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Multi Engine Test Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VSO
A

VSO 55 Stall speed in landing configuration Bottom of White Arc

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2
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VMC
A

VMC 56 Minimum controllable airspeed Red Line

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3
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VS
A

VS 57 Stall speed with zero flaps Bottom of Green Arc

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4
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VR
A

VR 75 Rotation speed (start rotation)

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5
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VX
A

VX 82 Best angle of climb

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6
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VXSE
A

VXSE 82 Best angle of climb single-engine

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7
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VSSE
A

VSSE 82 Safe speed for intentional engine failure

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8
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VY
A

VY 88 Best rate of climb

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9
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VYSE
A

VYSE 88 Best rate of climb single-engine Blue Line

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10
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VFE
A

VFE 111 Maximum flap extension speed Top of White Arc

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11
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VLO (Up)
A

VLO (Up) 109 Maximum gear retraction speed

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12
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VLO (Down)
A

VLO (Down) 140 Maximum gear extension speed

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13
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VLE
A

VLE 140 Maximum speed with gear extended

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14
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VNO
A

VNO 169 Max Structural Cruising Speed Top of Green Arc

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15
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VNE
A

VNE 202 Never exceed speed Red Line

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16
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VA 3800 pounds
A

VA 135 Maneuvering speed at 3800 pounds

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17
Q
  1. Recite the V speeds. VA 2700 pounds
A

VA 112 Maneuvering speed at 2700 pounds

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18
Q
  1. What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind component?
A

17 KIAS

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19
Q
  1. Describe the Seminole PA-44-180 engine. A. How many cylinders?
A

4

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20
Q
  1. B. Who is the manufacturer?
A

Lycoming

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21
Q
  1. C. What is the horsepower rating?
A

180

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22
Q
  1. D. Does it have fuel injectors or a carburetor?
A

carbureted

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23
Q
  1. E. Is the engine turbo-charged or normally aspirated?
A

normally aspirated (no turbo or supercharging)

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24
Q
  1. F. Why is the right engine labeled LO-360?
A

The right engine is designated as an LO-360 due to the fact that it rotates to the left

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25
Q
  1. G. How are the cylinders arranged?
A

horizontally opposed (pistons oppose each other)

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26
Q
  1. H. How is ignition provided?
A

Engine ignition is provided through the use of engine-driven magnetos which are independent of the aircraft’s electrical system and each other.

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27
Q
  1. I. What are the minimum and maximum oil capacities in the 1979 and 2000 model Seminoles?
A

Oil Capacity 1979 = 4 to 6 Quarts, ATP Minimum 4.5 Quarts. 2000 = 6 to 8 Quarts, ATP Minimum 6.5 Quarts

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28
Q
  1. Describe the propeller system. A. Who makes the propellers?
A

Hartzell

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29
Q
  1. B. What does oil pressure do to the propeller?
A

When the blue propeller control handle is moved forward, oil pressure, regulated by a propeller governor, drives a piston, which moves the blades to a low pitch–high RPM (unfeathered) position. When the blue propeller control handle is moved aft, oil pressure is reduced by the propeller governor.

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30
Q
  1. C. Which lever manipulates oil pressure to the propeller?
A

blue propeller control handle

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31
Q
  1. D. Which unit regulates oil pressure to the propeller?
A

regulated by a propeller governor

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32
Q
  1. E. What is the function of the nitrogen cylinder?
A

a nitrogen-charged cylinder, spring, and centrifugal counterweights to drive the blades to a high pitch–low RPM (feathered) position.

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33
Q
  1. F. What is the purpose of the spring in the prop dome?
A

a nitrogen-charged cylinder, spring, and centrifugal counterweights to drive the blades to a high pitch–low RPM (feathered) position.

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34
Q
  1. G. Define constant speed.
A

Constant speed propeller –changes in power setting (manifold pressure) and flight attitude will not cause a change in RPM.

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35
Q
  1. H. What unit adjusts the propeller to maintain a constant RPM and how does it do it?
A

After RPM setting is selected with the blue propeller control handles, the propeller governor will automatically vary oil pressure inside the propeller hub to change the propeller blade pitch in order to maintain a constant engine RPM.

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36
Q
  1. I. Define full feathering.
A

When the propeller blades are in alignment with the relative wind, they are feathered. Feathered propeller blades reduce the drag caused by the blade area exposed to the relative wind.

