MTS Flashcards
(189 cards)
1
Q
Motivation Theory (NAAVII)
A
Needs Attitude Achievement Values Interests Incentives
2
Q
6 Laws of Learning?
A
Readiness Exercise Effect Primacy Intensity Recency
3
Q
5 Ways of learning?
A
Imitate Insight Trial and error Association Transfer
4
Q
4 Basic Learning Styles
A
Concrete Experience
Abstract Conceptual…
Reflective Observation
Active Experimentation
5
Q
Barriers to effective communication? (LOFE)
A
Lack of common core experience
Overuse of abstractions
Fear
Environmental barriers
6
Q
Instructor delivery techniques
A
GAMES
7
Q
Importance of body movement? (REC)
A
Reinforce, Emphasizes and Clarifies verbally expressed ideas.
8
Q
Purpose of oral questioning (FADS)
A
Focus attention
Arouse interest
Drills student
Stimulate thought
9
Q
Good oral question?
A
LUC
Level of instruction
Use of interrogative
Clarity of meaning
10
Q
2 methods of testing
A
Knowledge
Performance
11
Q
5 learning levels a knowledge test may have?
A
CAARR
Comprehension Application Analysis Recognition Recall
12
Q
Materials used in instruction?
A
LII
Lesson plan
Instruction sheets
IMM
13
Q
3 qualities of effective instructor
A
KAP
Knowledge
Ability
Personality
14
Q
5 content types of enabling objective (PFC)
A
Principles/Procedures/Processes
Facts
Concepts
15
Q
Purpose of NeL Test Track
A
CAC enabled environment used to test prototype lessons to ensure SCORM compliance
16
Q
Feedback offered while progressing through the course?
A
Formative
17
Q
Examines how well learners have mastered content by end of course
A
Summative assessment
18
Q
Function of a pre-test
A
Gauge deficiencies
Direct attention to new info
19
Q
SKATR
A
Skills Knowledge Ability Tools Resources
20
Q
Job
A
Made up of duties and tasks
21
Q
DUTY
A
Collection of duties make up a job, must be measurable
22
Q
Task
A
Clusters of tasks make up a duty, performed in relatively short period of time
23
Q
TOs relate to?
A
Behavior
24
Q
Two types of instructor evaluations
A
Scheduled/Unscheduled
25
Types of oral questions
| F MY CLIT
```
Factual/Close ended
Multiple choice
Yes/No
Canvassing
Leading
Interest arousing
Thought provoking/Open ended
```
26
5 step questioning technique
APPLE
27
3 elements of LOs
Behavior
Condition
Standard
28
Controls course content and instructional methods by acting as approval authority for the curriculum?
CCA
29
Assigned by the CCA with the responsibility for conducting and maintaining a specific course
CCMM (Course Curriculum Model Manager)
30
CANTRAC
Catalog of Navy Training Course.
Info about about the course.
31
CeTARS
Corporate Enterprise and; Training Activity Resource System
Look up data on course/student feeds data into CANTRAC.
32
F School
functional - CFL/TCCC
33
FCR
Formal Course Review
At least Q3 Years
34
Who maintains the course audit trail?
CCMM
35
ISS
Instructional Systems Specialists
36
Testing must be administered by E7 or appointed testing officer.
Who is NEMTI's appointed testing officer?
Ms. Glass
LT Borden
(At lease 1 proctor must also be present)
37
Date for NMOTCINST 1500.15 "Handling, Accountability, and Administration of Command Courses Examinations"
25 Apr 2016
38
NMETC CCA?
RADM McCormick (Rebecca)
39
NEMTI's
CCMM
DOT
ISS
Paul
Brand
(Pending)
40
EAP
EMERGENCY ACTION PLAN
41
Purpose of SCORM
Implements sequencing and navigation of assets within e-learning environments.
42
MTS INSTRUCTION
BUMEDINST 1500.25B
43
CCA
Curriculum Control Authority
44
CCMM
Course Curriculum Model Manager
45
What is the purpose of Navy Training System?
To ensure a systematic approach for determining what to train and how best to accomplish that training.
46
ILE
INTEGRATED LEARNING ENVIRONMENT
47
3 Elements of the Navy Training System?
Preparation, Delivery, and Evaluation of training
48
Two types of training evaluations?
INTERNAL (instructor/course/other)
| EXTERNAL (formal/informal feedback)
49
Teaching has been described as what two things?
Art and Science
50
Effective instructors must have what two types of ability?
Instructional/Leadership
51
Abraham H. Maslow is noted for what?
Hierarchy of Needs Theory
52
John Keller’s is noted for what?
