d. all of the above.

A

d. all of the above.

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15
Q

As the hippies of the 1960s reach old age, research may find increased drug abuse among older adults. This increase would be a(n)

a. longitudinal effect.
b. cohort effect.
c. age effect.
d. time-of-measurement effect.

A

b. cohort effect.

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16
Q

Psychoactive drugs can be dangerous when used with the elderly because

a. they are not tested on the elderly, only on young people.
b. side effects are more common.
c. toxicity is more of a problem.
d. all of the above.

A

d. all of the above.

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17
Q

Impairment in which of the following areas is the most prominent symptom of dementia?

Select one:

a. abstract thinking
b. language
c. judgment
d. memory

A

d. memory

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18
Q

Alzheimer’s disease is the result of

a. tangled abnormal protein filaments called neurofibrillary tangles.
b. age-based slowing of all bodily processes.
c. side-effects of long-term medication, such as anti-Parkinson’s medication.
d. low social and intellectual stimulation.

A

a. tangled abnormal protein filaments called neurofibrillary tangles.

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19
Q

Dementia with Lewy bodies can be divided into the following subtypes:

a. occurring with Alzheimer’s or occurring without Alzheimer’s
b. occurring with Alzheimer’s or occurring with Parkinson’s
c. occurring with Parkinson’s and occurring without Parkinson’s
d. none of the above

A

c. occurring with Parkinson’s and occurring without Parkinson’s

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20
Q

Stress following surgery is a common precipitant for the onset of

a. hydrocephalus.
b. delirium.
c. Alzheimer’s disease.
d. Parkinson’s disease.

A

b. delirium.

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21
Q

The field of __________ focuses on the disorders of childhood within the context of life-span development.

Select one:

a. adult development
b. developmental psychology
c. developmental illness investigation
d. developmental psychopathology

A

d. developmental psychopathology

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22
Q

Abnormal behavior in children

a. is typically associated with a lack of control.
b. can be reliably determined across age groups.
c. is developmentally determined; that is, normal behavior at one age is abnormal at another.
d. is based upon destructiveness at any given age.

A

c. is developmentally determined; that is, normal behavior at one age is abnormal at another.

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23
Q

__________ disorders are characterized by more inward-focused experiences and behaviors.

a. Intrinsic
b. Internalizing
c. Intimate
d. Individualistic

A

b. Internalizing

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24
Q

As compared to developmentally normal levels of hyperactivity, diagnosable hyperactivity

a. impairs the child’s functioning.
b. negatively affects the child’s ability to mature appropriately.
c. is treatable only with medication.
d. all of the above.

A

a. impairs the child’s functioning.

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25
Q

Research on subtypes of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder indicates that those with both attentional and hyperactive problems

a. usually learn better than children with only attentional problems.
b. are more likely to have a behavioral, rather than a neurological, basis for their problems.
c. have equivalent outcomes to those with only attentional problems.
d. are more likely to be placed in special education classes than children with only attentional problems.

A

d. are more likely to be placed in special education classes than children with only attentional problems.

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26
Q

In recent molecular genetic studies, genes associated with the neurotransmitter __________ have been linked to ADHD.

a. serotonin
b. norepinephrine
c. dopamine
d. GABA

A

c. dopamine

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27
Q

Shannon, a junior in high school, was recently suspended from school for stealing money from ninth-graders, writing graffiti on the bathroom walls, and beating up another student. Shannon’s teacher reports that she has very few friends. The most likely diagnosis for Shannon would be

a. oppositional defiant disorder.
b. conduct disorder.
c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
d. antisocial personality disorder.

A

b. conduct disorder.

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28
Q

Sam is a 16-year-old adolescent who feels that he is unable to be an adult, despite the fact that he’s nearly 6 feet, 3 inches tall and has grown a beard. Although he led a “normal” childhood, when he was about 11, he began to get into frequent fights at school and has had trouble with the law ten times. According to Moffitt, Sam would be categorized as having

a. antisocial development disorder.
b. explosive personality disorder.
c. life-course persistent conduct problems.
d. adolescence-limited conduct problems.

A

d. adolescence-limited conduct problems.

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29
Q

Multisystemic therapy

a. is multifaceted in the sense that multiple approaches to family intervention are applied.
b. focuses solely on the conduct disordered child.
c. is based upon intervention in ecologically valid settings such as home, school or peer group.
d. is a combination of medication and individual therapy.

A

c. is based upon intervention in ecologically valid settings such as home, school or peer group.

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30
Q

Depressed children and their parents

a. have more negative interactions.
b. tend to avoid conflict.
c. have less supportive relationships, but are generally free of conflict.
d. frequently have over involved relationships.

A

a. have more negative interactions.

