MTAP 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The method of scratching the skin and applying pulverized powder from a smallpox scab

A

Variolation (inoculation or insufflation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Live attenuated vaccine was discovered by

A

Louis Pasteur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

It involves the use of bacteria or viruses that have been weakened through exposure to modifying conditions such as chemical treatment, hot or cold temperatures, aging, or repeated in vitro passage in cell culture.

A

Attenuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

It is an antigen suspension derived from a pathogen.

A

Vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Vaccinia pertains to

A

Cowpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Variola major pertains to

A

Smallpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Variola minor pertains to

A

Alastrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Vaccine is a form of

A

Immunoprophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The additional advantage of oral vaccines

A

It can potentially stimulate mucosal immunity as well as humoral antibody production and cell-mediated responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Chicken cholera is now known as

A

Pasteurella multocida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Type of vaccine where live pathogens that have been weakened by growth under modified culture conditions

A

Attenuated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Examples of attenuated vaccine

A

BCG
TYPHOID FEVER
ORAL POLIO
MEASLES, MUMPS
GERMAN MEASLES
CHICKEN POX, ROTAVIRUS
YELLOW FEVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Type of vaccine where the microorganism is killed

A

Inactivated Vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Examples of Inactivated vaccine

A

Intramascularpolio (salk)
Hepatitis A
Influenza (Intramuscular or intradermal), Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A vaccine that are bacterial toxins that have been chemically inactivated so that they are not pathogenic

A

Toxoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Examples of Toxoid vaccine

A

Diphtheria
Pertussis
Tetanus
(DPT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A vaccine that is biochemically purified components of a microorganism

A

Purified components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Example of Purified components vaccine

A

Pertussis (whooping cough)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A vaccine that is biochemically purified polysaccharide from bacterial capsule

A

Polysaccharides vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Example of Polysaccharides vaccine

A

Streptococcal pneumonia,
Haemophilus influenza type b
Neisserial meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A vaccine that a protein produced by genetically modified nonpathogenic bacteria, yeast, or other cells

A

Recombinant antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Example of Recombinant antigen

A

Hepatitis B
Human papilloma virus (cervical, anal, genital cancers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Factors affecting immunogenicity

A

The age of recipient
The individual’s immune status,
The nature of the vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Some vaccines, such as the Live, Attenuated vaccine for Measles, Mumps, and Rubella, are not started until

A

12 to 15 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Meningococcal meningitis and HPV, are not administered until

A

11-12 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The most immunogenic vaccines

A

Live, Attenuated vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the least immunogenic vaccines

A

Purified components (subunits) derived from the pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Jenner

A

Smallpox vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Haeckel

A

Phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pasteur

A

Live, attenuated chicken cholera and anthrax vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Metchnikoff

A

Cellular theory of immunity through phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Marrack

A

Hypothesis of antigen-antibody binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Salk and Sabin

A

Development of polio vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Oral polio vaccine

A

Sabin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Intramuscular polio vaccine

A

Salk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Reed

A

Vaccine against yellow fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

uses anthrax to develop Koch postulate

A

Robert Koch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What year did Louis Pasteur creates the first vaccine for anthrax

A

1881

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

He discovered complement

A

Jules Bordet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

He had the distinction of being awarded as the first immunology related Nobel Prize for his works on serum therapy

A

Emil Von Behring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The researcher of Serum antitoxins

A

Emil Von Behring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The researcher of the Structure of Antibodies

A

Gerald Edelman
Rodney Porter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The researcher of Radioimmunoassay

A

Rosalyn Yalow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The researcher of Antibody Diversity/Specificity

A

Susumu Tonegawa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The researcher of Human immunodeficiency virus

A

Francoise Barre- Sinoussi
Luc Montagnier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The phenomenon in which exposure to one agent produces protection against another agent is known as

A

cross-immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Is the individual’s ability to resist infection by means of normally present body functions. These are considered nonadaptive or nonspecific and are the same for all pathogens or foreign substances to which one is exposed.

A

Innate, or natural immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Is a type of resistance that is characterized by specificity for each individual pathogen, or microbial agent, and the ability to remember a prior exposure, which results in an increased response upon repeated exposure.