Attention Relevance Confidence and Satisfaction (ARCS) Model
53
ARCS
Attention Relevance Confidence and Satisfaction
54
What are overhead questions?
Interest-arousing question directed to the entire class
55
What is the definition of learning according to NAVEDTRA 134A
occurs when there is a change in behavior as a result of experience.
56
What type of reasoning moves from the general to the specific?
Deductive
57
What document describes the scope and intent of the curriculum revision or development?
TPP
58
What is a Jury of Experts?
SMEs from various commands are assembled to record and organize the required job information.
59
What NAVEDTRA is the primary reference for the PADDIE+M model?
NAVEDTRA 136
60
What PADDIE phase identifies resource requirements and the sequence of events in the development process?
Plan
61
What PADDIE phase produces the job tasks, task sequence, level of performance, and the skills and knowledge to be taught?
Analysis
62
What PADDIE phase produces the learning objectives and an instructional sequence?
Design
63
What PADDIE phase produces the instructional materials for the instructor and the learner?
Development
64
What PADDIE phase begins when the Curriculum Control Authority (CCA) has approved a course?
Implementation
65
What PADDIE phase produces a revision of the training materials based on assessment of the materials and fleet performance?
Evaluation
66
What phase of the PADDIE+M model is also known as the surveillance phase?
Maintenance
67
What are the four categories of training materials modification?
Interim Change, Change, Technical Change, Revision
68
Who is the approval authority for training materials?
Course Curriculum Authority
69
Six external triggers?
```
Human Performance Requirements Review (HPRR) Direct Fleet Input
Fleet Performance Assessment
Training Process Methodology
NTSP Revision
Safety Performance Assessment.
```
70
What are the three internal trigger events in which OPNAV (N1) is the training requirement source?
Revision to an Enlisted Occupational Standard, Establishment or Revision of an NEC, Rating Merger
71
What is developed for those projects not originally funded by NETC?
TTP
72
What provides detailed descriptions of the work performed by Sailors?
JDTA
73
What is the basis for the NETC Front-End Analysis (FEA)?
JDTA
74
What does the JDTA team identify at the conclusion of the JDTA for input into AIM/CPM?
SKATR
75
What word would you associate with the following definition? An enduring attribute of the individual that influences performance and enables the performance of tasks.
Ability (SKATR)
76
Publications, guides, handbooks, instructions, tutorials, documents, reports, forms, blueprints and plans are examples of what?
Resources (SKATR)
77
What is the goal of the NETC FEA?
Further analyze the skills and knowledge needed to perform the job. (Also analyzes technologies available & media delivery)
78
What is IMDP?
Instructional Media Design Package
79
What is used to allocate fiscal resources and define the training requirement transition to the NETC domain?
TTP
80
What is a Business Case Analysis?
Details the cost and risk associated with each training option identified during the NETC FEA.
81
What is considered the overarching course management document that identifies all training requirements including instructor resources, classrooms, and training devices?
TPP
82
Who approves a completed BCA?
CCA
83
What program is utilized to produce a TPP?
AIM/CPM
84
What is an alphanumeric combination that uniquely identifies a course in training databases?
CIN
85
What is the instructors role as it relates to diversity?
To create a culture of empowerment where all are welcome to contribute.
86
How many outputs occur during the planning phase?
6 (JDTA, NETC FEA, TTP, BCA, TPP, EAP)
87
What are the three tools that support the plan phase?
CeTARS, AIM, CPM
88
What is the purpose of a CTTL?
Provides a list of duties and tasks to be trained in a course
89
What is used to develop a CTTL?
Analysis of the course mission, JDTA and technical documentation.
90
What must be completed before access to any official NeL testing environment will be granted?
Content announcement form
91
What are the two outputs produced during the analysis phase?
CTTL, CAF
92
What three tools support the Analysis Phase?
AIM, CPM, CFS (content forecasting service)
93
What is the term used to describe the arrangement of learning objectives in AIM CPM?
Sequencing
94
What PADDIE phase is the TCCD reviewed for currency, adequacy and accuracy?
Development Phase
95
What is considered the master plan for the structure of the course?
Curriculum of Instruction (COI)
96
What term is used to describe a group of lessons?
Module
97
Who must approve storyboards?
CCA
98
Describe a SCORM?
A model that integrates a set of related technical standards, specifications, and guidelines to ensure interoperability of computer-delivered course materials across LMS delivery environments
99
What does SCORM stand for?
Shareable content object reference model
100
What does a course pilot deliver?