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31
Q

Which of the following is NOT a subcategory of the DSM-5’s paraphilias?

a. transvestic disorder
b. fetishistic disorder
c. exhibitionistic disorder
d. sexual arousal disorder

A

d. sexual arousal disorder

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32
Q

Which age group has the highest number of new HIV cases being diagnosed each year?

a. 15-19
b. 20-24
c. 25-29
d. 30-34

A

b. 20-24

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33
Q

Which of the following is NOT a phase in the sexual response cycle?

a. excitement
b. anticlimax
c. desire
d. resolution

A

b. anticlimax

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34
Q

Female orgasmic disorder is defined as

a. orgasm during masturbation only, if at all.
b. lack of orgasm and no desire.
c. lack of orgasm despite normal sexual excitement and stimulation.
d. lack of orgasm without direct clitoral stimulation.

A

c. lack of orgasm despite normal sexual excitement and stimulation.

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35
Q

Persistent or recurrent pain during sexual intercourse is called __________ in DSM-5.

a. genital pain disorder
b. sexual id pain disorder
c. genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
d. sexual intercourse pain disorder

A

c. genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder

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36
Q

In a study of the role of self-blame and erectile dysfunction, men who were given an internal explanation for their low arousal after watching erotic films

a. believed they had an erectile dysfunction.
b. reported and showed less physiological arousal.
c. reported and showed more physiological arousal.
d. reported more, but showed less physiological arousal.

A

b. reported and showed less physiological arousal.

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37
Q

In sex therapy, the sensate focus exercise involves

a. engaging in intercourse as often as possible to sensitize each other’s bodies.
b. caressing without engaging in intercourse.
c. nonsexual touching.
d. having sexual intercourse without taking on the spectator role.

A

b. caressing without engaging in intercourse.

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38
Q

Frotteuristic disorder involves

a. the sexually oriented touching of an unsuspecting person.
b. the exposing of oneself to others to achieve sexual stimulation.
c. incestuous behavior.
d. none of the above.

A

a. the sexually oriented touching of an unsuspecting person.

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39
Q

Rapists who enter therapy for their behavior do best when

a. the groups are highly confrontational.
b. they receive support from their family.
c. they begin dating again.
d. they complete the therapy program

A

d. they complete the therapy program

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40
Q

Bryant, as part of his treatment for committing incest, was trained to experience empathy for his victims. He was likely receiving

a. behavioral therapy.
b. cognitive therapy.
c. object-relations psychodynamic therapy.
d. family therapy.

A

b. cognitive therapy.

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41
Q

In the DSM-IV-TR, ____________ was viewed as a condition requiring further study, but in the DSM-V it has its own diagnostic category.

a. pica
b. binge eating disorder
c. obsessive eating disorder
d. rumination disorder

A

b. binge eating disorder

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42
Q

__________ refers to a loss of appetite, while __________ indicates that it is due to emotional reasons.

a. anorexia, bulimia
b. anorexia, nervosa
c. bulimia, anorexia
d. nervosa, anorexia

A

b. anorexia, nervosa

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43
Q

Cathy stopped eating meals over two months ago. Now she eats very little, and only when under some family pressure. She has lost over 22 pounds, and is now about 15% below normal body weight for her height. She probably has

a. bulimia nervosa
b. anorexia, restricting type
c. anorexia, binge-eating-purging type
d. binge eating disorder

A

b. anorexia, restricting type

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44
Q

People with anorexia nervosa are also frequently diagnosed with

a. depression
b. anxiety
c. substance abuse
d. all of the above.

A

d. all of the above.

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45
Q

As compared to anorexia nervosa, the diagnosis of bulimia nervosa is associated with

a. higher mortality rates
b. lower mortality rates
c. equal mortality rates
d. none of the above; data on mortality caused by eating disorders does not exist

A

b. lower mortality rates

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46
Q

Bulimia nervosa typically begins in:

a. late adulthood
b. early or middle adolescence
c. childhood
d. late adolescence or early adulthood

A

d. late adolescence or early adulthood

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47
Q

Genetic influences on eating disorders are

a. not important for anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa
b. not important for obesity
c. a minor factor
d. a substantial factor

A

d. a substantial factor

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48
Q

Studies of perfectionism in anorexia nervosa indicate that which of the following statements would be most typical of an anorexic?

a. “I can’t possibly be expected to meet the unrealistically high standards that my parents have set for me.”
b. “I’ve got to show my teacher that I can meet his goal for me of winning the debate championship.”
c. “I must complete all my work before I can enjoy a night out.”
d. “I can’t stand it when my boyfriend lets me down by not buying me flowers on special occasions.”

A

b. “I’ve got to show my teacher that I can meet his goal for me of winning the debate championship.”