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37
Q
  1. J. Will the propeller always feather?
A

The Seminole is equipped with a centrifugal stop pin that prevents propeller feathering below 950 RPM.

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38
Q
  1. K. What are centrifugal stop pins?
A

The Seminole is equipped with a centrifugal stop pin that prevents propeller feathering below 950 RPM.

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39
Q
  1. L. What is the true purpose of the centrifugal stop pins?
A

The purpose of this is to allow the propeller blades to remain in a low pitch upon engine shutdown. This will prevent excessive loads on the engine starter during the next engine start.

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40
Q
  1. What is the correct action for a propeller overspeed?
A

If propeller overspeed should occur, retard the throttle. The propeller control should be moved to full “DECREASE RPM” and then set if any control is available. Airspeed should be reduced and throttle used to maintain a maximum of 2700 RPM.

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41
Q
  1. Describe the electrical system
A

The Seminole is equipped with a 14-volt electrical system which utilizes pushpull type circuit breakers; a 12-volt, lead-acid battery; and two 70-amp, enginedriven alternators. Voltage regulators maintain constant 14-volt output from each alternator at varying engine RPMs, effectively sharing the electrical load.

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42
Q
  1. What are the indications of a failed alternator?
A

Loss of one alternator is indicated by an annunciator light and a zero indication on the loadmeter. The remaining alternator will normally provide adequate electrical power.

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43
Q
  1. Will the engines continue to run with the alternator and battery master switches turned off?
A

engine-driven magnetos which are independent of the aircraft’s electrical system and each other.

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44
Q
  1. Describe the vacuum system. A. Which instruments are vacuum operated?
A

The vacuum system operates the attitude gyro and, on aircraft without slaving mechanisms installed, the HSI.

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45
Q
  1. B. What are the normal vacuum operating limits?
A

Suction limits are 4.8 to 5.2 inches of mercury at 2000 RPM.

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46
Q
  1. C. How many vacuum pumps does the PA-44 have?
A

The Seminole is equipped with two engine-driven vacuum pumps.

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47
Q
  1. D. What indications would occur in the event of a vacuum pump failure?
A

The failure of a vacuum pump is indicated by an annunciator panel light and a red, pump inoperative indicator on the vacuum gauge.

48
Q
  1. Describe the stall warning system
A

The Seminole is equipped with two electric stall detectors located on the left wing. The inboard detector provides stall warning at flaps 25˚ or 40˚ and the outboard at flaps 0˚ or 10˚. The purpose of the two tabs is to provide adequate stall warning at varied angles of attack. The electric stall tabs are deactivated on the ground through the use of the squat switch on the left main landing gear.

49
Q
  1. Describe the fuel system.
A

The Seminole, which uses 100 low lead avgas (blue), is equipped with two 55-gallon bladder nacelle tanks. One gallon is unusable in each tank. There are two engine-driven and two electrically driven fuel pumps. The electric fuel pumps are used for engine start, takeoff, landing, and fuel selector changes.

50
Q
  1. Explain how to cross feed fuel.
A

Crossfeed operation is limited to straight and level flight only. The correct procedure for crossfeed operations to supply the left engine with fuel from the right tank is: 1. Left engine electric boost pump on. 2. Left fuel selector selected to “X-FEED.” 3. Check left fuel pressure. 4. Left engine electric boost pump off. 5. Check fuel pressure.

51
Q
  1. Describe the landing gear system. A. How is the landing gear actuated? Describe the pump.
A

The Seminole is equipped with hydraulically actuated, fully retractable, tricycletype landing gear. Hydraulic pressure for gear operation is provided by an electrically powered, reversible hydraulic pump.

52
Q
  1. B. What keeps the gear in the up position?
A

The gear is held in the up position solely by hydraulic pressure.

53
Q
  1. C. What keeps the gear in the down position?
A

Springs assist in gear extension and in locking the gear in the down position. After the gear is down and the downlock hooks engage, springs maintain force on each hook to keep it locked until it is released by applying hydraulic pressure with the gear selector.

54
Q
  1. E. In what three situations will the landing gear horn activate?
A

A gear warning system is activated under any of the following conditions: 1. The gear is not locked down with the throttle lever positioned below approximately 15” manifold pressure (MP) on one or both engines. 2. The gear is not locked down with wing flaps selected to 25˚ or 40˚. 3. The gear handle is in the up position on the ground (tested only by authorized maintenance personnel).

