MTAP 1: AUBF Flashcards

1
Q
  • A.k.a Joint fluid
A

SINOVIAL FLUID

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2
Q

SINOVIAL FLUID

a.k.a

A

Joint fluid

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3
Q

SINOVIAL FLUID

Found in ____

A

diathroses

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4
Q
  • Ultrafiltrate of plasma with hyaluronic acid
A

SINOVIAL FLUID

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5
Q

SINOVIAL FLUID

  • Ultrafiltrate of _____ with ____
A

plasma
hyaluronic acid

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6
Q

→ It is derived from blood that is filtered by joint cavities (synovium)

A

hyaluronic acid

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7
Q

hyaluronic acid

→ It is derived from blood that is filtered by joint cavities (____)

A

synovium

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8
Q

○ The synovium is composed of ______ which produce hyaluronic acid

A

synoviocytes

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9
Q

→ ____contributes to viscosity of synovial fluid

A

Hyaluronic acid

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10
Q

SINOVIAL FLUID

  • Came from the word ____ = _____
A

Synovia
egg white

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11
Q

T/F: The characteristic viscosity of synovial fluid is the same as the viscosity of egg white

A

TRUE

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12
Q

FUNCTIONS OF SYNOVIAL FLUID:

  • _______
  • _______________
  • Provides ______ to the ______
  • Lessens shock of ________ occurring during activities such as _____ and _____
A

Lubricates joints
Reduces friction between bones
nutrients, articular cartilage
joint compression, walking, jogging

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13
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Method of collection: ______

A

Arthrocentesis

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14
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Specimen collection
→ When collected, _______

A

it should NOT clot

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15
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Specimen collection
; if it clots, there is a presence of _____ which indicates ______ or _____

A

fibrinogen
joint damage
disease

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16
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Specimen Collection)

Volume:
→ Normal: _____

A

<3.5 mL

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17
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Specimen Collection)

Volume:
→ Inflammation: _____

A

> 25 mL

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18
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Specimen collection)

Tube distribution:

A
  1. Na Heparin (sterile)/SPS:
  2. Liquid EDTA/Na Heparins
  3. Non-anticoagulated tubes
  4. Sodium fluoride
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19
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Specimen collection)

Tube distribution:
1. Na Heparin (sterile)/SPS: ________

A

for microbiology

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20
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Specimen collection)

Tube distribution:
2. Liquid EDTA/Na Heparin: ______

A

for hematology

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21
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Specimen collection)

Tube distribution:
○ ______ A is NOT used since it may be mistaken for ______

A

Powdered EDT
crystals

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22
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Specimen collection)

Tube distribution:
3. Non-anticoagulated tubes: ______

A

for chemistry and other tests (serology)

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23
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Specimen collection)

Tube distribution:
4. Sodium fluoride: ______

A

for glucose

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24
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Color:
Normal

A

Colorless to pale yellow

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25
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Color:
inflammation

A

Deeper yellow

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26
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Color:
Bacterial infection (septic arthritis)

A

Greening tinge

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27
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Color:
Traumatic tap or hemorrhagic arthritis

A

Red

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28
Q

Traumatic tap is due to the ____________________ during arthrocentesis, while hemorrhagic arthritis is bleeding in the _______

A

vessels beings punctured
cavity itself

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29
Q

TRAUMATIC TAP

Clot formation:
Dark red

A

(+)

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30
Q

TRAUMATIC TAP

Clot formation:
Light red

A

(-)

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31
Q

TRAUMATIC TAP

Clot formation:
Yellowish

A

(-)

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32
Q

HEMORRHAGIC ARTHRITIS

Clot formation:
Dark red

A

(-)

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33
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Clarity:
Normal

A

Clear

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34
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Clarity:
Turbid

A
  • Leukocytes
  • Fibrin
  • Cell debris
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35
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Clarity:
Radiographic contrast media (RCM)

A

Opaque, Oily, Shimmering

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36
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Clarity:
Milky

A

Crystals

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37
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Clarity:
Ground pepper-like inclusions

A

Ochronosis-degenerative bone disease

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38
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Clarity:
Ground pepper-like inclusions a.k.a

A

ochronotic shards

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39
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Clarity:
Free-floating rice bodies

A
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Degenerative synovium with fibrin
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40
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Viscosity:
* Normally, it should be able to form a string that is _____long

A

4-6 mm

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41
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Viscosity:
normal hyaluronic acid level _____

A

0.3-0.4 g/dL

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42
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Test for viscosity

A
  • Ropes/Mucin Clot test
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43
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Viscosity:
* Ropes/Mucin Clot test a.k.a ____

A

→ “Hyaluronate polymerization test”

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44
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Viscocity)

Ropes/Mucin Clot test
Reagent: ______

A

2-5% acetic acid (HAC)

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45
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Viscocity)

Ropes/Mucin Clot test
○ This polymerizes hyaluronic acid and forms clot

A

2.5% acetic acid (HAC)

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46
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Viscocity)

Ropes/Mucin Clot test
○ 2.5% acetic acid (HAC) polymerizes _______ and forms ____

A

hyaluronic acid
clot

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47
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Viscocity)

Ropes/Mucin Clot test
○ Clot = (+/-) reaction

A

(+) reaction

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48
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Viscocity)

Ropes/Mucin Clot test (Reporting)
Good - _____

A

Solid clot

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49
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Viscocity)

Ropes/Mucin Clot test (Reporting)
Fair - ___

A

soft clot

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50
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Viscocity)

Ropes/Mucin Clot test (Reporting)
Low - ______

A

friable clot

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51
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Viscocity)

Ropes/Mucin Clot test (Reporting)
Poor - ____

A

no clot

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52
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Cell count:
Uses ____

A

hemocytometry

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53
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID

Cell count:
Diluting fluids

A
  1. NSS with methylene blue
  2. Hypotonic saline (0.3%)
  3. Saline with saponin
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54
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Cell count)

Two methods:
→ Add a pinch of ________ to _____ synovial fluid
→ Add ____drop of ________ in ________
per mL of fluid
○ Incubate at ____ for ______

A

hyaluronidase, 0.5 mL
one, 0.05% hyaluronidase, phosphate buffer
37°C, 5 minutes

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55
Q

T/F: Hypotonic saline (0.3%) and saline with saponin can both cause RBC lysis.

A

TRUE

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56
Q

They are for counting WBCs.