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49
Q

Eating disorders are more common in women who are

Select one:

a. single
b. white
c. less educated
d. urban

A

b. white

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50
Q

The principal form of psychological treatment for anorexia nervosa is

a. social skills training
b. family therapy
c. reinforcing appropriate eating behaviors
d. providing a safe inpatient environment

A

b. family therapy

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51
Q

Exposure of a nonsmoker to secondhand smoke

a. is less harmful than smoking because of the lower levels of nicotine and tar in secondhand smoke.
b. has negative effects on the fetuses of pregnant nonsmokers but not on the women themselves.
c. can lead to lung damage.
d. has been shown to have far fewer negative effects than the media suggest.

A

c. can lead to lung damage.

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52
Q

Cirrhosis of the liver due to alcohol abuse is characterized by

a. liver cells becoming engorged with fat and protein.
b. an increased efficiency of alcohol absorption with a corresponding decrease in blood cell reproduction.
c. a decreased efficiency in absorption due to liver atrophy.
d. None of the above.

A

a. liver cells becoming engorged with fat and protein.

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53
Q

Long-term marijuana use may result in __________, even long after one stops using.

a. decreased attention span
b. short-term memory impairment
c. increased agitation
d. visual processing difficulties

A

b. short-term memory impairment

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54
Q

Mark is experiencing the following symptoms after taking a drug: he feels an initial rush of ecstasy, has great self-confidence and has lost all his worries and fears. At the same time, he is feeling drowsy and relaxed. Which of the following drugs is Mark most likely to have taken?

a. alcohol
b. heroin
c. marijuana
d. cocaine

A

b. heroin

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55
Q

Nearly all drugs, including alcohol, stimulate

a. serotonin systems in the brain.
b. sensation-seeking pathways.
c. dopamine systems in the brain.
d. GABA pathways.

A

c. dopamine systems in the brain.

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56
Q

Jolynn took a drug that caused the following symptoms: she felt wide-awake and friendly, and had no interest in lunch despite not having eaten since the night before. After taking a second dose of the drug, she became nervous and confused and developed a severe headache. Which of the following drugs did Jolynn probably take?

a. amphetamines
b. barbiturates
c. alcohol
d. marijuana

A

a. amphetamines

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57
Q

Although it has been shown that alcohol does not have a consistent effect upon stress, people continue to drink as a means to alleviate stress because

a. they expect it to help.
b. drinking is more socially acceptable than consuming other drugs.
c. others suggest drinking to unwind.
d. they are unaware of the severity of life stress they are experiencing.

A

a. they expect it to help.

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58
Q

Treatment for heroin addiction often involves

a. immediate abstinence.
b. antidepressants.
c. methadone.
d. ibuprofen.

A

c. methadone.

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59
Q

Which of the following have been used in treatment for smoking cessation?

a. antidepressants
b. acetaminophen
c. anxiolytics
d. stimulants

A

a. antidepressants

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60
Q

Contingency management is a treatment for alcohol dependency that involves

a. teaching people and those close to them to reinforce behaviors inconsistent with drinking.
b. teaching families of alcoholics to express their love only when the alcoholic is not drinking.
c. providing tokens when the alcoholic abstains from drinking for a certain amount of time.
d. going through a 12-step alcohol abstinence program.

A

a. teaching people and those close to them to reinforce behaviors inconsistent with drinking.

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61
Q

Symptoms of schizophrenia have been classified as

a. organized, positive, and negative.
b. positive, negative, and disorganized.
c. organized, disorganized, and negative.
d. positive, neutral, and negative.

A

b. positive, negative, and disorganized.

62
Q

Sensory experiences in the absence of any relevant stimulation from the environment are called

a. flights of thought.
b. hallucinations.
c. delusions.
d. ideas of reference.

A

b. hallucinations.

63
Q

Among those with schizophrenia who suffer from delusions, a large majority experience

a. hallucinations with the delusions.
b. delusions of persecution.
c. thought broadcast.
d. delusions of impulses imposed by others.

A

b. delusions of persecution.

64
Q

Which of the following are examples of negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

a. catatonic immobility, waxy flexibility
b. difficulty concentrating, low intelligence, poor memory
c. hallucinations and delusions
d. flat affect, lack of initiative

A

d. flat affect, lack of initiative

65
Q

When an individual with schizophrenia shows a blunted affect, that individual

a. does not experience emotions.
b. does not express emotions.
c. does not experience physiological arousal in emotionally intense situations.
d. all of the above

A

b. does not express emotions.

66
Q

When Marcia heard that her favorite cat had been hit by a car and killed, she giggled quietly. This is an example of

a. anhedonia.
b. inappropriate affect.
c. incoherence.
d. flat blunted affect.

A

b. inappropriate affect.