55
Q
  1. F. What unit will not allow the gear to be retracted on the ground?
A

Gear retraction on the ground is prevented by a squat switch located on the left main landing gear. On the ground, the switch is open, preventing electrical current from reaching the hydraulic pump. Once airborne, the strut becomes fully extended, closing the switch that allows current to reach the hydraulic pump.

56
Q
  1. G. What is the procedure to extend the gear manually (Emergency Gear Extension)?
A

After placing the gear selector in the down position, pulling the red emergency gear extension knob releases the hydraulic pressure which is holding the gear in the up position and allows the gear to free-fall down.

57
Q
  1. H. What airspeed is of importance during manual gear extension?
A

Emergency gear extension is limited to a maximum of 100 KIAS due to air-load on the nose gear

58
Q
  1. I. Are the brake and the landing gear hydraulics interconnected?
A

The hydraulic system for the brakes is independent of that for the landing gear.

59
Q
  1. J. If you lose gear hydraulics, will you still have brakes?
60
Q
  1. K. What indicates that the gear is in transit and the hydraulic pump is activated?
A

The positive gear down indication is 3 green lights.

61
Q
  1. What type of braking system is used by the Seminole? Where is the brake fluid serviced?
A

The Seminole is equipped with hydraulically actuated disk brakes on the main landing gear wheels. Braking is accomplished by depressing the tops of the rudder pedals. The hydraulic system for the brakes is independent of that for the landing gear. The brake fluid reservoir for servicing is located in the nose cone.

62
Q
  1. What type of flaps does the Seminole have? A. What are the flap settings on the Seminole?
A

The Seminole is equipped with a manual flap system. The flaps are extended with a lever located between the two pilot seats. Flap settings are 0˚, 10˚, 25˚ and 40˚ and are spring-loaded to return to the 0˚ position.

63
Q
  1. What are the maximum taxi, takeoff, and landing weights?
A

Max Ramp Weight = 3,816 lbs. Max Takeoff/Landing Weight: =3,800 lbs.

64
Q
  1. What is the maximum baggage capacity?
A

Max Baggage Weight =200 lbs.

65
Q
  1. Define VSSE.
A

VSSE 82 Safe speed for intentional engine failure

66
Q
  1. Who determines VMC for a particular aircraft?
A

Piper determined VMC for the Seminole at 1,500’ MSL with a weight of 2,730 lbs. and 5˚ bank into the operating engine. The test results were then computed to sea level conditions.

67
Q
  1. Define VMC
A

VMC is the minimum airspeed at which directional control can be maintained with the critical engine inoperative. VMC speed is marked on the airspeed indicator by a red radial line. Aircraft manufacturers determine VMC speed based on conditions set by the FAA under FAR §23.149:

68
Q
  1. Why is an aft CG used in determining VMC?
A

As the center of gravity moves forward, the moment arm between the rudder and the CG is lengthened, increasing the leverage of the rudder. This increased leverage increases the rudder’s effectiveness and results in a lower VMC speed.

69
Q
  1. What are the factors in determining VMC?
A

S - Standard day conditions. (increases Vmc, bad)
M - Max power on operational engine. (increases Vmc, bad)
A - Aft legal C.G. (increases Vmc, bad)
C - Critical engine prop windmilling. (increases Vmc, bad)
F - Flaps up, Gear up. (increases Vmc, bad)
U - Up to 5 degrees of bank into operating engine. (decreases Vmc, GOOD)
M - Most unfavorable weight: light. (increases Vmc, bad)

70
Q
  1. Define critical engine and list the factors used to determine it.
A

“The critical engine is the engine that, when it fails, most adversely affects the performance and handling qualities of the airplane. P P-Factor
A Accelerated Slipstream
S Spiraling Slipstream
T Torque”

71
Q
  1. What causes an aircraft to sideslip with the loss of an engine, and what action is required to correct this?
A

When an engine failure occurs, thrust from the operating engine yaws the aircraft. The solution to maintaining aircraft heading and reducing drag to improve performance is the Zero Sideslip Condition.