A

Acquired immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Natural immunity is responsible for what line of defense

A

First and Second line of defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Adaptive immunity is responsible for what line of defense

A

Third line of defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

An immunity that a pathogen is recognized by receptors encoded in the germline

A

NATURAL or INNATE IMMUNITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

An immunity that a receptors have broad specificity

A

NATURAL or INNATE IMMUNITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

An immunity that a receptors have very narrow specificity; i.e., recognize a specific epitope

A

ADAPTIVE/ ACQUIRED IMMUNITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The external defense system which is composed of structural barriers that prevent most infectious agents from entering the body.

A

First Line of Defense (innate immunity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

an enzyme found in many secretions such as tears and saliva, and it attacks the cell walls of microorganisms, especially those that are gram-positive.

A

Lysozyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Many locations of the body, there is normal flora that often keeps pathogens from establishing themselves in these areas. This phenomenon is known as.

A

competitive exclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Mechanical barriers examples

A

skin, mucous membrane, cilia, mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Chemical barriers examples

A

-Enzymes like lysozyme found in secretions (tears, saliva, sweat)
Lactic acid in sweat
-HCL in the GI tract
-Acid in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Biological barriers examples

A

-Skin and mucous membrane (Steven’s 4th edition)
-Normal flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The internal defense system, in which both cells and soluble factors play essential parts.

A

Second Line of Defense (Innate immunity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cellular component of 2nd line of defense

A

Mast cells
Basophils
Eosinophil
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Dendritic cell
NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Humolar component of 2nd line of defense

A

Complement
Lysozyme
Interferon alpha, and beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Is a more recently evolved mechanism that allows the body to recognize, remember, and respond to a specific stimulus, an antigen.

A

Third Line of Defense (Acquired immunity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Cellular component of 3rd Line of Defense (Acquired immunity)

A

T lymphocytes (majority of cytokines)
B lymphocytes
Plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Humoral component of 3rd Line of Defense (Acquired immunity)

A

Antibodies
Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Wha cells produces the majority of cytokines

A

T Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

It recruits WBC’s for phagocytosis
Coat pathogens to enhance phagocytosis
Mop up debris

A

Acute-phase reactants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Normal serum constituents that increase rapidly by at least 25 percent due to infection, injury, or trauma to the tissues

They are indicator of inflammation

A

Acute-phase reactants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Acute-phase reactants are primarily produced by

A

Hepatocytes (Liver parenchymal cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are examples of cytokines

A

Il-1
IL-6
TNF-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Elevated levels are found in conditions such as Bacterial Infections, Rheumatic Fever, Viral Infections, Malignant Diseases, Tuberculosis, and after a Heart Attack

A

C-Reactive Protein (CRP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Is a trace constituent of serum originally thought to be an antibody to the c-polysaccharide of the pneumococci

A

CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

CRP response time

A

6-10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

CRP normal concentration

A

0.5 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

CRP function

A

Opsonization
Complement activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

CRP main substrate

A

Phosphocholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

CRP binds to specific receptors found on monocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils, which promotes phagocytosis.

A

Monocytes
Macrophages
and Neutrophils,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

It is a significant risk factor for myocardial infarction and ischemic stroke

A

Hs-CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

It is associated with HDL cholesterol, and it is thought to play a role in metabolism of cholesterol (removing cholesterol filled macrophages at the site of tissue injury)

A

SERUM AMYLOID A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

It has been found to increase significantly more in bacterial infections than in viral infections

A

SERUM AMYLOID A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

It is also increased to patients with chronic inflammation, atherosclerosis, and cancer

A

SERUM AMYLOID A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

A trimer that acts as an opsonin, which is calcium-dependent.

A

MANNOSE-BINDING PROTEIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Lack of MBP has been associated with

A

Recurrent Yeast Infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

General plasma inhibitor of proteases released from leukocytes, especially elastase.