67
Q

According to DSM-5 symptoms of schizophrenia must be present for at least __________ in order to be diagnosed.

a. 1 month
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years

A

b. 6 months

68
Q

Howard had a psychotic episode following the death of his wife. He had hallucinations in which he would hear her speaking to him, telling him to kill himself. Howard developed elaborate delusions about his ability to communicate with his wife’s spirit. Howard recovered from this episode after one week. What DSM-5 diagnosis would fit Howard’s case?

a. schizophrenia
b. schizoaffective disorder
c. schizophreniform disorder
d. brief psychotic disorder

A

d. brief psychotic disorder

69
Q

Mr. Cook grew up in severely impoverished circumstances. His mother was unmarried and homeless, and Mr. Cook and his six siblings lived on the streets or in shelters for most of their childhood. They had little formal education or opportunity to make progress in the world. After 17 years of this life, Mr. Cook had his first psychotic episode while digging through a trashcan looking for food for his mother; he heard voices telling him to take off his clothes and eat them. Shortly thereafter, Mr. Cook was picked up by police, taken to a psychiatric hospital, and diagnosed as schizophrenic. Mr. Cook’s story fits the __________ theory of social class and schizophrenia.

a. high-risk
b. sociogenic
c. social-selection
d. schizophrenogenic

A

b. sociogenic

70
Q

A recent comprehensive randomized controlled clinical trial of medication for schizophrenia compared four second-generation drugs and one first-generation drug against one another. Which of the following was NOT a finding of this study?

a. Nearly three-quarters of the people stopped taking the medications before the 18 months of the study design had ended.
b. The second-generation drugs were not more effective than the older, first-generation drugs.
c. The second-generation drugs did not produce fewer unpleasant side effects.
d. The second-generation drugs were much more effective than the older, first-generation drugs.

A

d. The second-generation drugs were much more effective than the older, first-generation drugs.

71
Q

Dissociative identity disorder must involve

a. depersonalisation
b. at least 3 distinct personalities.
c. at least 2 distinct personalities.
d. selective amnesia

A

c. at least 2 distinct personalities.

72
Q

The prognosis for dissociative amnesia usually involves a __________ remission with __________ recovery.

a. gradual; complete
b. sudden; partial
c. gradual; partial
d. sudden; complete

A

d. sudden; complete

73
Q

Mildred has been struggling with feelings of chronic depersonalization and derealization for several years. If she has depersonalization/derealizaton disorder, she most likely

a. has experienced some abuse at an earlier age.
b. is not employed.
c. has impaired memory functioning.
d. has a well-developed sense of self, just feelings of not being present.

A

a. has experienced some abuse at an earlier age.

74
Q

Although different alters report an inability to share memories,

a. research suggests that role-playing is the best explanation of DID.
b. studies suggest that alters can share some implicit memories.
c. studies suggest that alters share more explicit memories, but they are just repressed.
d. studies indicate that most alters are completely fabricated.

A

b. studies suggest that alters can share some implicit memories.

75
Q

Research on the effectiveness of psychological treatment of dissociative identity disorder

a. supports the post-traumatic model of its etiology.
b. has been hampered by the publicity surrounding known cases.
c. is limited to observations of a few specialized studies that did not involve control groups..
d. shows that behavioral-cognitive therapy is moderately effective.

A

c. is limited to observations of a few specialized studies that did not involve control groups..

76
Q

Somatic symptom disorders all involve

a. physical symptoms.
b. dysphoric mood.
c. disruption of consciousness.
d. hallucinations.

A

a. physical symptoms.

77
Q

Unlike a malingerer, a person with factitious disorder

Select one:

a. has primarily psychological, not physical, symptoms.
b. has no clear motivation for adopting the symptoms.
c. does not exhibit “la belle indifference.”
d. has physical symptoms that are not under voluntary control.

A

b. has no clear motivation for adopting the symptoms.

78
Q

Pain and somatic symptoms can be increased by

a. anxiety.
b. depression.
c. hormones.
d. all of these factors can increase somatic symptoms.

A

d. all of these factors can increase somatic symptoms.

79
Q

Julie experienced inexplicable blindness. She visited several ophthalmologists, all of whom indicated there was no physical basis for her blindness. She most likely has

a. Illness Anxiety Disorder
b. Somatic Symptom Disorder.
c. Dissociative Disorder.
d. Conversion Disorder.

A

d. Conversion Disorder.

80
Q

Nina has illness anxiety disorder. She notices a red splotch on her face that seems to be getting larger each day. Nina will most likely believe that this symptom

a. is an insect bite.
b. will go away once she visits a doctor.
c. is due to a psychological problem.
d. is due to a serious underlying disease.

A

d. is due to a serious underlying disease.

81
Q

Which of the following is not considered a common symptom of depression?

a. Psychomotor retardation or agitation
b. Sleeping too much or too little
c. Feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt
d. All of the above are common symptoms of depression

A

d. All of the above are common symptoms of depression

82
Q

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder involves

a. Children.
b. Adolescents.
c. Adults.
d. Children and adolescents.

A

d. Children and adolescents.