A

Hypotonic saline (0.3%)
Saline with saponin

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57
Q
  • _______ must NOT be used for cell counting
A

Acetic acid

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58
Q

→ It polymerizes hyaluronic acid causing the SF to clot

A

Acetic acid

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59
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Differential count)

RBC Normal value: _____

A

<2000/uL

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60
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Differential count)

WBC Normal value: ______

A

<200/uL

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61
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Differential count)

WBC Differential:
Monocytes/Macrophage Normal Value: ______

A

65%

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62
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Differential count)

WBC Differential:
Neutrophils normal value: ____-

A

25%

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63
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Differential count)

WBC Differential:
Lymphocytes normal value: _____

A

<15%

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64
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

NEUTROPHILS
Description:

A

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (multilobulated)

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65
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

NEUTROPHILS
Significance:

A
  • Bacterial sepsis
  • Crystal-induced inflammation
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66
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

Mononuclear leukocytes (no lobules)

A

Lymphocytes

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67
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

LYMPHOCYTES
Significance:

A

Non-septic inflammation

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68
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

Large mononuclear monocytes, may be vacuolated

A

Macrophages (monocytes)

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69
Q

_________ are the most abundant WBC in synovial fluid

A

Macrophages (monocytes)

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70
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

MACROPHAGES (MONOCYTES)
Significance:

A
  • Normal
  • Increased in viral infection
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71
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

Similar to macrophage, but may be multinucleated, resembling a mesothelial cell

A

Synovial lining cells

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72
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

SYNOVIAL LINING CELLS
Similar to _____, but may be _____, resembling a _______

A

macrophage
multinucleated
mesothelial cell

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73
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

SYNOVIAL LINING CELLS
Significance:

A

Normal

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74
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

Neutrophil containing characteristics ingested “round body”

A

Lupus erythematosus cell (LE cells)

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75
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

LE CELLS
Neutrophil containing characteristics ingested _______

A

“round body”

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76
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

LE CELLS
Significance:

A

Lupus erythematosus

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77
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

Vacuolated macrophage with ingested neutrophil

A

Reiter cells

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78
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

REITER CELLS
Vacuolated ______ with ingested _____

A

macrophage
neutrophil

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79
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

REITER CELLS
Significance:

A
  • Reiter syndrome
  • Non-specific inflammation
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80
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

Neutrophil with dark cytoplasmic granules containing immune complexes

A

RA CELLS

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81
Q

RA CELLS a.k.a

A

Ragocytes

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82
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

RA CELLS
Neutrophil with ______ containing _______

A

dark cytoplasmic granules
immune complexes

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83
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

RA CELLS
Significance:

A
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Immunologic inflammation
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84
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

Macroscopically resembles polished rice; Microscopically shows collagen and fibrin

A

Rice bodies

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85
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

RICE BODIES
(Macroscopically/Microscopically) resembles polished rice

A

Macroscopically

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86
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

RICE BODIES
Macroscopically resembles _____

A

polished rice

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87
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

RICE BODIES
(Microscopically/Microscopically shows collagen and fibrin

A

Microscopically

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88
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

RICE BODIES
Microscopically shows _____ and ____

A

collagen
fibrin

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89
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

RICE BODIES
Significance:

A
  • Tuberculosis
  • Septic and rheumatoid arthritis
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90
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

  • Refractive intracellular and extracellular globules
A

Fat droplets

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91
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

FAT DROPLETS
* Refractive intracellular and extracellular _____

A

globules

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92
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

Stained with sudan dyes

A

Fat droplets

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93
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

FAT DROPLETS
Significance:

A
  • Traumatic injury
  • Chronic inflammation
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94
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

Inclusions within clusters of synovial cells

A

Hemosiderin

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95
Q

CELLS AND INCLUSIONS SEEN IN SYNOVIAL FLUID

HEMOSIDERIN
Significance:

A

Pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS)

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96
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Shape: Needles

A

Monosodium Urate

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97
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Shape: Rhombic square rods

A

Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD)

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98
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Shape: Notched, rhombic plates

A

Cholesterol

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99
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Shape: Flat, variable-shaped plates

A

Corticosteroid

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100
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Shape: Envelope

A

Calcium oxalete

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101
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Shape: Small particles; requires electron microscope

A

Hydroxyapatite/apatite

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102
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Hydroxyapatite a.k.a

A

Calcium phosphate

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103
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Monosodium urate
Shape: _____

A

Needles

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104
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD)
Shape: _____

A

Rhombic square rods

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105
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Cholesterol
Shape: _____

A

Notched, rhombic plates

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106
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Corticosteroid
Shape: _____

A

Flat, variable-shaped plates

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107
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Calcium oxalate
Shape: _____

A

Envelope

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108
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Hydroxyapatite/apatite a.k.a

A

Calcium phosphate

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109
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Hydroxyapatite/apatite
Shape: _____

A

Small particles;

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110
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Which crystal required Electron microscopy?

A

Hydroxyapatite/apatite

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111
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Enumerate the crystal/s with NEGATIVE birefringence

A

Monosodium urate (MSU)
Cholesterol
Calcium oxalate

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112
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Enumerate the crystal/s with POSITIVE birefringence

A

Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD)

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113
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Enumerate the crystal/s with BOTH positive and negative birefringence

A

Corticosteroid

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114
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Why does Corticosteroid have the ability to have both negative and positive birefringence?

A

Due to the variability in shape of corticosteroids

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115
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Enumerate the crystal/s with NO birefringence

A

Hydroxyapatite/apatite

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116
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

why does Hydroxyapatite/apatite have no birefringence?

A

Because it is NOT visible under polarizing microscopes

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117
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Monosodium urate (MSU)
Significance:

A

Gout (inc uric acid)

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118
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD)
Significance:

A

Pseudogout

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119
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD)
Significance: Pseudogout (associated with _______)

A

degenerative arthritis

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120
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Cholesterol
Significance:

A

Extracellular

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121
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Corticosteroid
Significance:

A

Injections

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122
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Calcium oxalate
Significance:

A

Renal dialysis

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123
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Crystal Identification)

Hydroxyapatite/apatite
Significance:

A
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Calcified cartilage degeneration
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124
Q
  • _______ is the relationship between the velocity of ____ and the arrangement of _____.
A

Birefringence
light
crystals.

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125
Q
  • Crystals appear yellow
A

POSITIVE BIREFRINGENCE

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126
Q
  • Crystals appear blue
A

NEGATIVE BIREFRINGENCE

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127
Q

POSITIVE BIREFRINGENCE

  • Light is _____
A

parallel

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128
Q

NEGATIVE BIREFRINGENCE

  • Light is _____
A

perpendicular

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129
Q

→ Determine/detect Presence/Absence of birefringence

A
  • Polarizing microscope
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130
Q

Compensated Polarizing Microscope
→ Uses _____

A

red compensator

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131
Q

→ The microscope used to detect type of birefringence.

