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MTS Flashcards

1
Q

Motivation Theory (NAAVII)

A 
Needs
Attitude
Achievement
Values
Interests
Incentives
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2
Q

6 Laws of Learning?

A 
Readiness
Exercise
Effect
Primacy
Intensity
Recency
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3
Q

5 Ways of learning?

A 
Imitate
Insight
Trial and error
Association 
Transfer
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4
Q

4 Basic Learning Styles

A

Concrete Experience

Abstract Conceptual…

Reflective Observation

Active Experimentation

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5
Q

Barriers to effective communication? (LOFE)

A

Lack of common core experience
Overuse of abstractions
Fear
Environmental barriers

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6
Q

Instructor delivery techniques

A

GAMES

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7
Q

Importance of body movement? (REC)

A

Reinforce, Emphasizes and Clarifies verbally expressed ideas.

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8
Q

Purpose of oral questioning (FADS)

A

Focus attention
Arouse interest
Drills student
Stimulate thought

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9
Q

Good oral question?

A

LUC

Level of instruction
Use of interrogative
Clarity of meaning

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10
Q

2 methods of testing

A

Knowledge

Performance

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11
Q

5 learning levels a knowledge test may have?

A

CAARR

Comprehension
Application
Analysis
Recognition
Recall
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12
Q

Materials used in instruction?

A

LII

Lesson plan
Instruction sheets
IMM

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13
Q

3 qualities of effective instructor

A

KAP

Knowledge
Ability
Personality

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14
Q

5 content types of enabling objective (PFC)

A

Principles/Procedures/Processes
Facts
Concepts

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15
Q

Purpose of NeL Test Track

A

CAC enabled environment used to test prototype lessons to ensure SCORM compliance

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16
Q

Feedback offered while progressing through the course?

A

Formative

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17
Q

Examines how well learners have mastered content by end of course

A

Summative assessment

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18
Q

Function of a pre-test

A

Gauge deficiencies

Direct attention to new info

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19
Q

SKATR

A 
Skills
Knowledge
Ability
Tools
Resources
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20
Q

Job

A

Made up of duties and tasks

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21
Q

DUTY

A

Collection of duties make up a job, must be measurable

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22
Q

Task

A

Clusters of tasks make up a duty, performed in relatively short period of time

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23
Q

TOs relate to?

A

Behavior

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24
Q

Two types of instructor evaluations

A

Scheduled/Unscheduled

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25
Q

Types of oral questions

F MY CLIT

A 
Factual/Close ended
Multiple choice
Yes/No
Canvassing
Leading
Interest arousing
Thought provoking/Open ended
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26
Q

5 step questioning technique

A

APPLE

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27
Q

3 elements of LOs

A

Behavior
Condition
Standard

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28
Q

Controls course content and instructional methods by acting as approval authority for the curriculum?

A

CCA

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29
Q

Assigned by the CCA with the responsibility for conducting and maintaining a specific course

A

CCMM (Course Curriculum Model Manager)

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30
Q

CANTRAC

A

Catalog of Navy Training Course.

Info about about the course.

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31
Q

CeTARS

A

Corporate Enterprise and; Training Activity Resource System

Look up data on course/student feeds data into CANTRAC.

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32
Q

F School

A

functional - CFL/TCCC

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33
Q

FCR

A

Formal Course Review

At least Q3 Years

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34
Q

Who maintains the course audit trail?

A

CCMM

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35
Q

ISS

A

Instructional Systems Specialists

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36
Q

Testing must be administered by E7 or appointed testing officer.

Who is NEMTI’s appointed testing officer?

A

Ms. Glass
LT Borden

(At lease 1 proctor must also be present)

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37
Q

Date for NMOTCINST 1500.15 “Handling, Accountability, and Administration of Command Courses Examinations”

A

25 Apr 2016

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38
Q

NMETC CCA?

A

RADM McCormick (Rebecca)

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39
Q

NEMTI’s

CCMM
DOT
ISS

A

Paul
Brand
(Pending)

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40
Q

EAP

A

EMERGENCY ACTION PLAN

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41
Q

Purpose of SCORM

A

Implements sequencing and navigation of assets within e-learning environments.