83
Q

Jacqueline has been consistently depressed for the past three years. Based on this information, the best diagnosis for Jacqueline would be

a. Persistent depressive disorder.
b. Cyclothymic disorder.
c. Bipolar disorder.
d. Disruptive mood regulation disorder.

A

a. Persistent depressive disorder.

84
Q

Which of the following factors has NOT been proposed as an explanation for the gender difference in depression?

a. Girls are more likely to be exposed to sexual abuse than boys.
b. Women tend to be more creative than men.
c. Women are more likely to be exposed to chronic stressors in adulthood.
d. Social roles promote emotion-focused coping among women.

A

b. Women tend to be more creative than men.

85
Q

Flight of ideas refers to

a. delusional thinking.
b. suicidal thinking.
c. the thinking of a person with dementia.
d. rapid shifts in topics while speaking.

A

d. rapid shifts in topics while speaking.

86
Q

To be diagnosed with bipolar I disorder, a person

a. must be currently experiencing manic symptoms.
b. must have experienced hypomanic symptoms as well as depressive symptoms at some point in their lifetime.
c. must have had at least one episode of mania at some point in their lifetime.
d. must have experienced at least one depressive episode.

A

c. must have had at least one episode of mania at some point in their lifetime.

87
Q

Which of the following treatments for seasonal affective disorder is now considered a first-line recommendation in the APA Treatment Guidelines for Depression?

a. Hypnosis
b. Regular bright light exposure
c. Psychodynamic therapy
d. Traveling to a warmer climate during winter months

A

b. Regular bright light exposure

88
Q

Pleasure, motivation, and energy decrease in depression and increase in mania. This suggests neurological changes in the

a. amygdala.
b. second messengers.
c. HPA axis.
d. reward system.

A

d. reward system.

89
Q

Stressful life events

a. are only related to the first episode of depression.
b. are important in triggering episodes of depression.
c. play little role in the onset of depressive episodes.
d. mediate the relationship between genetics and environment.

A

b. are important in triggering episodes of depression.

90
Q

The latest findings regarding the efficacy of medication versus psychotherapy in the treatment of depression conclude that

a. medication is superior to psychotherapy in the long term.
b. findings are inconsistent, thus more research is needed in this area.
c. psychotherapy works better than medication in the short term.
d. none of the above.

A

b. findings are inconsistent, thus more research is needed in this area.

91
Q

While many difficulties might get a person thinking about suicide, __________ seems to predict the switch from suicidal thoughts to suicidal actions.

a. impulsivity.
b. mania.
c. drug use.
d. helplessness.

A

a. impulsivity.

92
Q

Non-suicidal self-injury is described in section III of the DSM-5 in order to

a. focus more attention on this issue
b. reduce the incidence of this problematic behaviour
c. make clear that it is not diagnosable
d. distinguish it from serious suicidal intent

A

a. focus more attention on this issue

93
Q

A disorder that involves repetitive thoughts and behaviours that are so extreme as to interfere with everyday life is called:

a. generalized anxiety disorder.
b. post traumatic stress disorder.
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
d. social phobic disorder.

A

c. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

94
Q

One way in which the DSM-5 differs from the earlier DSM-IV-TR is that the DSM-5

a. makes OCD and trauma-related disorders part of the anxiety disorders category.
b. makes OCD and trauma-related disorders their own catagory.
c. eliminates OCD and trauma-related disorders.
d. none of the above.

A

b. makes OCD and trauma-related disorders their own catagory.

95
Q

Oscar feels the urge to turn a light switch on and off 12 times before leaving a room. This would be referred to as

a. an irrational belief.
b. generalized anxiety.
c. an obsession.
d. a compulsion.

A

d. a compulsion.

96
Q

People who compulsively check their appearance and spend countless hours staring at themselves in the mirror will likely be diagnosed as having

a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
b. body dysmorphic disorder
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. specific phobia

A

b. body dysmorphic disorder

97
Q

Which of the following symptoms is not part of the diagnosis of Hoarding Disorder?

a. Perceived flaw or flaws in the appearance of the home or workplace.
b. Difficulty discarding items regardless of their value.
c. Compromise in the usefulness of living spaces due to the accumulation of possessions.
d. Distress when thinking about discarding useless items.

A

a. Perceived flaw or flaws in the appearance of the home or workplace.

98
Q

A strictly behavioural therapist treating Steve for contamination fear due to OCD would use which of the following interventions?

a. have Steve meditate daily.
b. have Steve challenge the idea that it is necessary to be clean.
c. have Steve purposely get dirty.
d. have Steve say ‘stop’ to himself quietly when he feels he must wash.

A

c. have Steve purposely get dirty.