72
Q
  1. How much climb performance is lost when an engine fails?
A

When a multi-engine airplane loses an engine, the airplane loses 50% of its available power. This power loss results in a loss of approximately 80% of the aircraft’s excess power and climb performance.

73
Q
  1. What aircraft equipment checks are required under FAR part 91?
A

ATP’s aircraft do not operate under the guidance of a minimum equipment list (MEL), and instead operate in accordance with the following FAR 91.213 subpart.

74
Q
  1. A. Define absolute service ceiling.
A

Single-engine absolute ceiling is the maximum density altitude that an aircraft can attain or maintain with the critical engine inoperative. VYSE and VXSE are equal at this altitude. The aircraft drifts down to this altitude when an engine fails.

75
Q
  1. B. Define single-engine service ceiling.
A

Single-engine service ceiling is the maximum density altitude at which the single-engine best rate of climb airspeed (VYSE) will produce a 50 FPM rate of climb with the critical engine inoperative.

76
Q
  1. What documents are required to be on the aircraft?
A

AROW. documents that must be carried aboard an airplane. airworthiness certificate, registration certificate, operating limitations, and weight and balance information.

77
Q
  1. A. Explain lost communications procedures. VFR
A

If in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered, squawk 7600, remain VFR and land as soon as practicable.

78
Q
  1. B. Explain lost communications procedures. IFR
A

If in IFR conditions, squawk 7600 and Fly: Route (First that applies.) Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed Altitude (Whichever is highest until descent is required for landing.) Minimum IFR Altitude, Expected, Assigned

79
Q
  1. Will the propeller feather below 950 RPM. Why or why not?
A

Regardless of the Prop Lever position, if oil pressure is lost, the propeller will feather when the RPM is above 950 RPM. Typically, RPM will be above 950 in flight and on takeoff roll and landing roll due to airflow over the propeller.

80
Q
  1. Explain the pitot static system. A. Does the PA-44 have an alternate static source? If so, how is it activated and what actions are necessary to acquire the most accurate reading?
A

An alternate static source is located inside the cabin under the left side of the instrument panel for use in the event of static port blockage. When using the alternate static source, the storm window and cabin vents must be closed, and the heater and defroster must be turned on. This will reduce the pressure differential between the cockpit and the atmosphere, reducing pitot static error.

81
Q
  1. B. What instruments are pitot static?
A

The pitot static instruments are the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and VSI.

82
Q
  1. C. Where is the pitot static port located?
A

The heated pitot mast (combined pitot tube and static port) is located underneath the left wing.

83
Q
  1. How do you prevent a heater overheat?
A

To prevent activation of the overheat switch upon normal heater shutdown during ground operation, turn the three-position switch to “FAN” for two minutes with the air intake lever in the open position before turning the switch off. During flight, leave the air intake open for a minimum of 15 seconds after turning the switch to off.

84
Q
  1. What is the fuel capacity? How many gallons are unusable?
A

110 Gallons, 108 Useable, 54 useable per tank

85
Q
  1. What grade fuel is to be used in the PA-44?
A

100 low lead avgas (blue)

86
Q
  1. How many fuel pumps are on the aircraft?
A

4, There are two engine-driven and two electrically driven fuel pumps.

87
Q
  1. When are the electric fuel pumps to be used?
A

The electric fuel pumps are used for engine start, takeoff, landing, and fuel selector changes.

88
Q
  1. What are the various positions on the fuel selector control?
A

The aircraft is equipped with a three-position fuel selector for each engine. The positions are “ON”, “OFF”, and “X-FEED” (cross feed). T

89
Q
  1. Explain the procedure for cross feeding fuel when operating the right engine from the left tank.
A

The correct procedure for crossfeed operations to supply the right engine with fuel from the left tank is: 1. Right engine electric boost pump on. 2. Right fuel selector selected to “X-FEED.” 3. Check right fuel pressure. 4. Right engine electric boost pump off. 5. Check fuel pressure.