A
  • Compensated Polarizing Microscope
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132
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Chemical Examination)

  • Increases when SF glucose is low; because of bacterial infection
A

GLUCOSE

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133
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Chemical Examination)

Significance:
* Most frequently tested chemistry test

A

Glucose

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134
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Chemical Examination)

GLUCOSE
Significance:
* Blood glucose – synovial fluid glucose = _______ (normal)

A

<10 mg/dL

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135
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Chemical Examination)

Significance:
* Increased in infections

A

Lactate

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136
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Chemical Examination)

The byproduct of glycose during infections

A

Lactate

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137
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Chemical Examination)

LACTATE
Significance:
* Normal: _______

A

<250 mg/dL

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138
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Chemical Examination)

  • Increased in inflammatory and hemorrhagic disorders
A

Protein

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139
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Chemical Examination)

PROTEIN
Significance:
* Increased in _____ and _______ disorders

A

inflammatory
hemorrhagic

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140
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Chemical Examination)

PROTEIN
Significance:
* Normal: _____

A

<3 g/dL

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141
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Chemical Examination)

Significance:
* Increased in gout

A

Uric Acid

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142
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Chemical Examination)

URIC ACID
Significance:
* Normal: ______

A

same as blood

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143
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Microbiology Test)

  • Common organisms that infect synovial fluid
A
  1. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Streptococcus
  3. Haemophilus
  4. Neisseria gonorrhea
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144
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Microbiology Test)

Which is the most predominant organism that infects the SF

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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145
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Microbiology Test)

Which causes gonococcal arthritis?

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

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146
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Serologic Tests)

  • Autoantibody detection:
A

SLE
RF

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147
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Serologic Tests)

Autoantibody detection:
SLE :_______

A

Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

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148
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Serologic Tests)

Autoantibody detection:
RA :_______

A

Rf (Rheumatoid factor)

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149
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Serologic Tests)

→ Frequent complication is arthritis

A

Lyme disease

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150
Q

SYNOVIAL FLUID (Serologic Tests)

LYME DISEASE
Caused by: _____

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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151
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

Enumerate the different Group Classifications

A

Non-inflammatory
Inflammatory (Immunologic)
Inflammatory (Crystal-induced)
Septic
Hemorrhagic

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152
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

NON-INFLAMMATORY
Significance: ______

A

Degenerative joint disorder (osteoarthritis)

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153
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

INFLAMMATORY (Immunologic)
Significance: ______

A

Immunologic disorders (RA, SLE etc.)

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154
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

INFLAMMATORY (Crystal-induced)
Significance: ______

A
  • Gout (MSU);
  • Pseudogout (CPPD)
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155
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

SEPTIC
Significance: ______

A

Microbial infection

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156
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

HEMORRHAGIC
Significance: ______

A
  • Traumatic injury
  • Coagulation deficiencies
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157
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

NON-INFLAMMATORY
Color and Clarity: ______

A

Clear, yellow fluid

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158
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

INFLAMMATORY (Immunologic)
Color and Clarity: ______

A

Cloudy, yellow fluid

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159
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

INFLAMMATORY (Crystal-induced)
Color and Clarity: ______

A

Cloudy or milky fluid

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160
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

SEPTIC
Color and Clarity: ______

A

Cloudy, green fluid

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161
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

HEMORRHAGIC
Color and Clarity: ______

A

Cloudy, red fluid

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162
Q
A
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163
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

NON-IMFLAMMATORY
Viscosity: ______

A

Good

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164
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

IMFLAMMATORY (Immunologic)
Viscosity: ______

A

Poor

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165
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

IMFLAMMATORY (Crystal-induced)
Viscosity: ______

A

Low

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166
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

SEPTIC
Viscosity: ______

A

Variable

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167
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

HEMORRHAGIC
Viscosity: ______

A

Low

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168
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

NON-INFLAMMATORY
WBC Count: ______

A

<1,000/uL

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169
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

INFLAMMATORY (Immunologic)
WBC Count: ______

A

2,000-75,000/uL

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170
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

INFLAMMATORY (Crystal-induced)
WBC Count: ______

A

Up to 100,000/uL

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171
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

SEPTIC
WBC Count: ______

A

50,000-100,000/uL

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172
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

HJEMORRHAGIC
WBC Count: ______

A

Equal to blood

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173
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

NON-INFLAMMATORY
Neutrophils: ______

A

<30%

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174
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

INFLAMMATORY (Immunologic)
Neutrophils: ______

A

> 50%

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175
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

INFLAMMATORY (Crystal-induced)
Neutrophils: ______

A

<70%

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176
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

SEPTIC
Neutrophils: ______

A

> 75%

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177
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

HEMORRHAGIC
Neutrophils: ______

A

Equal to blood

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178
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

NON-INFLAMMATORY
Glucose: ______

A

Normal

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179
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

INFLAMMATORY (Immunologic)
Glucose: ______

A

Decreased

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180
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

INFLAMMATORY (Crystal-induced)
Glucose: ______

A

Decreased

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181
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

SEPSIS
Glucose: ______

A

Decreased (Increase in lactate)

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182
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

HEMORRHAGIC
Glucose: ______

A

Normal

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183
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

NON-INFLAMMATORY
Others: ______

A

N/A

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184
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

INFLAMMATORY (Immunologic)
Others: ______

A

Autoantibodies

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185
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

INFLAMMATORY (Crystal-induced)
Others: ______

A

(+) Crystals

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186
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

SEPTIC
Others: ______

A

(+) gram stain; (+) culture

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187
Q

JOINT DISORDERS (SYNOVIAL FLUID)

HEMORRHAGIC
Others: ______

A

(+) RBCs

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188
Q

Ultrafiltrate of plasma

A

SEROUS FLUID

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189
Q
  • Fluid between parietal and visceral membranes
A

SEROUS FLUID

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190
Q

SEROUS FLUID

  • Fluid between ______ and _____ membranes
A

parietal
visceral

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191
Q

lines the cavity wall

A

PARIETAL MEMBRANCE

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192
Q

Covers the organs

A

VISCERAL MEMBRANE

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193
Q

THREE TYPS OF SEROUS FLUIDS:

A

→ Pleural fluid
→ Pericardial fluid
→ Peritoneal fluid

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194
Q

THREE TYPS OF SEROUS FLUIDS:

→ Pleural fluid (_____)

A

lungs

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195
Q

THREE TYPS OF SEROUS FLUIDS:

→ Pericardial fluid (________)

A

cardiac muscles/heart

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196
Q

THREE TYPS OF SEROUS FLUIDS:

→ Peritoneal fluid (______)

A

abdominal area

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197
Q

SEROUS FLUID

Main function: to provide ______between _____ and __________

A

lubrication
parietal
visceral membranes

198
Q
  • Accumulation of excess fluid between the membranes
199
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Effusion)

Two types:

A

Transudate
Exudate

200
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Effusion)

  • Caused by systemic conditions
A

Transudate

201
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Effusion)

  • Caused by membrane damage
202
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Effusion)

  • Affects ALL serous fluids
A

Transudate

203
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Effusion)

  • Affects ONLY ONE serous fluid
204
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Effusion)

TRANSUDATE
Causes:

A
  • Hypoproteinemia
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Nephrotic syndrome
  • Cirrhosis
  • Malnutrition
205
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Effusion)

EXUDATE
Causes:

A

Causes:
* Infection
→ Pneumonia (pleural)
→ TB
→ Endocarditis (Pericardial)
* Inflammation
* Malignancy (e.g., Adenoma)

206
Q

T/F: The values of exudate effusions are often ‘less than’ or decreased

A

FALSE; The values of TRANSUDATE effusions are often ‘less than’ or decreased

207
Q
  • Differentiates exudates(+) from transudates(-)
A

Rivalta’s Test

208
Q

Rivalta’s Test

a.k.a

A
  • “Serosamucin clot test”
209
Q

Rivalta’s Test

Procedure: ______

A

→ Unknown fluid (effusion) + water + acetic acid

210
Q

Rivalta’s Test

○ If (+) heavy precipitation = (transudate/exudate)

211
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Specimen Collection)

PLEURAL FLUID
MOC: ________

A

Thoracentesis

212
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Specimen Collection)

PERICARDIAL FLUID
MOC: ________

A

Pericardiocentesis

213
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Specimen Collection)

PERITONEAL FLUID
MOC: ________

A

Paracentesis

214
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Specimen Collection)

T/F: All three methods are different/unique on its own

A

FALSE; All three methods are the same and called as ‘needle aspiration’

215
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Specimen Collection)

EDTA
Tests/laboratory section: ______

A

Cell count; differential count

216
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Specimen Collection)

STERILE HEPARIN TUBE
Tests/laboratory section: ______

A

Microbiology; cytology

217
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Specimen Collection)

HEPARIN TUBE
Tests/laboratory section: ______

218
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Specimen Collection)

PLAIN TUBE
Tests/laboratory section: ______

A

Clotting test

219
Q

SEROUS FLUID (Specimen Collection)

  • If testing for ____, store fluid _____ in _____ during transport
A

pH
anaerobically
ice

220
Q
  • Normal volume is <30 mL
A

PLEURAL FLUID

221
Q

PLEURAL FLUID

  • Normal volume is _____
222
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Color)

NORMAL

A

Clear, pale yellow

223
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Color)

Microbial infection

A

Turbid, white

224
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Color)

Ruptured amoebic abscess

225
Q

Type of extraintestinal amoebiasis

A

Ruptured amoebic abscess

226
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Color)

Brown (_________)

A

Anchovy-sauce like

227
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Color)

Aspergillosis

228
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Color)

Malignant mesothelioma

229
Q

Produced hyaluronic acid causing viscous pleural fluid

A

Malignant mesothelioma

230
Q

Produced hyaluronic acid causing viscous pleural fluid

Produced _______ causing viscous pleural fluid

A

hyaluronic acid

231
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Color)

Chylous material, pseudochylous material

232
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Color)

Hemothorax, hemorrhagic effusion

233
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

Inc. TAG

A

Chylous Effusion

234
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

inc. CHOLE

A

Pseudochylous Effusion

235
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

CHYLOUS EFFUSION
Cause: ____

A

Thoracic duct leakage

236
Q

The thoracic duct is a lymphatic duct, thus, it is rich in ______ and _______

A

lymphocytes
chylomicrons

237
Q
  • Lipoproteins with high concentrations of TAG
A

lymphocytes
chylomicrons

238
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

PSEUDOCHYLOUS EFFUSION
Cause: ____

A

Chronic inflammation/infection

239
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

CHYLOUS EFFUSION
Appearance: ____

A

Milky/white

240
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

PSUEDOCHYLOUS EFFUSION
Appearance: ____

A

Milky/green tinge/”gold paint”

241
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

CHYLOUS EFFUSION
Leukocytes: ____

A

Lymphocytes

242
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

PSEUDOCHYLOUS EFFUSION
Leukocytes: ____

A

Mixed cells

243
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

CHYLOUS EFFUSION
Cholesterol crystal: ____

244
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

PSEUDOCHYLOUS EFFUSION
Cholesterol crystal: ____

245
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

CHYLOUS EFFUSION
TAG: ____

A

> 100 mg/dL

246
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

PSEDOCHYLOUS EFFUSION
TAG: ____

247
Q

Primarily stains TAG

A

Sudan III staining

248
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

CHYLOUS EFFUSION
Sudan III staining: ____

249
Q

MILKY PLEURAL FLUID

PSEDOCHYLOUS EFFUSION
Sudan III staining: ____

250
Q

T/F: Psuedochylous effusion can sometimes stain weakly (+) in Sudan III Staining

251
Q

BLOOD PLEURAL FLUID

Conditions:

A

Hemothorax
Hemorrhagic effusion

252
Q

BLOOD PLEURAL FLUID

  • Normal amount of pleural fluid but with blood
A

HEMOTHORAX

253
Q

BLOOD PLEURAL FLUID

Examples of Hemothorax

A

Truamatic tap injury

254
Q

BLOOD PLEURAL FLUID

  • Due to membrane damage
A

Hemorrhagic Effusion

255
Q

BLOOD PLEURAL FLUID

  • Increased pleural fluid with blood
A

Hemorrhagic Effusion

256
Q

BLOOD PLEURAL FLUID

HEMOTHROAX
Distribution of blood: _____

257
Q

BLOOD PLEURAL FLUID

HEMORRHAGIC EFFUSION
Distribution of blood: _____

258
Q

BLOOD PLEURAL FLUID

Differentiates hemothorax from hemorrhagic effusion

A

Hematocrit

259
Q

BLOOD PLEURAL FLUID

HEMOTHORAX
Hematocrit: PF Hct is ____ of WB Hct

260
Q

BLOOD PLEURAL FLUID

HEMORRHAGIC EFFUSION
Hematocrit: PF Hct is ____ of WB Hct

261
Q

PLEURAL FLUID CELLS

Enumerate:

A

Neutrophil
Lymphocyte
Mesothelial cells
Plasma cells
Malignant cells
Eosinophil

262
Q

PLEURAL FLUID CELLS

NEUTROPHIL
Significance:

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Pancreatitis
  • Pulmonary infarction
263
Q

PLEURAL FLUID CELLS

LYMPHOCYTE
Significance:

A
  • Tuberculosis
  • Viral infections
  • Autoimmune disorders
  • Malignancy
264
Q

PLEURAL FLUID CELLS

  • Normally present regardless of form
A

Mesothelial cells

265
Q

PLEURAL FLUID CELLS

  • If it is decreased, indicative of tuberculosis
A

Mesothelial cells

266
Q

Lines the serous membrane lining; it has two forms: normal and reactive

A

MESOTHELIAL CELLS

267
Q

MESOTHELIAL CELLS

Lines the ______; it has two forms: ____ and ____

A

serous membrane lining
normal; reactive

268
Q

PLEURAL FLUID CELLS

PLASMA CELLS
Significance:

A

Tuebrculosis

269
Q

PLEURAL FLUID CELLS

MALIGNANT CELLS
Significance:

A
  • Primary adenocarcinoma
  • Small cell carcinoma
  • Metastatic carcinoma
270
Q

PLEURAL FLUID CELLS

Eosinophil must be ____

271
Q

PLEURAL FLUID CELLS

  • Trauma resulting from presence of air or blood in pleural fluid sample
A

Eosinophil (>10%)

272
Q

PLEURAL FLUID CELLS

EOSINOPHIL (>10%)
Significance:
* May be due to ____ or ____infection

A

allergy
parasitic

273
Q

Tumor Markers for Effusions of Malignant Origin

ENUMERATE

A

CEA
CA125
CA 15-3, CA 549
CYFRA 21-1

274
Q

Meaning of CEA

A

Carcino Embryonic Antigen

275
Q

Meaning of CYFRA

A

Cytokeratin fragment

276
Q

Tumor Markers for Effusions of Malignant Origin

Tumor marker for COLON CANCER

A

CEA
(Carcino Embryonic Antigen)

277
Q

Tumor Markers for Effusions of Malignant Origin

Tumor marker for METASTATIC URINE CANCER

278
Q

Tumor Markers for Effusions of Malignant Origin

Tumor marker for BREASTCANCER

A

CA 15-3, CA 549

279
Q

Tumor Markers for Effusions of Malignant Origin

Tumor marker for LUNG CANCER

A

CYFRA 21-1
(Cytokeratin fragment)

280
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Chemistry)

What are the different test/panels?

A

Glucose
Lactate
TAG
pH
Adenosine deaminase
Amylase

281
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Chemistry)

Significance:
Decreased in cases of rheumatoid inflammation, tuberculosis, and purulent infections

282
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Chemistry)

GLUCOSE
Significance:
Decreased in cases of ____, ___, and _______

A

rheumatoid inflammation
TB
purulent infections

283
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Chemistry)

Significance:
Increased in bacterial infection

284
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Chemistry)

Significance:
Chylous effusion

285
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Chemistry)

Significance:
* Decreased/acidic in cases of:
→ when pneumonia is NOT responding to antibiotics
→ complicated parapneumonic effusion (associated with emphyema)

286
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Chemistry)

pH
Significance:
* ______ in cases of:
→ when ____ is NOT responding to antibiotics
→ complicated _______ (associated with _____)

A

Decreased/acidic
pneumonia
parapneumonic effusion; emphyema

287
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Chemistry)

Significance:
Malignancy, tubercular effusion

A

ADENOSINE DEAMINASE

288
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Chemistry)

ADENOSINE DEAMINASE
Significance:
______, _____

A

Malignancy
tubercular effusion

289
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Chemistry)

Significance:
Esophageal rupture, malignancy, increased in pancreatitis

290
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Chemistry)

AMYLASE
Significance:
____, _______, increased in _____

A

Esophageal rupture
malignancy
pancreatitis

291
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Microbiologic Test)

  • Common causes of pleural effusion are:
A

→ S. aureus
→ Enterobacteriaceae
→ M. tuberculosis
→ Anaerobic bacteria

292
Q

PLEURAL FLUID (Microbiologic Test)

○ These can cause septic pleural effusion

A

→ Anaerobic bacteria

293
Q
  • Normal volume is <50 mL
A

PERICARDIAL FLUID

294
Q

PERICARDIAL FLUID

  • Normal volume is ____
295
Q

PERICARDIAL FLUID (Appearance)

  • Normal
  • Transudate presence
A

Clear, pale yellow

296
Q

PERICARDIAL FLUID (Appearance)

  • Infection
  • Malignancy
A

Blood-streaked

297
Q

PERICARDIAL FLUID (Appearance)

  • Cardiac puncture
  • Anticoagulant medication
A

Grossly bloody

298
Q

PERICARDIAL FLUID (Differential Count)

Bacterial endocarditis

A

Increased neutrophils

299
Q

PERICARDIAL FLUID (Differential Count)

Metastatic carcinoma

A

Malignant cells

300
Q

PERICARDIAL FLUID (TESTS/PANELS)

Purpose:
* Bacterial infection
* Malignancies

A

Decreased glucose

301
Q

PERICARDIAL FLUID (TESTS/PANELS)

Purpose:
Bacterial endocarditis

A

Gram stain and culture

302
Q

PERICARDIAL FLUID (TESTS/PANELS)

Purpose:
Tubercular effusion (MTB)

A

Acid-fast stain

303
Q

PERICARDIAL FLUID (TESTS/PANELS)

Purpose:
Tubercular effusion

A

Adenosine deaminase

304
Q

Common Causes of Pericardial Effusion

A
  • Haemophilus
  • Staphylococcus
  • Streptococcus
  • Viruses: Adenovirus and coxsackievirus
305
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID

a.k.a

A
  • “Ascitic fluid”
306
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID

effusion in the peritoneal cavity

307
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID

  • Normal volume: ____
308
Q

→ Most abundant serous fluid due to size of ______

A

PERITONEAL FLUID
abdominal area

309
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Appearance)

Normal

A

Clear, pale yellow

310
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Appearance)

Microbial infection

311
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Appearance)

Gall bladder or pancreatic disorder

312
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Appearance)

  • Trauma
  • Infection
  • Malignancy
A

Blood-streaked

313
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Appearance)

Lymphatic trauma and leakage

314
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Cell Count)

WBC COUNT
Normal: ___

315
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Cell Count)