99
Q

Iris was in an automobile accident. She goes to a psychologist one week after the accident. If she is experiencing nightmares, flashbacks, headache, and is ruminating about the accident, she will likely receive which diagnosis?

a. acute stress disorder
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. posttraumatic stress disorder
d. anxiety disorder not otherwise specified

A

a. acute stress disorder

100
Q

Extreme response to a severe stressor that includes increased anxiety, avoidance of stimuli associate with an event, and symptoms of increase arousal are symptoms of which disorder?

a. OCD
b. PTSD
c. BDD
d. MDD

A

b. PTSD

101
Q

DSM-5 has symptoms for PTSD divided into __________ categories.

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

A

b. 4

102
Q

Acute stress disorder differs from PTSD in that the symptoms

a. are more severe.
b. last longer.
c. last only a short period of time.
d. are hard to define.

A

c. last only a short period of time.

103
Q

The difference between anxiety and fear is that

a. anxiety is immediate and fear is anticipated.
b. anxiety is always adaptive, whereas fear is not.
c. anxiety is a response to immediate danger, while fear is defined as apprehension over an anticipated problem.
d. anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, while fear is defined as a response to immediate danger.

A

d. anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, while fear is defined as a response to immediate danger.

104
Q

Edna does not currently have panic disorder. However, she cannot leave her house and had required home sessions when she began therapy. It is likely that

a. Edna does not have agoraphobia.
b. Edna has agoraphobia, but does not meet criteria for panic disorder.
c. Edna has more severe panic but is able to cope with the symptoms.
d. Edna is faking her symptoms.

A

b. Edna has agoraphobia, but does not meet criteria for panic disorder.

105
Q

The worries of people with GAD

a. are generally limited to physiological concerns.
b. are similar to worries of most people, just more excessive.
c. typically are driven by another Axis-I disorder.
d. all of the above.

A

b. are similar to worries of most people, just more excessive.

106
Q

More than __________ of people with one anxiety disorder meet the criteria for another anxiety disorder at some point in their lifetime.

a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%

A

b. 50%

107
Q

Individuals with anxiety disorders

a. have an overactive fear circuit.
b. have an underactive amygdala.
c. have weak fear circuits.
d. have fear circuits that do not activate correctly when they are fearful or anxious

A

a. have an overactive fear circuit.

108
Q

Mowrer’s two-factor model of anxiety disorders involves classical conditioning and

a. imitation.
b. operant conditioning.
c. observation.
d. none of the above.
Check

A

b. operant conditioning.

109
Q

Dana’s baby, Sophie, participated in a study that indicated that Sophie had high levels of behavioral inhibition. Compared with babies who demonstrated low levels of behavioral inhibition, Sophie is likely to develop

a. OCD.
b. agoraphobia.
c. panic disorder.
d. social anxiety disorder

A

d. social anxiety disorder

110
Q

Which of the following puts people at greater risk for developing anxiety disorders?

a. having low levels of neuroticism.
b. having a comorbid diagnosis of schizophrenia.
c. having a perception that they have no control over their environment.
d. having low levels of activity in the fear circuit.

A

c. having a perception that they have no control over their environment.

111
Q

Based on research of effective treatments for social anxiety disorder, a therapist should consider

a. systematic desensitization.
b. cognitive therapy only.
c. exposure only.
d. exposure and cognitive therapy.

A

d. exposure and cognitive therapy.

112
Q

In-vivo exposure to feared objects simulates

a. memories of trauma.
b. anxiety developed in the womb.
c. social anxiety disorder.
d. real life.

A

d. real life.

113
Q

You decide that you wish to use the MMPI to form a scale within the instrument to distinguish potential professional wrestlers from those without the potential to be wrestlers. Using the same method as that used to develop the MMPI, you would

a. identify items that distinguish pro wrestlers from non-wrestlers.
b. find all the items that wrestlers answered as true regarding themselves.
c. look for consistency among items endorsed by wrestlers as true.
d. identify items that were about wrestling.

A

a. identify items that distinguish pro wrestlers from non-wrestlers.

114
Q

Which of the following are generated by theories?

a. case material
b. hypotheses
c. statistical significance
d. none of the above

A

b. hypotheses

115
Q

Which research method would be most useful in generating hypotheses about the cause of a newly discovered, rare form of abnormality?

a. case study
b. experimental design
c. correlational method
d. single-subject ABAB design

A

a. case study

116
Q

Dr. Bradley has been conducting a case study of Brenda P., a woman with dissociative identity disorder. Which of the following statements by Dr. Bradley is a misuse of the case study method?

a. “Brenda, a woman with dissociative identity disorder, was sexually abused as a child. Therefore, all individuals with multiple personality disorder must have been abuse victims.”
b. “Since Brenda was not sexually abused, the theory that all dissociation is caused by sexual abuse may not be universally true.”
c. “Brenda was sexually molested as a child. This leads me to hypothesize that perhaps other individuals with dissociative identity disorder were molested as children.”
d. All of the above are examples of inappropriate uses of the case study.