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42
Q

MTS INSTRUCTION

A

BUMEDINST 1500.25B

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43
Q

CCA

A

Curriculum Control Authority

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44
Q

CCMM

A

Course Curriculum Model Manager

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45
Q

What is the purpose of Navy Training System?

A

To ensure a systematic approach for determining what to train and how best to accomplish that training.

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46
Q

ILE

A

INTEGRATED LEARNING ENVIRONMENT

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47
Q

3 Elements of the Navy Training System?

A

Preparation, Delivery, and Evaluation of training

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48
Q

Two types of training evaluations?

A

INTERNAL (instructor/course/other)

EXTERNAL (formal/informal feedback)

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49
Q

Teaching has been described as what two things?

A

Art and Science

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50
Q

Effective instructors must have what two types of ability?

A

Instructional/Leadership

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51
Q

Abraham H. Maslow is noted for what?

A

Hierarchy of Needs Theory

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52
Q

John Keller’s is noted for what?

A

Attention Relevance Confidence and Satisfaction (ARCS) Model

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53
Q

ARCS

A

Attention Relevance Confidence and Satisfaction

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54
Q

What are overhead questions?

A

Interest-arousing question directed to the entire class

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55
Q

What is the definition of learning according to NAVEDTRA 134A

A

occurs when there is a change in behavior as a result of experience.

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56
Q

What type of reasoning moves from the general to the specific?

A

Deductive

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57
Q

What document describes the scope and intent of the curriculum revision or development?

A

TPP

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58
Q

What is a Jury of Experts?

A

SMEs from various commands are assembled to record and organize the required job information.

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59
Q

What NAVEDTRA is the primary reference for the PADDIE+M model?

A

NAVEDTRA 136

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60
Q

What PADDIE phase identifies resource requirements and the sequence of events in the development process?

A

Plan

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61
Q

What PADDIE phase produces the job tasks, task sequence, level of performance, and the skills and knowledge to be taught?

A

Analysis

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62
Q

What PADDIE phase produces the learning objectives and an instructional sequence?

A

Design

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63
Q

What PADDIE phase produces the instructional materials for the instructor and the learner?

A

Development

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64
Q

What PADDIE phase begins when the Curriculum Control Authority (CCA) has approved a course?

A

Implementation

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65
Q

What PADDIE phase produces a revision of the training materials based on assessment of the materials and fleet performance?

A

Evaluation

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66
Q

What phase of the PADDIE+M model is also known as the surveillance phase?

A

Maintenance

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67
Q

What are the four categories of training materials modification?

A

Interim Change, Change, Technical Change, Revision

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68
Q

Who is the approval authority for training materials?

A

Course Curriculum Authority

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69
Q

Six external triggers?

A 
Human Performance Requirements Review (HPRR) Direct Fleet Input
Fleet Performance Assessment
Training Process Methodology
NTSP Revision
Safety Performance Assessment.
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70
Q

What are the three internal trigger events in which OPNAV (N1) is the training requirement source?

A

Revision to an Enlisted Occupational Standard, Establishment or Revision of an NEC, Rating Merger

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71
Q

What is developed for those projects not originally funded by NETC?

A

TTP

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72
Q

What provides detailed descriptions of the work performed by Sailors?

A

JDTA

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73
Q

What is the basis for the NETC Front-End Analysis (FEA)?

A

JDTA

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74
Q

What does the JDTA team identify at the conclusion of the JDTA for input into AIM/CPM?

A

SKATR

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75
Q

What word would you associate with the following definition? An enduring attribute of the individual that influences performance and enables the performance of tasks.

A

Ability (SKATR)

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76
Q

Publications, guides, handbooks, instructions, tutorials, documents, reports, forms, blueprints and plans are examples of what?

A

Resources (SKATR)

77
Q

What is the goal of the NETC FEA?

A

Further analyze the skills and knowledge needed to perform the job. (Also analyzes technologies available & media delivery)

78
Q

What is IMDP?