WBC COUNT: 500 uL
Significance: ____

A
  • Bacterial peritonitis
  • Cirrhosis
316
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Cell Count)

DIFFERENTIAL COUNT
Bacterial peritonitis

A

Increased neutrophils

317
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Cell Count)

DIFFERENTIAL COUNT
Malignancy

A

Malignant cells

318
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Tests)

Enumerate the Tests/Panels

A

Peritoneal lavage
CEA
CA 125
Glucose
Amylase
Alkaline phosphatase
BUN/Creatinine
Gram stain and culture
Acid-fast stain
Adenosine deaminase

319
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Tests)

a sensitive test to detect intraabdominal bleeding

A

Peritoneal lavage

320
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Tests)

Significance: 100,000 RBC/uL

A

Peritoneal lavage

321
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Tests)

PERITONEAL LAVAGE
Significance: _____ indicances blunt trauma injury

A

100,000 RBC/uL

322
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Tests)

Significance: Malignancy - GI origin

323
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Tests)

Significance: Malignancy - Ovarian origin

324
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Tests)

Significance: Decreased in tubercular peritonitis, malignancy

325
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Tests)

Significance: Increased in pancreatitis

326
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Tests)

Significance: Increased in GI perforation

A

Alkaline phosphatase

327
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Tests)

Significance: Ruptured/punctured bladder

A

BUN/Creatinine

328
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Tests)

Significance: Bacterial peritonitis

A

Gram stain and culture

329
Q

PERITONEAL FLUID (Tests)

Significance: Tubercular peritonitis

A

Adenosine deaminase

330
Q
  • Contains concentric striations of collagen-like material
A

Psammoma Bodies

331
Q

Psammoma Bodies

  • Seen in benign conditions associated with
    → ____; and
    → ____malignancies
A

Ovarian
Thyroid

332
Q

3rd major body fluid

333
Q

CSF

Functions:
* Supplies nutrients to the ____
* Removes _____ in the brain
* Produces a _____ to cushion the brain and ___ against ___.

A

nervous system
metabolic waste
mechanical barrier; spinal cord; trauma

334
Q
  • Brain is lined/covered by
335
Q

MENINGES

  • Singular is ___
336
Q

MENINGES

  • Consists of three layers: ________
A

dura mater
arachnoid mater
pia mater

337
Q

MENINEGS

  • Outermost layer
A

Dura Mater

338
Q

MENINEGS

Dura mater a.k.a

A

Tough mother

339
Q

MENINEGS

  • ‘Spider-like’ appearance because it is filamentous
A

Arachnoid Mater

340
Q

MENINEGS

  • Filamentous inner membrane
A

Arachnoid Mater

341
Q

MENINEGS

→ Filaments are known as ____

A

trabeculae

342
Q

MENINEGS

  • Innermost layer
343
Q

MENINEGS

  • Literally means “______”
A

Pia Mater
* tender mother

344
Q

MENINEGS

  • Directly lines the brain and the spinal cord
345
Q
  • Space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater where the CSF flows
A

Subarachnoid Space

346
Q

ultrafiltrate of plasma

347
Q

CSF PRODUCTION

  • ____ is filtered by the ____, producing CSF
A

Plasma
choroid plexus

348
Q

CSF PRODUCTION

Choroid Plexus
Rate of production/filtration: ________

A

20 mL/hr (~500 mL/day; 0.3-0.4 mL/min)

349
Q

CSF PRODUCTION

→ Rate of production is regulated by arachnoid villi

A

Choroid Plexus

350
Q

CSF PRODUCTION

Choroid Plexus:
→ Rate of production is regulated by ____

A

arachnoid villi

351
Q

CSF PRODUCTION

  • Composed of tight junctions of endothelial cells
A

Choroid Plexus

352
Q

CSF PRODUCTION

Choroid Plexus
* Composed of tight junctions of ______

A

endothelial cells

353
Q

CSF PRODUCTION

→ Make up the blood brain barrier

A

tight junctions of endothelial cells

354
Q

CSF PRODUCTION

  • Prevents passage of many molecules, protecting the brain from toxins or other harmful materials that can harm the brain
A

Blood Brain Barrier (BBB)

355
Q

CSF PRODUCTION

Arachnoid Villi a.k.a

A
  • “Arachnoid granulation”
356
Q

CSF PRODUCTION

  • Granulations that reabsorb circulating CSF back to the peripheral circulation
A

Arachnoid Villi

357
Q

CSF PRODUCTION

Arachnoid Villi
Rate or reabsorption: ____

358
Q

CSF COLLECTION AND HANDLING

Method of Collection:

A
  • Lumbar/External puncture
  • Cisternal puncture
359
Q

CSF COLLECTION AND HANDLING

Method of Collection:
* Lumbar/External puncture a.k.a

A

spinal tap

360
Q

CSF COLLECTION AND HANDLING

Method of Collection:
* Cisternal puncture a.k.a

A

suboccipital puncture

361
Q

CSF COLLECTION AND HANDLING

Method of Collection:
→ Needle is inserted between the 3rd and 4th vertebra or between the 4th and 5th vertebra

A
  • Lumbar/External puncture or spinal tap
362
Q

CSF COLLECTION AND HANDLING

Lumbar/External puncture or spinal tap
→ Needle is inserted between the ____ and ____ vertebra or between the ___ and ____ vertebra

A

3rd
4th
4th
5th

363
Q

CSF COLLECTION AND HANDLING

Method of Collection:
→ Puncture is directly below the occipital bone

A
  • Cisternal puncture or suboccipital puncture
364
Q

CSF COLLECTION AND HANDLING

Method of Collection:
→ More dangerous since it is near the brain stem

A
  • Cisternal puncture or suboccipital puncture
365
Q

CSF COLLECTION AND HANDLING

Cisternal puncture or suboccipital puncture:
→ Puncture is directly (above/below) the ______

A

below
occipital bone

366
Q

CSF COLLECTION AND HANDLING

Maximum amount of volume to be collected: ____

367
Q

CSF tubes

First tube:

A

Chemistry/Serology

368
Q

T/F: The first tube is brought to the chemistry and serology section because the tests performed are least affected by blood or bacteria that is present or introduced during collection

369
Q

CSF Tubes

Second tube:

A

Microbiology

370
Q

T/F: The second tube is brought to the microbiology section because it is no longer at risk of bacterial contamination due to collection of CSF.