A

a. “Brenda, a woman with dissociative identity disorder, was sexually abused as a child. Therefore, all individuals with multiple personality disorder must have been abuse victims.”

117
Q

Professor Jones has observed a correlation between students sitting in the front of the room and getting better grades in her classes. In order to conduct an “experiment” on this, Professor Jones could

a. obtain similar data from other professors and classes.
b. collect data on student study habits.
c. adjust her data for overall grade point average.
d. assign students randomly to seats.

A

d. assign students randomly to seats.

118
Q

If the correlation between two variables is zero, this means that

a. there is no relationship between them.
b. they are perfectly related.
c. they are inversely related.
d. higher scores on one are associated with higher scores on the other.

A

a. there is no relationship between them.

119
Q

The standard for suggesting that a result is statistically significant is if the chances are less than __________ in 100 that it occurred by chance.

a. 5
b. .05
c. 25
d. 10

A

a. 5

120
Q

Directionality is best addressed by

a. using a longitudinal design.
b. using a correlational design.
c. using a control group.
d. using a case study.

A

a. using a longitudinal design.

121
Q

Epidemiology is the study of

a. the development of disorders over the life span.
b. mental disorders in other cultures.
c. the rates and correlates of disorders in a population.
d. unique cases or unusual disorders.

A

c. the rates and correlates of disorders in a population.

122
Q

In a study where participants are assigned to one of two treatment groups (medication versus cognitive therapy), the type of treatment received is the

a. dependent variable.
b. classificatory variable.
c. independent variable.
d. third variable.

A

c. independent variable.

123
Q

Diagnostic systems allow clinicians and scientists to:

a. conduct psychotherapy.
b. communicate accurately with one another about cases and research.
c. understand the role of cultural bias.
d. all of the above.

A

b. communicate accurately with one another about cases and research.

124
Q

To test the impact of therapy on depression, a researcher tells a random half of his subjects (falsely) that they failed an exam. He then conducts one hour of therapy with the “failure” subjects. One week later the subjects given false feedback are no more depressed than the control group, so the researcher concludes the treatment was effective. This would be described as which type of research?

a. convenience sampling
b. an analogue study
c. a longitudinal design
d. a correlational design

A

b. an analogue study

125
Q

One would expect items on a depression assessment measure to have

a. interrater reliability.
b. alternate-form reliability.
c. internal consistency reliability.
d. external reliability.

A

c. internal consistency reliability.

126
Q

Jim was given an intelligence test in March and re-administered the same test one year later. His score both times was the same. This indicates that the intelligence test has

a. high test-retest reliability.
b. high interrater agreement.
c. internal consistency.
d. none of the above.

A

a. high test-retest reliability.

127
Q

The highest priority of the DSM-5 is that it

a. shorter than the DSM-IV-TR.
b. is reliable.
c. is useful to clinicians.
d. bilingual.

A

c. is useful to clinicians.

128
Q

There were ___ axes in the DSM-IV-TR while ___ are used in the DSM-5

a. 5, 3
b. 5, 2
c. 5, 0
d. 3, 2

A

c. 5, 0

129
Q

Which of the following is a risk of having too many diagnoses?

a. The risk of fitting into too many diagnostic categories.
b. Lack of reliability between diagnostic clinicians.
c. Externalization of diagnoses by clients.
d. All of these are risks of having too many diagnoses.

A

d. All of these are risks of having too many diagnoses.

130
Q

The Life Events and Difficulties Schedule (LEDS) has led researchers to conclude that

a. A given life event has the same impact across individuals.
b. Life events are robust predictors of several psychological and medical symptoms.
c. The correlation between life events and stress is low.
d. Stress is mediated by one’s childhood experiences.
Check

A

b. Life events are robust predictors of several psychological and medical symptoms.

131
Q

Which of the following is a structured interview?

a. Rorschach
b. SRRS
c. ADE
d. SCID

A

d. SCID

132
Q

Which of the following is NOT a measure of psychological stress?

a. Psychiatric Epidemiological Research Interview Life Events Scale
b. List of Threatening Experiences
c. Life Events and Difficulties Schedule
d. Thematic Apperception Test

A

d. Thematic Apperception Test

133
Q

The ‘Malleus Maleficarum’ was a

A. witch hunt manual.
B. ceremonial guide used by witches.
C. treatment manual used in early mental hospitals.
D. Freudian perspective on mental illness.

A

A. witch hunt manual.

134
Q

The best definition of “mental disorder” takes all of the following into account EXCEPT:

a. Violation of social norms
b. Personal distress
c. Syndromes
d. Disability

A

c. Syndromes

135
Q

The psychoanalytic theory rests upon the assumption that psychopathology is the result of

a. incomplete superego development.
b. unconscious conflicts.
c. over control of the pleasure principle.
d. ego defense mechanisms.

A

b. unconscious conflicts.