It also regulates expression of proinflammatory cytokines such as TNF, Interleukin-1, and IL-6

A

ALPHA1- ANTITRYPSIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

ALPHA1- ANTITRYPSIN deficiency can lead to

A

premature emphysema
juvenile cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

It is the principal copper-transporting protein in human plasma

A

CERULOPLASMIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

decreased CERULOPLASMIN can lead to

A

Wilson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Increased CERULOPLASMIN can lead to

A

Inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

It binds irreversibly to free hemoglobin released

A

Haptoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the types of phagocytosis

A

Direct
Indirect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

via Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRP) that recognize lipid and carbohydrate sequences on microorganisms

A

DIrect phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

via Opsonin receptors that recognize opsonins such as IgG, and C3b bound to microorganisms

A

Indirect phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Stages of phagocytosis according to Rodaks

A

Recognition & Attachment
Ingestion
Killing & Digestion
Formation of NETS (neutrophil extracellular traps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Stages of phagocytosis according to Old Immuno Books

A

Initiation
Chemotaxis
Engulfment
Digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Stages of phagocytosis according to Steven’s

A

Adherence
Outflowing of cytoplasm
Formation of phagosome
Formation of the phagolysosome
Digestion
Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the phagocytic cells

A

Dendritic cells
Monocytes/Macrophage
Neutrophil
Basophil
Eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Stages of phagocytosis according to Turgeon’s

A

Chemotaxis
Adherence
Engulfment
Phagosome formation
Fusion
Digestion and destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the less efficient phagocytes

A

Basophils
Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Most potent phagocytes

A

Dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The most potent/lethal bactericidal product formed in the respiratory burst

A

Hydrogen peroxide

99
Q

Known to be central to the killing of microbes, because its dysfunction causes chronic granulomatous disease. Patients with this disease suffer from recurring, severe bacterial infections

A

NADPH oxidase

100
Q

A lytic enzyme from the lysosomal granules that are able to cleave segments of bacterial cell walls without the benefit of oxygen.

101
Q

They are chemical messengers that cause cells to migrate in a particular direction

A

Chemotaxins

102
Q

Produced by neutrophils, certain macrophage populations, and Paneth cells of the small intestine. This class of defensins is believed to disrupt the microbial membrane.

A

Alpha defensins

103
Q

Produced by neutrophils as well as epithelial cells lining the various organs, including the bronchial tree and genitourinary system. They are believed to increase resistance of epithelial cells to colonization

A

Beta defensins

104
Q

Surface receptors that promote cell-to-cell interaction. It is an adhesion molecule together with selectins

105
Q

Bactericidal and viricidal protein in the presence of C3 component and magnesium

106
Q

Heat-stable cationic substance released by platelet during coagulation

A

Beta-Lysin

107
Q

Iron binding protein that is found in secretory fluid such as milk, saliva, tear, and nasal secretion. It is also released as a secondary granules of PMNs. It protects against bacterial infection, possibly by preventing the growth of bacteria by depriving them of essential nutrients(iron) or by killing bacteria by destroying their cell walls

A

Lactoferrin

108
Q

What are the 3 PRRs’

A

Secreted PRRs
Phagocytosis Receptors
Toll-like Receptors (TLR)

109
Q

What are the TLRs receptors found on cell surfaces

A

TLR 1
TLR 2
TLR 4
TLR 5
TLR 6

110
Q

What are the TLRs receptors found on endosomal compartments

A

TLR 3
TLR 7
TLR 8
TLR 9

111
Q

It recognizes lipoprotein found in mycobacteria

112
Q

It recognizes teichoic acid and peptidoglycan found in gram-positive bacteria

113
Q

It recognizes lipopolysaccharide found in gram-negative bacteria

114
Q

It recognizes bacterial flagellin

115
Q

It recognizes lipopeptides, lipotechoic acid, and zymogans

116
Q

It recognizes double-stranded RNA

117
Q

It recognizes single-stranded RNA

A

TLR 7
TLR 8

118
Q

It recognizes double-stranded DNA

119
Q

It is the primary inflammatory response

A

Vasodilation

120
Q

It is a term where there is increased blood supply to the infected area

121
Q

The process by which cells are capable of moving from the circulating blood to the tissues by squeezing through the wall of a blood vessel

A

Diapedesis

122
Q

What are the 5 cardinal signs of Inflammation

A

Rubor
Dolor
Calor
Tumor
Functio laesa

123
Q

What are the predominant cells during acute inflammation

A

Neutrophils

124
Q

What are the predominant cells during chronic inflammation

A

Monocytes
Macrophages

125
Q

A cardinal sign that is also induced by certain chemical mediators of inflammation, such as Bradykinin, Serotonin, & Prostaglandins.