371
Q

CSF Tubes

Third tube

A

Hematology

372
Q

The third tube is delivered to the hematology section because it is least likely to have ___

A

skin cells

373
Q

CSF TUBES
T/F: Fourth tubes are optional

374
Q

CSF TUBES

Fourth tube:

A

Microbiology
Chemistry
Serology

375
Q

The fourth tube is brought to ____ to further ensure the absence of bacteria

A

microbiology

376
Q

Chemistry/Serology

Storage: ______

377
Q

Microbiology

Storage: ____

378
Q

Hematology

Storage: ___

A

Refrigirated

379
Q
  • If one tube only due to insufficient amount of sample, deliver CSF first to ____ –> _____ –> ____
A

microbiology
hematology
chemistry and serology

380
Q

CSF GROSS ANALYSIS

CSF Normal Volume
Adults: ____

381
Q

CSF GROSS ANALYSIS

CSF Normal Volume
Neonates: ____

382
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

Normal

A

Crystal clear

383
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

Hazy/Turbid/Milky/Cloudy

A
  • WBCs (>200/uL)
  • RBCs (>400/uL)
  • Microorganisms
  • Proteins
  • Lipids
  • Infection (meningitis)
384
Q

Abnormal discoloration of CSF

A

Xanthochromia

385
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

  • Presence of RBC degradation products (pink, orange, and yellow CSF)
A

Xanthochromia

386
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

Xanthochromia
* Presence of RBC degradation products (__, ___, and ___CSF)

A

pink
orange
yellow

387
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

XANTOCHROMIA
* Pink – Slight amount of ___

388
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

XANTOCHROMIA
* Orange – _____

A

Heavy hemolysis

389
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

XANTOCHROMIA
Yellow (2):
→ ____ conversion to ___
→ Presence of ____ in CSF is known as ____

A

Oxyhemoglobin; bilirubin

bilirubin; bilirachia

390
Q

supernatant
Xanthochromia
Other causes:

A

→ Increase in protein (>150 mg/dL)
→ Presence of melanin
→ Presence of carotene
→ Presence of anti-TB drugs (Rifampicin)
→ Anti-septic contamination (iodine)

391
Q

CSF APPEARANCE (Checking for xanthochromia)

  • Centrifuge CSF sample and check _____ against ____
A

supernatant
white background

392
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

XANTOCHROMIA:
Increase in ___ may be due to damage of ___ and may lead to ___

A

protein
BBB
yellowish discoloration

393
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

XANTOCHROMIA:
Presence of ____ may be due to _____

A

melanin
meningeal melanosarcoma

394
Q
  • Vitamin A precursor
395
Q
  • May be seen during hypervitaminosis A
396
Q

CAROTENE

  • May be seen during _______
A

hypervitaminosis A

397
Q
  • Gives an orange discoloration to CSF
398
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

XANTOCHROMIA
_____ gives a red-orange color

A

Rifampicin

399
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

XANTOCHROMIA
____ gives a yellowish discoloration to CSF

400
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

Increased RBCs (____)

A

BLOODY
>6000/uL

401
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

BLOODY
Increased RBCs (>6000/uL) which may be due to:

A
  • Traumatic tap
  • Intracranial hemorrhage
402
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

Radiographic contrast media

403
Q

CSF APPERANCE

  • Main reason is due to fibrinogen
404
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

  • Meningitis
  • Froin syndrome
  • Blockage of CSF circulation
  • Traumatic tap
405
Q

a mixture of xanthochromia, increased protein, and hypercoagulability

A

Froin syndrome

406
Q

FROIN SYNDROME

a mixture of ____, increased ___, and ____

A

xanthochromia
protein
hypercoagulability

407
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

Tubercular meningitis

A

Pellicle (web-like surface)

408
Q

CSF APPEARANCE

In tubercular meningitis, ___ appear only if CSF is stored ___ in a ____

A

pellicles
overnight
refrigerator

409
Q

BLOODY CSF

May be caused by 2 conditons:

A

Traumatic trap
Intracranial Hemorrhage

410
Q

BLOODY CSF

Distributuon of blood: uneven

A

TRAUMATIC TAP

411
Q

BLOODY CSF

Even distrubution

A

Intracranial Hemorrhage

412
Q

BLOODY CSF (Traumatic tap)

Clot formation: ___

413
Q

BLOODY CSF (Intracranial Hemorrhage)

Clot formation: ____

414
Q

BLOODY CSF (Traumatic tap)

Supernatant: ___

415
Q

BLOODY CSF (Intracranial Hemorrhage)

Supernatant: ____

A

Reddish (Xantrochromic)

416
Q

Macrophages with ingested RBC

A

Erythrophages

417
Q

BLOODY CSF (Traumatic tap)

Erythropages: ___

418
Q

BLOODY CSF (Intracranial Hemorrhage)

Eryhthrophages: ___

419
Q

BLOODY CSF (Intracranial Hemorrhage)

ERYHTROPHAGES (-):
Aside from RBCs, ____ and _____ can be seen in the macrophage

A

hemosiderin
hematoidin crystals

420
Q

an RBC degradation pigment

421
Q

BLOODY CSF (Traumatic tap)

D-dimer: ___

422
Q

BLOODY CSF (Intracranial Hemorrhage)

D-dimer: __

423
Q

a fibrin degradation product

424
Q

CSF (Viscocity)

Normal

A

Water-like

425
Q

CSF (Viscosity)

Viscous CSF
Clinical significance:

A
  • Metastatic mucin-producing adenocarcinoma
  • Cryptococcal meningitis
  • Liquid nucleus pulposus
426
Q
  • Polysaccharide capsule of C. neoformans contributes to the viscosity of CSF
A

Fungal meningitis

427
Q

Fungal meningitis
* ____ of ____contributes to the viscosity of CSF

A

Polysaccharide capsule
C. neoformans

428
Q

CSF CELL COUNT

  • Any cell count procedures must be performed _____
A

IMMEDIATELY

429
Q

CSF CELL COUNT

→ WBC and RBC begin to lyse within____ after collection

430
Q

CSF CELL COUNT

→ ____ of WBCs disintegrate within ___

A

40%

2 hours

431
Q
  • Routinely performed on CSF
432
Q

WBC COUNT

Normal values
→ Adults: ___

A

0-5 WBC/uL

433
Q

WBC COUNT

Normal values:
→ Neonates: _____

A

0-30 WBC/uL

434
Q

WBC COUNT

Diluting fluid: ___

A

3% HAc with methylene blue

435
Q

WBC COUNT (diluting fluid)

→ ____ lyses RBCs (it is ___)