136
Q

The ego operates according to the __________ principle.

a. pleasure
b. Oedipal
c. reality
d. Electra

A

c. reality

137
Q

The basic energy source for the psyche is the

a. superego.
b. ego.
c. Oedipus complex.
d. id.

A

d. id.

138
Q

Adler developed a theory of psychoanalytic thought oriented towards

Select one:

a. psychoticism.
b. doing things for the social good.
c. overt behavior change.
d. all of the above.

A

b. doing things for the social good.

139
Q

Fiona faints when her doctor begins to draw blood. What is the unconditioned response?

a. blood flow
b. blood
c. the needle
d. fainting

A

d. fainting

140
Q

When discussing heritability it is important to keep in mind all of the following EXCEPT:

a. the higher the heritability value, the greater the heritability.
b. heritability is relevant for large populations.
c. heritability estimates range from 0.0 to 1.0.
d. heritability is relevant for a particular individual.

A

d. heritability is relevant for a particular individual.

141
Q

A phenotype is illustrated by which of the following?

a. Lisa’s chromosomes.
b. Lisa’s mother’s hair colour
c. Lisa’s DNA structure.
d. Lisa’s eye colour.

A

d. Lisa’s eye colour.

142
Q

A CNV is an abnormal copy of one or more sections of DNA. They occur due to all of the following EXCEPT:

a. mutation of copies
b. addition of copies
c. deletion of copies
d. multiplication of copies

A

d. multiplication of copies

143
Q

The study of the pups born to high LG-ABN mothers or low LG-ABN mothers and raised by high LG-ABN mothers or low LG-ABN mothers provided support for the idea that

a. adoption studies are a useful method for understanding genetic markers.
b. LG-ABN behaviours in mothers are not related to the expression of certain genes in pups.
c. environments do not play as important a role as genetics.
d. environments influence the expression of genes in psychopathology.

A

d. environments influence the expression of genes in psychopathology.

144
Q

Nick was born with a predisposition for aggression and impulsivity that has resulted in frequent trouble with the law. As a result of time spent in jail, Nick has developed alcohol dependence. This is an example of

a. gene-environment interaction.
b. linkage analysis.
c. reciprocal gene-environment interaction.
d. epigenetics.

A

c. reciprocal gene-environment interaction.

145
Q

Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that

a. let neurons adjust their sensitivity to new inputs.
b. adjust the speed of neural transmissions.
c. allow nerve impulses to reach the next neuron.
d. repair neurons.

A

c. allow nerve impulses to reach the next neuron.

146
Q

The autonomic nervous system is divided into two parts:

a. the somatic nervous system and the involuntary nervous system.
b. the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
c. the involuntary nervous system and the sympathetic nervous system.
d. the sympathetic nervous system and the somatic nervous system.

A

b. the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.

147
Q

Fred has schizophrenia and is taking a medication that works by blocking dopamine receptors. Fred is most likely taking which kind of drug?

a. an antagonist
b. an antidepressant
c. an agonist
d. a second messenger

A

a. an antagonist

148
Q

The gray matter in the brain is made up of

Select one:

a. meninges.
b. fissures.
c. sulci.
d. neurons.

A

d. neurons.

149
Q

The thalamus is the part of the brain which

a. recognizes spatial relations.
b. regulates body temperature and blood pressure.
c. controls movement.
d. relays sensory pathways for hearing and vision.

A

d. relays sensory pathways for hearing and vision.

150
Q

Jane is afraid of elevators. Her psychologist, Dr. Schwartz, teaches her how to relax deeply. Then Dr. Schwartz helps her develop a list of situations with elevators that vary in how frightening or anxiety- producing they are. Finally, while relaxed, Jane imagines the series of situations with elevators. Eventually Jane is able to tolerate imagining increasingly more difficult situations in elevators such as riding an elevator 100 floors alone. By the end of the 16th therapy session, Jane states that her fear of elevators has disappeared. Dr. Schwartz used

a. brief psychodynamic therapy.
b. token economy.
c. systematic desensitization.
d. ego analysis.

A

c. systematic desensitization.

151
Q

Ted is a “workaholic;” he works 15 hours a day and never has time to spend with his family or on things he enjoys. Which of the following is a cognitive explanation of Ted’s behavior?

a. Ted is imitating the behavior of his hard-working father.
b. Ted believes he can only be a good person if he excels in everything he does.
c. Ted lacks the assertiveness to stand up to his boss’ demands.
d. Ted is actually afraid of getting close to others.

A

b. Ted believes he can only be a good person if he excels in everything he does.

152
Q

The diathesis-stress paradigm emphasizes that psychopathology results from

a. physiology and biochemistry.
b. predisposition and the unconscious.
c. predisposition and environmental disturbances.
d. attachment and gestalt problems.

A

c. predisposition and environmental disturbances.

175.302 Abnormal and Therapeutic Psychology (2 decks)

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