The first delivery of a full-length course or major segment of a course
101
A letter of promulgation is utilized as an input for what PADDIE Phase?
Implementation
102
When do formative evaluations occur?
During design and development phases
103
What is the purpose of a One-On-One Review?
Designers work with individual learners to identify errors in the instructional materials.
104
Well-defined naming conventions and versioning is crucial for life-cycle maintenance. Who is responsible for developing a naming convention for course materials?
CCA
105
What are the two modules within AIM?
Learning Object Module (LOM), Content Planning Module (CPM)
106
What is the sole source of official Navy Training statistics for all formal training?
CeTARS
107
What is the five step process that applies to ORM?
I-AM-IS: Identify Hazards, Assessing Hazards, Making Risk Decisions, Implementing Controls, Supervising.
108
Who is responsible for the quality of the training provided under their command(s)?
Cos/XOs
109
What is a LSO?
Learning Standards Officer, they are the primary policy advisor on training delivery.
110
Who may be assigned as an LSO?
ISS, Curriculum management specialists, or an individual with special qualifications in education and training management.
111
What title is used to describe those responsible for the management of a particular course or a specific function for several courses?
Course Supervisor
112
Who is considered a first line supervisor for courses of instruction?
Course Supervisor
113
Unscheduled instructor evaluations may also be referred to as what?
“spot checks”
114
Who is considered a front-line representative of the NETC training organization and is a critical element in the training process?
Instructors
115
Whose responsibility is it to determine the suitability of Sailors for instructor duty?
The transferring CO
116
What are some considerations a transferring CO will utilize when recommending a Sailor for instructor duty?
Temperament, knowledge of subject, communication skills, maturity, emotional stability, positive role model, people oriented, desire to teach.
117
Describe the process for qualifying as a NEMTI instructor.
Complete two practice teach backs and two satisfactory evaluations. (One evaluation technical, the other technique)
118
What does Core Unique Instructor Training (CUIT) apply to?
High-Risk training only
119
Navy Enlisted Classification Code formerly known as 9502 was changed to what code in order to meet the newer construct?
805A
120
Navy Enlisted Classification Code formerly known as 9502 was changed to what code in order to meet the newer construct?
805A
121
What term is used to describe the number of hours of formal, approved training a student receives to complete the total course of instruction?
Curriculum Hours
122
What term is used to describe the type of training hours in which the student is in quiet study while the instructor works with other students in a lab, etc.?
“bottleneck”
123
Who determines the optimum student/instructor ratio?
SMEs in consonance with LSOs
124
What term is used to describe the planned number of students scheduled to enter instruction on established convening dates?
Quotas
125
A Standard Technical Training Day consists of how many periods excluding meal hours?
8
126
What is the length of a Standard Training Period?
60 minutes
127
What is the ideal break time for a Standard Period of Instruction?
10 minutes
128
The normal scheduled workweek for instructors and support personnel shall be how many hours excluding duty status and meal hours?
40 hours
129
What is the MTS programs governing instruction?
BUMEDINST 1500.25B
130
What is a CCQR?
Core Competency Qualification Requirements. Represents the minimum requirements for MTS designation.
131
What category of staff members may not participate in the MTS program?
Contractors
132
How many instructor learner contact hours are required prior to being nominated as an MTS candidate?
135
133
Why are MTS candidates encouraged to earn their MTS qualification at least one year prior to PRD?
To help ensure utilization of expertise.
134
If an MTS candidate fails an MTS board who must approve that candidate prior to re-boarding?
MTS mentor
135
What is the minimum wait time requirements for MTS re-boards?
None
136
What award serves to communicate to Fleet Sailors that instructor tours of duty are positive career enhancing opportunities?
IOY (Instructor of the Year)
137
What is pipeline management and what system is used to account for the student’s pipeline time?
Involves the control and supervision of the movement or flow of students through the training pipeline. CeTARS optimizes class convenings
138
What is the term used to describe when a student is unable to complete the training in the designated time?
Setback
139
What code is used to indicate a student’s status in CeTARS?
PEVT (personnel event) codes
140
What are methods utilized to recognize students?
Student of the Quarter (excel in academic performance AND all areas of military performance). Activity Honor Roll (academic performance only).
141
How can an ASVAB score assist an instructor?
May be used to gauge a student’s learning ability if they are unable to grasp the curriculum.
142
What is the 6 +2 Program?
A methodology designed to improve the learning process by dividing the instructional day into a 6 hour block of instruction and a 2 hour block for enhanced learning and remediation.
143
What type of training activities must establish ARBs?