90
Q
  1. If an engine failure occurred at 5,000’ MSL, or a high density altitude, what would you do to get max performance from the operating engine after performing the In-Flight Engine Failure Checklist?
A

lower altitude, since 5,000’ is the absolute celing

91
Q
  1. If the cylinder head temp and oil temp approach the caution range, what can be done to assist in cooling?
A

Increase airspeed, reduce power, enrichen the mixture

92
Q
  1. Why does manifold pressure decrease approximately 1” every 1,000’ during climb?
A

Lapse rate drops about 1” Hg per 1000ft increase

93
Q
  1. Why is the manifold pressure gauge not necessarily a good indicator in determining an inoperative engine?
A

The initial signs of carburetor ice can include engine roughness and a drop in manifold pressure

94
Q
  1. When an engine is inoperative or feathered, what indication will be observed on the manifold pressure gauge?
95
Q
  1. What are the drag factors on light twins?
96
Q
  1. D. If Hydraulic pressure is suddenly lost in flight, what indication, if any, would you have?
97
Q

VMC Demonstration

A
  1. Clearing turns.
  2. Flaps-up, gear-up.
  3. Mixtures–enrichen, Proper–forward, fuel pumps–on.
  4. Slowly close the left throttle while maintaining heading and altitude.
  5. Slow to 100 KIAS (approximately 10 KIAS above VYSE).
  6. Slowly increase right throttle (operating engine) to full power. Use rudder to maintain directional control and bank up to 5º towards the operating engine.
  7. Increase pitch attitude slowly, decrease airspeed at approximately 1 knot per second until full rudder is applied to maintain directional control.
  8. Recover at first sign of:
  9. Loss of directional control.
  10. First indication of stall (stall horn or buffet).
  11. Recover promptly by simultaneously reducing power sufficiently on the operating engine while decreasing the angle of attack as necessary to regain directional control within 20º of entry heading.
  12. Continue to recovery by increasing power slowly on operating engine while maintaining an AOA that allows for airspeed to increase to a point where directional control can be maintained with a minimum loss of altitude.
  13. Accelerate to 82-88 KIAS.
  14. Bring throttles slowly together to 20” MP.
  15. “Cruise Checklist.”
98
Q

Maneuvering During Slow Flight

A
  1. Clearing turns.
  2. “Gear down before landing checklist”
  3. Extend full flaps 40º.
  4. Slow to 5-10 knots above 1G stall speed (approximately 60-65 KIAS). Avoid stall warning activation.
  5. Adjust power as necessary to maintain airspeed while maneuvering.
  6. Accomplish straight-and-level flight, climbs, turns, and descents as required.
  7. Recover with max power.
  8. Retract flaps slowly at 0º.
  9. Accelerate to 82 KIAS, maintain altitude or climb as specified by examiner.
  10. Retract gear, accelerate to 88 KIAS.
  11. “Cruise Checklist”
99
Q

Power-On Stall

A
  1. Clearing turns.
  2. Set takeoff or departure configuration as specified by the examiner.
  3. Takeoff configuration (gear down, flaps 0º)
  4. Departure Configuration (gear up, flaps 0º)
  5. Mixtures–enrichen, props–forward, fuel pumps–on.
  6. Slow to 80 KIAS, liftoff speed.
  7. Maintain selected heading or establish a 15º-bank turn, as specified by the Examiner.
  8. Transition smoothly to approximately 15º pitch-up while increasing power to 18” MP.
  9. Recover immediately after a fully developed stall occurs. (Simultaneously reduce AOA - lower the nose, smoothly apply max power, level wings.)
  10. Accelerate to 82 KIAS, establish a positive rate of climb.
  11. Retract gear (if extended), accelerate to 88 KIAS.
  12. “Cruise Checklist”
100
Q

Power-Off Stall

A
  1. Clearing turns.
  2. “gear down before landing checklist”
  3. Extend full flaps 40º.
  4. Establish a stabilized 400 FPM descent at 75 KIAS.
  5. Maintain selected heading, or establish 15º banked turn as specified by examiner.
  6. Slowly reduce power to idle.
  7. Slowly increase pitch attitude to induce a stall.
  8. Recover immediately after a fully developed stall occurs. Simultaneously reduce AOA, smoothly apply max power, level wings.
  9. Retract flaps slowly to 10º.
  10. Accelerate to 82 KIAS, establish a positive rate of climb.
  11. Retract flaps to 0º.
  12. Retract gear, accelerate to 88 KIAS.
  13. “Cruise Checklist”
101
Q

