Multi Engine Procedures & Normal Operations Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What does I.M.S.A.F.E. Stand for?

A
  • Illness
  • Medication
  • Stress
  • Alcohol
  • Fatigue
  • Emotions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does CRM stand for?

A

Crew Resource Management: the effective use of all available resources for flight crew personal to assure a safe and efficient operation, reducing error, avoiding stress, and increasing efficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does SRM stand for?

A

Single-Pilot Crew Resource Management: the art of managing all onboard and outside resources available to a pilot before and during flight to help ensure a safe and successful outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an M.E.L.?

A

Minimum Equipment List: inoperable equipment operations, specific to each aircraft, must have an LOA (Letter of Authorization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If you have an M.E.L. And L.O.A., what will the FAA issue for the aircraft?

A

Supplemental Type Certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How much fuel does the gas collator in the right engine consume if installed?

A

5 GPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What issue may occur if the electric fuel pump is left on after start?

A

Flooding of the engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When should takeoffs not be attempted?

A

When weather is below landing minimums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What should be checked during takeoff roll?

A
  • RPM
  • Manifold Pressure
  • Oil Temperatures
  • Oil Pressure
  • Fuel Flow Indicator
  • Air Speed Indicator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When should the first power reduction be made?

A

When at a safe maneuvering speed and altitude. After gear and flaps retraction, accelerate to Vy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Go around procedure

A
  • Mixture, props, and throttle full forward
  • Pitch up to positive rate of climb
  • Flaps 25°
  • Gear up
  • Flaps 0° after obstruction clearance
    (Full power, flaps to takeoff, retract gear)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long does the gear take to retract?

A

6 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vso

A

69 (Stall speed in landing configuration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vs1

A

76 (Stall speed in specific configuration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vmc

A

80 (Minimum control speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vsse

A

84 (Safe single-engine speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vx

A

90 (Best angle of climb speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vy

A

105 (Best rate of climb speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vxse

A

93 (Best single-engine angle of climb speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vyse

A

105 (Best single-engine rate of climb speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

VLo

A

125 (Maximum landing gear up operating speed)

150 (Maximum Landing gear down operating speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Vle

A

150 (Maximum landing gear extended speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Vfe

A

10° - 160
25° - 140
40° - 125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Va

A

146 (at max weight of 4,200 lbs)

133 (at 2743 lbs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Vno

A

190 (Maximum structural cruise speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Vne

A

217 (Never exceed speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

V

A

150 (storm window open speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Vr

A

85 (Rotation speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Vcc

A

120 (Cruise climb speed)

30
Q

Outboard Stall Warning

A

When flaps are at 0° and 10°

31
Q

Inboard Stall Warning

A

When flaps are at 25° and 40°

32
Q

How many static systems does the aircraft have?

A

One static system comprised of two static ports

33
Q

How is the Hartzell prop operated?

A

By oil and nitrogen

34
Q

How does the prop governor work?

A

Governor supplies oil to the propellor to maintain constant speed
More oil=more rpm
Less oil=less rpm

35
Q

How long does it take to feather the prop?

A

6 seconds

36
Q

When does the anti feathering lock engage?

A

Below 800rpm

37
Q

How does the gear avoid retracting on the ground?

A

A squat switch that is located on the left gear

38
Q

When will the landing gear pressure system shut off?

A

1,800 psi

39
Q

Nose gear is steerable up to what degree?

A

42° ( 21° left and 21° right)

40
Q

How many quarts of oil are needed?

A

6-8 quarts per engine

41
Q

What type of fuel can be used?

A

100LL and 100

42
Q

How many fuel tanks and how much do they hold?

A

4 fuel tanks that each hold 24.5 gallons (98 total gallons)

43
Q

How much usable fuel?

A

93 gallons (5 gallons unusable)

44
Q

What kind of flaps are used?

A

Spring loaded and single slotted

45
Q

What does it mean by the ailerons are differential?

A

They will go higher up than down

46
Q

The landing gear is….

A

Hydraulically operated electrically powered

47
Q

How does the emergency gear extension work?

A

Gravity powered but wont lock

48
Q

When will the gear horn go off?

A

When power is back below 14” without gear down

49
Q

How is the manifold pressure indicated?

A

Through a connection on cylinder 3

50
Q

What should the manifold pressure equal before start?

A

Pressure altitude

51
Q

What is considered a light twin?

A

Less than 6,000 pounds

52
Q

Max weight

A

4,200 lbs

53
Q

Max landing weight

A

4,000 lbs

54
Q

Fuel burn rate

A

30 gal per hour

55
Q

Explain the alternator(s)

A

Two alternators that each produce 60 amps and 14 volts

56
Q

Explain the batteries

A

35 amps and 12 volts

57
Q

Explain the break system

A

Hydraulically powered but completely separate from the landing gear system

58
Q

What kind of fuel system is used?

A

Fuel injected using fuel servos

59
Q

Explain the engine

A
L: Lycoming
I: Injected Engine
H: Horizontally Opposed
A: Air cooled
N: Normally aspirated 
D: Direct Driven
360: 360 cubic inch
200:Horse power at 2700 rpm
60
Q

Max CHT (cylinder head temperature)

A

475°

61
Q

Max oil temperature

A

245°

62
Q

Tire pressure

A

Front: 31psi
Mains: 50-53psi

63
Q

Max crosswind

A

15mph (12kts)

64
Q

Max baggage

A

100 lbs

65
Q

Gyro suction limitations

A

4.5 - 5.2” hg

66
Q

Absolute ceiling

A

19,400’

67
Q

Service ceiling

A

17,900

68
Q

SE absolute ceiling

A

5,000’

69
Q

SE service ceiling

A

3,650’

70
Q

Definition of absolute ceiling

A

The altitude at which the maximum rate of climb goes to zero

71
Q

Definition of service ceiling

A

The altitude at which the maximum rate of climb is 100 ft/min