A

Instructional Media Design Package

79
Q

What is used to allocate fiscal resources and define the training requirement transition to the NETC domain?

80
Q

What is a Business Case Analysis?

A

Details the cost and risk associated with each training option identified during the NETC FEA.

81
Q

What is considered the overarching course management document that identifies all training requirements including instructor resources, classrooms, and training devices?

82
Q

Who approves a completed BCA?

83
Q

What program is utilized to produce a TPP?

84
Q

What is an alphanumeric combination that uniquely identifies a course in training databases?

85
Q

What is the instructors role as it relates to diversity?

A

To create a culture of empowerment where all are welcome to contribute.

86
Q

How many outputs occur during the planning phase?

A

6 (JDTA, NETC FEA, TTP, BCA, TPP, EAP)

87
Q

What are the three tools that support the plan phase?

A

CeTARS, AIM, CPM

88
Q

What is the purpose of a CTTL?

A

Provides a list of duties and tasks to be trained in a course

89
Q

What is used to develop a CTTL?

A

Analysis of the course mission, JDTA and technical documentation.

90
Q

What must be completed before access to any official NeL testing environment will be granted?

A

Content announcement form

91
Q

What are the two outputs produced during the analysis phase?

92
Q

What three tools support the Analysis Phase?

A

AIM, CPM, CFS (content forecasting service)

93
Q

What is the term used to describe the arrangement of learning objectives in AIM CPM?

A

Sequencing

94
Q

What PADDIE phase is the TCCD reviewed for currency, adequacy and accuracy?

A

Development Phase

95
Q

What is considered the master plan for the structure of the course?

A

Curriculum of Instruction (COI)

96
Q

What term is used to describe a group of lessons?

97
Q

Who must approve storyboards?

98
Q

Describe a SCORM?

A

A model that integrates a set of related technical standards, specifications, and guidelines to ensure interoperability of computer-delivered course materials across LMS delivery environments

99
Q

What does SCORM stand for?

A

Shareable content object reference model

100
Q

What does a course pilot deliver?

A

The first delivery of a full-length course or major segment of a course

101
Q

A letter of promulgation is utilized as an input for what PADDIE Phase?

A

Implementation

102
Q

When do formative evaluations occur?

A

During design and development phases

103
Q

What is the purpose of a One-On-One Review?

A

Designers work with individual learners to identify errors in the instructional materials.

104
Q

Well-defined naming conventions and versioning is crucial for life-cycle maintenance. Who is responsible for developing a naming convention for course materials?

105
Q

What are the two modules within AIM?

A

Learning Object Module (LOM), Content Planning Module (CPM)

106
Q

What is the sole source of official Navy Training statistics for all formal training?

107
Q

What is the five step process that applies to ORM?

A

I-AM-IS: Identify Hazards, Assessing Hazards, Making Risk Decisions, Implementing Controls, Supervising.

108
Q

Who is responsible for the quality of the training provided under their command(s)?

109
Q

What is a LSO?

A

Learning Standards Officer, they are the primary policy advisor on training delivery.

110
Q

Who may be assigned as an LSO?

A

ISS, Curriculum management specialists, or an individual with special qualifications in education and training management.

111
Q

What title is used to describe those responsible for the management of a particular course or a specific function for several courses?

A

Course Supervisor

112
Q

Who is considered a first line supervisor for courses of instruction?

A

Course Supervisor

113
Q

Unscheduled instructor evaluations may also be referred to as what?

A

“spot checks”

114
Q

Who is considered a front-line representative of the NETC training organization and is a critical element in the training process?

A

Instructors

115
Q

Whose responsibility is it to determine the suitability of Sailors for instructor duty?

A

The transferring CO

116
Q

What are some considerations a transferring CO will utilize when recommending a Sailor for instructor duty?

A

Temperament, knowledge of subject, communication skills, maturity, emotional stability, positive role model, people oriented, desire to teach.

117
Q

Describe the process for qualifying as a NEMTI instructor.