Steep Turns

A
  1. Clearing turns.
  2. Set power to maintain 120 KIAS throughout maneuver.
  3. Set bug to entry heading.
  4. Maintain selected altitude +/- 100’
  5. Maintain 120 KIAS or a safe airspeed not to exceed VA.
  6. Adjust power as necessary during the maneuver.
  7. Perform 360º turn to the left maintaining at least 50º bank +/- 5º.
  8. Roll out on entry heading +/- 10º.
  9. Perform 360º turn to the right maintaining at least 50º bank +/- 5º.
  10. Roll out on entry heading +/- 10º.
102
Q

Normal Takeoff (Flaps 0º)

A
  1. Line up on centerline positioning controls for wind.
  2. Hold brakes.
  3. Increase throttles to 2000 RPM.
  4. Check engine gauges.
  5. Release brakes.
  6. Increase throttles to full power.
  7. “Airspeed Alive”
  8. Start slow rotation at 75 KIAS. (main gear should lift off at approximately 80 KIAS.
    75 KIAS is VR not VLOF).
  9. Accelerate to 88 KIAS/Blueline (VY).
  10. Establish a positive rate of climb and retract the gear is no runway remains. (when taking off from runways
    4,000’ or less, no runway usually remains after a positive rate of climb has been established.)
  11. Climb at 88 KIAS/Blueline until 500’ AGL.
  12. Climb at 110 KIAS after passing through 500’ AGL
  13. Reduce throttles to 24” MP, 25000 RPM at 1,000’ AGL
  14. “After takeoff checklist” out of 1,000’ AGL
103
Q

Short Field Takeoff & Climb (Flaps 0º)

A
  1. Hold brakes at departure end of runway
  2. Increase throttles to 2000 RPM.
  3. Check engine gauges.
  4. Increase throttles to full power.
  5. Release brakes.
  6. “Airspeed Alive”
  7. Rotate at 70 KIAS or as specified per
    Short Field Effort Chart (POH Section
    5) for Flaps 0º and actual weight.
  8. Climb at 82 KIAS through obstacle height or as specified per Short Field
    Effort Chart (POH Section 5) for Flaps 0º and actual weight.
  9. Establish a positive rate of climb and retract the gear.
  10. Climb at 88 KIAS/Blueline when clear of obstacles until 500’ AGL.
  11. Reduce power to 24” MP, 2500 RPM at 1,000’ AGL.
  12. “After Takeoff Checklist” out of 1,000’ AGL
104
Q

Engine Failure Occurs – perform the following in 3 seconds.

A

One Thousand One: Decrease pitch attitude to horizon or slightly above - approximately 1º on AI.
Two Thousand Two: input aileron to bank 2º to 5º into the operating engine.
Three Thousand Three: input rudder towards the operating engine.
Immediately accomplish memory items on “In-Flight Engine Failure” checklist.

105
Q

In-Flight Engine Failure

A 
Maintain directional control / pitch attitude / Airspeed
Mixtures ---- Full Fwd
Props -------- Full Fwd
Throttles ---- Full Fwd
Flaps --------- Up
Gear --------- Up
Identify ------ Dead Foot
Verify / Throttle --- Close
Inop Eng Prop – Feather
Inop Eng Mixture – Cutoff
Climb – 88 KIAS / Blueline
Declare an emergency with ATC
Land at nearest suitable Airport

Perform Eng Failure Secure checklist if time permits

106
Q

Announced Calls on Approach “Gear Down before Landing Checklist”

A
  • Visual: Prior to descending from Traffic Pattern Altitude (TPA)
  • ILS: 1/2 dot below glide slope intercept.
  • Non-Precision: At FAF
107
Q

Announced Calls on Approach

“Blueline-GUMP” “Gas, Undercarriage, Mixtures, Props.”

A
  • Visual: On base or turning final.

* Instrument: Descending through 1,000’ AGL

108
Q

Announced Calls on Approach

“Gear Down-Stabilized.”

A
  • Visual or ILS: At 400’ AGL

* Non-Precision: Descending from MDA.

109
Q

Announced Calls on Approach

“100 to Go”

A

• Instrument: Prior to MDA or DH.

110
Q

Announced Calls on Approach

“Minimums”

A

• Instrument: at MDA or DH.