“A” and “C” schools
144
What may be necessary to conduct after a student is unable to achieve the objectives after counseling, remediation, retesting, and an initial academic setback?
ARB
145
When recommending a drop from training, the student must first demonstrate what?
Unwillingness or inability to continue training.
146
What is the required composition of an ARB?
A chairman and at least two additional members. At least one member is a certified instructor in the area in which the student is having difficulty.
147
What measure can be taken to prevent the ARB recorder from taking excessive notes?
Student may provide written responses to typically asked questions prior to convening.
148
A formal course review must not exceed how many years?
3
149
What program is conducted to satisfy staff training requirements?
IS (in-service) training.
150
What methods of testing may be used to gauge a student’s comprehension?
Pretest, Progress Test, Comprehensive Test, Quiz, Oral Test.
151
What grade range on a test would indicate superior understanding or performance?
90-100
152
What is the purpose of a NRTC?
A self-study package designed to help a student acquire Navy professional or military knowledge.
153
Why is it important for an evaluator to observe students during laboratory training?
Provides feedback on the quality and safety of the training.
154
What does an “F” school provide?
Training to learn a functional skill (No NEC awarded)
155
What authoring tool does the Navy utilize for authoring computer based training?
AIM
156
What does the acronym AIM stand for?
Authoring Instructional Materials
157
What are some examples of Visual Information (VI)?
Wall Charts, Films, Video, Transparencies, Graphic Media
158
How are training materials maintained as current and accurate?
Surveillance
159
A TPP can be initiated at what level of authority?
CO/OIC of training command or higher authority.
160
When should a learning objective not be written?
When the LO cannot be measured.
161
Development of the LESSON PLAN, TRAINEE GUIDE and Tests occur in what order?
Simultaneously as good ideas are generated.
162
What are the minimum elements of a lesson plan?
Front Matter, Lesson Topics
163
DPs (discussion points) should not usually exceed what level of subheadings?
Fourth
164
Lesson plans may be organized into multiple volumes. A volume consists of how many sheets of paper?
Approximately 200
165
How are Front Matter pages numbered?
Consecutively using Arabic numerals
166
What are “Paper and pencil” alternatives?
Term used when an objective is modified due to prohibitive financial costs. Opportunity for hands-on training are substituted?
167
What is the primary tool for determining if the trainee has attained the courses enabling and terminal objectives?
Tests
168
Determining which LOs to test are based on the criticality of the skill. Skill levels are broken down into what three categories?
High, Moderate, Low
169
K1-K5 refer to what?
Levels of learning in which knowledge will be used on-the-job. (NAVEDTRA 130B)
- K1 – Recognize
- K2 – Recall
- K3 – Comprehend
- K4 – Apply
- K5 - Analyze/Synthesize/Evaluate
170
What type of test may be given at different points within the course to assess trainee progress?
Progress test
171
What is described as a short test, often devised by the instructor and used to assess understanding of recently taught material?
Quiz
172
Testing should occur after how many periods of instruction?
40-50
173
What is the purpose of Instruction Sheets and the TRAINEE GUIDE?
Reinforce or supplement training provided in the formal training environment.
174
What type of learning objectives must be formally tested?
Those ranked most critical, the upper one-third
175
Alternate versions of a test may use no more than what percent of the same test items?
25%
176
What instruction governs NMOTC’s test handling, accountability, and administration of examinations?
NMOTCINST 1500.15
177
How many examiners may be appointed per course offered?
No more than four
178
What pay grade is responsible for administering course tests?
E-7 or above
179
Why doesn’t NEMTI administer open book tests?
Intended for on-the-job situations that require use of technical documentation.
180
What type of learners prefer a theory-based, analytical approach to learning?
Abstract
181
What type of learners prefer to learn by becoming involved with the subject and taking an active step-by-step approach?
Active
182
What type of learners learn best from small group discussions, structured exercises, and problem-solving approaches?
Active
183
Example of memory aid?
Righty-tighty; lefty-loosey
184
What is the first step in processing information?
Attention
185
Theorists believe the duration of information in short-term memory is somewhere between what second range?
5-20 seconds
186
Perceived irrelevance, repeated or contradictory information, overriding physical discomfort are examples of what?
Barriers during information processing
187
Articulation is understandable speech. You can achieve good articulation in what two ways?
ENUNCIATE: Speak clearly.
PRONUNCIATE: Accent syllables and reproduce consonant and vowel sounds in conformity with the accepted standard
188
“Machine-gun delivery” refers to what instructor delivery technique?
Rate of speech
189
What term is used to describe a change in the normal pitch or tone of the speaker’s voice?
Inflection