A

Complete two practice teach backs and two satisfactory evaluations. (One evaluation technical, the other technique)

118
Q

What does Core Unique Instructor Training (CUIT) apply to?

A

High-Risk training only

119
Q

Navy Enlisted Classification Code formerly known as 9502 was changed to what code in order to meet the newer construct?

120
Q

Navy Enlisted Classification Code formerly known as 9502 was changed to what code in order to meet the newer construct?

121
Q

What term is used to describe the number of hours of formal, approved training a student receives to complete the total course of instruction?

A

Curriculum Hours

122
Q

What term is used to describe the type of training hours in which the student is in quiet study while the instructor works with other students in a lab, etc.?

A

“bottleneck”

123
Q

Who determines the optimum student/instructor ratio?

A

SMEs in consonance with LSOs

124
Q

What term is used to describe the planned number of students scheduled to enter instruction on established convening dates?

125
Q

A Standard Technical Training Day consists of how many periods excluding meal hours?

126
Q

What is the length of a Standard Training Period?

A

60 minutes

127
Q

What is the ideal break time for a Standard Period of Instruction?

A

10 minutes

128
Q

The normal scheduled workweek for instructors and support personnel shall be how many hours excluding duty status and meal hours?

129
Q

What is the MTS programs governing instruction?

A

BUMEDINST 1500.25B

130
Q

What is a CCQR?

A

Core Competency Qualification Requirements. Represents the minimum requirements for MTS designation.

131
Q

What category of staff members may not participate in the MTS program?

A

Contractors

132
Q

How many instructor learner contact hours are required prior to being nominated as an MTS candidate?

133
Q

Why are MTS candidates encouraged to earn their MTS qualification at least one year prior to PRD?

A

To help ensure utilization of expertise.

134
Q

If an MTS candidate fails an MTS board who must approve that candidate prior to re-boarding?

A

MTS mentor

135
Q

What is the minimum wait time requirements for MTS re-boards?

136
Q

What award serves to communicate to Fleet Sailors that instructor tours of duty are positive career enhancing opportunities?

A

IOY (Instructor of the Year)

137
Q

What is pipeline management and what system is used to account for the student’s pipeline time?

A

Involves the control and supervision of the movement or flow of students through the training pipeline. CeTARS optimizes class convenings

138
Q

What is the term used to describe when a student is unable to complete the training in the designated time?

139
Q

What code is used to indicate a student’s status in CeTARS?

A

PEVT (personnel event) codes

140
Q

What are methods utilized to recognize students?

A

Student of the Quarter (excel in academic performance AND all areas of military performance). Activity Honor Roll (academic performance only).

141
Q

How can an ASVAB score assist an instructor?

A

May be used to gauge a student’s learning ability if they are unable to grasp the curriculum.

142
Q

What is the 6 +2 Program?

A

A methodology designed to improve the learning process by dividing the instructional day into a 6 hour block of instruction and a 2 hour block for enhanced learning and remediation.

143
Q

What type of training activities must establish ARBs?

A

“A” and “C” schools

144
Q

What may be necessary to conduct after a student is unable to achieve the objectives after counseling, remediation, retesting, and an initial academic setback?

145
Q

When recommending a drop from training, the student must first demonstrate what?

A

Unwillingness or inability to continue training.

146
Q

What is the required composition of an ARB?

A

A chairman and at least two additional members. At least one member is a certified instructor in the area in which the student is having difficulty.

147
Q

What measure can be taken to prevent the ARB recorder from taking excessive notes?

A

Student may provide written responses to typically asked questions prior to convening.

148
Q

A formal course review must not exceed how many years?

149
Q

What program is conducted to satisfy staff training requirements?

A

IS (in-service) training.

150
Q

What methods of testing may be used to gauge a student’s comprehension?

A

Pretest, Progress Test, Comprehensive Test, Quiz, Oral Test.

151
Q

What grade range on a test would indicate superior understanding or performance?

152
Q

What is the purpose of a NRTC?

A

A self-study package designed to help a student acquire Navy professional or military knowledge.