111
Q

Normal Visual Approach and Landing

A
  1. Complete the “Approach Checklist” before entering the traffic pattern; devote full attention to aircraft control and traffic avoidance.
  2. Slow to 100 KIAS prior to entering downwind or traffic pattern.
  3. Enter traffic pattern at published TPA (typically 1,000’ AGL).
  4. Announce when abeam approach end, on extended base, or on extended final (when ready to descend out of pattern altitude): “gear down before landing checklist”
  5. Extend flaps 25º.
  6. Descend out of TPA at 88 KIAS/Blueline.
  7. Announce on base leg or turning final: “Blueline-GUMP.” “Gas, undercarriage, mixtures, props”
  8. Maintain 88 KIAS/Blueline with flaps 25º on base and final.
  9. Announce at 400’ AGL: “Gear Down- Stablized”
112
Q

Short Field Approach and Landing

A
  1. Complete the “Approach Checklist” before entering the traffic pattern; devote full attention to aircraft control and traffic avoidance.
  2. Slow to 100 KIAS prior to entering downwind or traffic pattern.
  3. Enter traffic pattern at published TPA.
  4. Announce when abeam approach end, on extended base, or on extended final (when ready to descend out of pattern altitude): “gear down before landing checklist short field.”
  5. Extend flaps 25º
  6. Descent out of TPA at 88 KIAS/Blueline.
  7. Announce: (on base leg or turning to final) “blueline-GUMP” “Gas, undercarriage, mixtures, props.”
  8. On final, extend flaps 40º.
  9. Reduce airspeed to speed per Landing Distance over 50 ft. obstacle Short Field Effort (POH Section 5) for actual weight. Maintain constant power, airspeed, and angle of descent.
  10. Announce at 400’ AGL: “Gear Down-Stabilized.”
  11. Close throttles slowly in the flare - touch down with little or no floating.
  12. Maintain back pressure on control wheel to prevent slamming the nose wheel onto the runway.
  13. Retract flaps after touchdown.
  14. Simulate and announce “max braking” for training and checkride purposes.
113
Q

ILS Approach One or Two Engines

A
  1. Complete the “Approach Checklist” and identify localizer when able.
  2. Set the published inbound course on the HSI.
  3. The aircraft is considered established inbound when the course is alive.
  4. Check for flags at glide slope intercept.
  5. Maintain 100 KIAS until glide slope intercept.
  6. 1/2 dot below glideslope intercept: “gear down before landing checklist.”
  7. Extend flaps 25º.
  8. Descend on glide slope at 88 KIAS/Blueline (or 100 KIAS considering traffic).
  9. Announce out of 1,000’ AGL: “Blueline-GUMP”
  10. Maintain 88 KIAS/Blueline from ,1,000’ AGL inbound.
  11. Announce at 400’ AGL: “Gear
    Down-Stabilized”
  12. Announce at 100’ above minimums: “100 To Go”
  13. “Minimums”
114
Q

Non-Precision Straight-In Approach One or Two Engines

A
  1. Complete the “Approach Checklist” and identify the NAV aid when able.
  2. Maintain 100 KIAS clean (gear up, flaps up) during procedure turn outbound and inbound to the FAF.
  3. Set the published inbound course on the HSI.
  4. The aircraft is considered established inbound when the course is alive.
  5. Check for flags. 2 miles prior to FAF, verify approach mode on GPS (APR, LPV, LNAV, LP, etc.)
  6. At FAF: start time, “gear down before landing checklist”
  7. Flaps 0º (one engine) Flaps 25º (two engines).
  8. Descend at 600-800 FPM at 88 KIAS/Blueline
  9. Announce out of 1,000’ AGL: “Blueline-GUMP”
  10. Maintain 88 KIAS/Blueline from 1,000’ AGL inbound.
  11. Announce 100’ above minimums: “100 to Go”
  12. “Minimums”
  13. Maintain MDA (plus 50’
    minus 0’)
  14. Runway in sight: descend at predetermined VDP or maintain MDA to MAP.
  15. Do not leave MDA until landing is assured.
  16. When descending from MDA: flaps 25º (single engine), veiny and announce “Gear Down-Stablized”
115
Q

A gear warning system is activated under any of the following conditions

A
  1. The gear is not locked down with the throttle lever positioned below approximately 15” manifold
    pressure (MP) on one or both engines.
  2. The gear is not locked down with wing flaps selected to 25º to 40º.
  3. The gear handle is in the up position on the ground (tested only by authorized maintenance personnel).

ATP Multi Engine (1 decks)

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