A

3% HAc
hypotonic

436
Q

WBC COUNT (diluting fluid)

to stain the WBC for easier visualization

A

Methylen blue

437
Q
  • NOT routinely done in CSF since it is is NOT normally present in CSF
438
Q

→ Done in cases of traumatic tap

439
Q
  • To correct for WBC count and total protein concentration
440
Q

RBC Count

To correct:
→ Subtract __ WBC (in the WBC count) for every ___RBCs seen

441
Q

RBC COUNT

To correct:
→ Subtract _____in total protein concentration for every _____

A

8 mg/dL
10,000 RBCs/uL

442
Q
  • Performed on a stained CSF smear
A

CSF DIFFERNTIAL COUNT

443
Q
  • Specimen should be concentrated first before preparing a smear
A

CSF DIFFERNTIAL COUNT

444
Q

CSF DIFFERNTIAL COUNT

  • Ways to concentrate CSF
A

→ Routine centrifugation
→ Cytocentrifugation
→ Sedimentation
→ Filtration

445
Q

CSF (Routine Centrifugation)

  • CSF is centrifuged for ____
A

5-10 minutes

446
Q

CSF (Routine Centrifugation)

→ ____is removed; can be used for other tests (___)

A

Supernatant
chemistry

447
Q

CSF (Routine Centrifugation)

→ ____ is used for smear preparation

448
Q

CSF (Routine Centrifugation)

SEDIMENT:
After making a smear, the sediment should be air dried in what temperature?

A

Room temperature

449
Q

CSF (Routine Centrifugation)

SEDIMENT:
After airdrying, the sediment is stained with ___

A

Wright stain

450
Q

CSF (Routine Centrifugation)

  • ___cells are classified
451
Q

CSF (Routine Centrifugation)

  • Reported in terms of ___-
A

percentage

452
Q

CSF (Cytocentrifugation)

  • Fluid is added to a ____
A

conical chamber

453
Q

CSF (Cytocentrifugation)

  • Cells are forced into a ____ within a ___ diameter circle on the slide
A

monolayer
6mm

454
Q

CSF (Cytocentrifugation)

  • Addition of _____
A

30% albumin

455
Q

CSF (Cytocentrifugation)

The addition of 30% albumin promotes:
→ Increases ____
→ Decreases ______

A

→ Increases cell yield or recovery
→ Decreases cellular distortion

456
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

Enumerate

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes
Neutrophils
Macrophage
Blast forms
Lymphoma cells
plasma cells
Ependymal, choroidal and spindle-shaped cells
Malignant cells

457
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

  • Normal[
A

Lymphocyes and monocyetes

458
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

Normal lymphocytes and monocytes:
* Adults: __ lymphocytes, __ monocytes

459
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

Normal lymphocytes and monocytes:
* Neonates: ___lymphocytes, _____ monocytes

A

30%
70-80%

460
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

increased in lymphocytes and monocytes called:

A

pleocytosis

461
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

PLEOCYTOSIS
Clincial signfiicance:

A

→ Viral, tubercular, and fungal meningitis
→ Multiple sclerosis

462
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

NEUTROPHILS
Clinical significance:

A
  • Normal
  • Bacterial meningitis
  • Early case of viral, tubercular, and fungal meningitis
  • Cerebral hemorrhage
463
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

Intracranial hemorrhage

A

Macrophage

464
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

Acute leukemia

A

Blast forms

465
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

Examples fo blast forms are:

A

lymphoblasts
myeloblasts
monoblasts.

466
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

Disseminated lymphoma

A

Lymphoma cells

467
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

PLASMA CELLS
Clinical significance:

A
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Lymphocyte reactions
468
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

Diagnostic procedures performed in the brain

A

Ependymal, choroidal, and spindle-shaped cells

469
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

Examples of procedures performed in the brain:

A

Neurosurgery
Pneumoencephalography

470
Q

is the removal of CSF from the meninge/brain to make the brain more visible in x-rays

A

Neurosurgery
Pneumoencephalography

471
Q

Predominant Cells in CSF

MALIGNANT CELLS
Clinical Significance:

A
  • Metastatic carcinoma
  • Primary CNS carcinoma
472
Q
  • Most frequently performed CSF chemistry test
A

CSF CHEMISTRY

473
Q

CSF CHEMISTRY

Normal values:
→ Adults: _____

A

15-45 mg/dL

474
Q

CSF CHEMISTRY

Normal values:
→ Infants: ____

475
Q

CSF CHEMISTRY

Normal values:
→ Immature: _____

476
Q

CSF CHEMISTRY

Normal values:
→ Infants and immature babies have higher ____ values since their ____ is not well intact

A

protein
BBB

477
Q
  • The major CSF protein is _____
478
Q
  • The 2nd most prevalent CSF protein is _____
A

pre-albumin

479
Q

OTHER CSF PROTEINS

ALPHA-GLOBULINS:

A

Haptoglobin
ceruloplasmin

480
Q

OTHER CSF PROTIENS

BETA-GLOBULINS:

A

ß2-transferrin
“Tau” protein

481
Q

OTHER CSF PROTEINS

GAMMA-GLOBULINS:

A

IgG and IgA

482
Q

___ is a carbohydrate-deficient transferrin; it is only present in CSF

483
Q

Proteins NOT found in CSF:

A

IgM
FIBRINOGEN
LIPORPTOEINS

484
Q

Why is IgM Not found in the CSF?

filtered out by ____
→ Is a ___ (bigger molecular size)
→ Cannot pass through the ___

485
Q

CLINICAL CAUSES OF ABNORMAL CSF PROTEIN VALUES

ELEVATED RESULTS:

A
  • Meningitis
  • Hemorrhage
  • Primary CNS tumors
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome
  • Neurosyphilis
  • Polyneuritis
  • Myxedema
  • Cushing diseases
  • Connective tissue disease
  • Polyneuritis
  • Diabetes
  • Uremia
486
Q

CLINICAL CAUSES OF ABNORMAL CSF PROTEIN VALUES

Most common cause of elevated results is damage to ____ (___ and _____)

A

BBB
meningitis
hemorrhage

487
Q

CLINICAL CAUSES OF ABNORMAL CSF PROTEIN VALUES

results to an increase in plasma cells;

A

Multiple Sclerosis

488
Q

CLINICAL CAUSES OF ABNORMAL CSF PROTEIN VALUES

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
results to an increase in ____

A

plasma cells

489
Q

plasma cells produce ____

A

immunoglobulins

490
Q

CLINICAL CAUSES OF ABNORMAL CSF PROTEIN VALUES

DECREASED RESULTS

A
  • CSF leakage/trauma
  • Recent puncture
  • Rapid CSF production
  • Water intoxication