153
Q

Why is it important for an evaluator to observe students during laboratory training?

A

Provides feedback on the quality and safety of the training.

154
Q

What does an “F” school provide?

A

Training to learn a functional skill (No NEC awarded)

155
Q

What authoring tool does the Navy utilize for authoring computer based training?

156
Q

What does the acronym AIM stand for?

A

Authoring Instructional Materials

157
Q

What are some examples of Visual Information (VI)?

A

Wall Charts, Films, Video, Transparencies, Graphic Media

158
Q

How are training materials maintained as current and accurate?

A

Surveillance

159
Q

A TPP can be initiated at what level of authority?

A

CO/OIC of training command or higher authority.

160
Q

When should a learning objective not be written?

A

When the LO cannot be measured.

161
Q

Development of the LESSON PLAN, TRAINEE GUIDE and Tests occur in what order?

A

Simultaneously as good ideas are generated.

162
Q

What are the minimum elements of a lesson plan?

A

Front Matter, Lesson Topics

163
Q

DPs (discussion points) should not usually exceed what level of subheadings?

164
Q

Lesson plans may be organized into multiple volumes. A volume consists of how many sheets of paper?

A

Approximately 200

165
Q

How are Front Matter pages numbered?

A

Consecutively using Arabic numerals

166
Q

What are “Paper and pencil” alternatives?

A

Term used when an objective is modified due to prohibitive financial costs. Opportunity for hands-on training are substituted?

167
Q

What is the primary tool for determining if the trainee has attained the courses enabling and terminal objectives?

168
Q

Determining which LOs to test are based on the criticality of the skill. Skill levels are broken down into what three categories?

A

High, Moderate, Low

169
Q

K1-K5 refer to what?

A

Levels of learning in which knowledge will be used on-the-job. (NAVEDTRA 130B)

  • K1 – Recognize
  • K2 – Recall
  • K3 – Comprehend
  • K4 – Apply
  • K5 - Analyze/Synthesize/Evaluate
170
Q

What type of test may be given at different points within the course to assess trainee progress?

A

Progress test

171
Q

What is described as a short test, often devised by the instructor and used to assess understanding of recently taught material?

172
Q

Testing should occur after how many periods of instruction?

173
Q

What is the purpose of Instruction Sheets and the TRAINEE GUIDE?

A

Reinforce or supplement training provided in the formal training environment.

174
Q

What type of learning objectives must be formally tested?

A

Those ranked most critical, the upper one-third

175
Q

Alternate versions of a test may use no more than what percent of the same test items?

176
Q

What instruction governs NMOTC’s test handling, accountability, and administration of examinations?

A

NMOTCINST 1500.15

177
Q

How many examiners may be appointed per course offered?

A

No more than four

178
Q

What pay grade is responsible for administering course tests?

A

E-7 or above

179
Q

Why doesn’t NEMTI administer open book tests?

A

Intended for on-the-job situations that require use of technical documentation.

180
Q

What type of learners prefer a theory-based, analytical approach to learning?

181
Q

What type of learners prefer to learn by becoming involved with the subject and taking an active step-by-step approach?

182
Q

What type of learners learn best from small group discussions, structured exercises, and problem-solving approaches?

183
Q

Example of memory aid?

A

Righty-tighty; lefty-loosey

184
Q

What is the first step in processing information?

185
Q

Theorists believe the duration of information in short-term memory is somewhere between what second range?

A

5-20 seconds

186
Q

Perceived irrelevance, repeated or contradictory information, overriding physical discomfort are examples of what?

A

Barriers during information processing

187
Q

Articulation is understandable speech. You can achieve good articulation in what two ways?

A

ENUNCIATE: Speak clearly.
PRONUNCIATE: Accent syllables and reproduce consonant and vowel sounds in conformity with the accepted standard

188
Q

“Machine-gun delivery” refers to what instructor delivery technique?

A

Rate of speech

189
Q

What term is used to describe a change in the normal pitch or tone of the speaker’s voice?

A

Inflection

MTS (4 decks)

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