126
Q

The order of 5 cardinal signs

A

Rubor
Tumor
Calor
Dolor
Functio laesa

127
Q

An immunoglobulin that is found in Breastmilk

128
Q

What is the mechanism of Humoral Branch

A

Antibody-mediated

129
Q

What is the cell type of the Humoral Branch

A

B-Lymphocytes

130
Q

What is the purpose of Humoral Branch

A

Primary defense against bacterial infection

131
Q

What is the mechanism of Cellular Branch

A

Cell-mediated

132
Q

What is the cell type of the Cellular Branch

A

T-Lymphocytes

133
Q

What is the purpose of Cellular Branch

A

Defense against viral and fungal infections,

134
Q

What are the primary lymphoid organs

A

Bone marrow
Thymus

135
Q

It is an organ that function as Ag-independent lymphopoiesis

Site where most blood cells mature including B cells and NK cells.

A

Bone marrow

136
Q

Site where T cells mature and develop their identifying characteristics.

137
Q

The not fully mature T cells reside in

A

Thymic cortex

138
Q

The mature T cells reside in

A

Thymic medulla

139
Q

The paracortex contains

A

Majority of T cells

140
Q

It acts as the site for antigen-dependent lymphopoiesis

A

Secondary Lymphoid Organ

141
Q

What are the Secondary Lymphoid Organs

A

Spleen
Lymph nodes
MALT
CALT

142
Q

Represents 60 to 80 percent of circulating lymphocytes in the peripheral blood

A

T Lymphocytes

143
Q

The CD markers of T Lymphocytes

A

CD 2
CD 3
CD 4
CD 8

144
Q

A CD markers that is characterized by sheep red blood cell receptor (rosette formation),

It is also the classical T-cell surface marker

145
Q

It is part of T-cell antigen-receptor complex

146
Q

Normal ratio of CD4 : CD8

147
Q

HIV patient ratio of CD4 : CD8

148
Q

CD 4 count of AIDS patient

A

<200 cells/uL

149
Q

It is an interleukin that is critical for growth and differentiation

150
Q

It lacks CD 4 and CD 8 markers

A

Double Negative Thymocytes

151
Q

It Expresses both CD 4 and CD 8

A

Double Positive Thymocytes

152
Q

Where does positive selection occur

A

Thymic cortex

153
Q

Where does negative selection occur

A

Thymic medulla

154
Q

Splenic tissue is divided into what two main type

A

Red pulp
White pulp

155
Q

A region of white pulp that contains mainly T-cells

A

Periarteriolar Lymphoid Sheats (PALS)

156
Q

A region of white pulp that contains naive B cells/virgin cells

A

Primary follicles

157
Q

A region of white pulp that contains dendritic cells

A

Marginal zone

158
Q

A cell that acts as the orchestrator/ stimulator of the effector mechanisms of the immune response such as Antibody synthesis, macrophage activation, Cytotoxic T cell killing, and NK cell activation

A

T helper cells

159
Q

How many parts of peripheral T-cells expresses CD4 antigen

160
Q

How many parts of peripheral T-cells expresses CD8 antigen

161
Q

Produce interferon-gamma (IFN-Y) and tumor necrosis factor beta (TNF- B), which protect cells against intracellular pathogens.

162
Q

It secretes IL-2, interferon-gamma (IFN-γ), and TNF-β, which are responsible for the activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes and macrophages

A

Th1 subset

163
Q

It produces various interleukins, including IL-4, IL-5, IL-10, and IL-13. The essential role of the Th2 cells is to help B cells produce antibodies against extracellular pathogens. Recently, an additional T-cell subpopulation

164
Q

It plays an important role in suppressing the immune response to self-antigens. They are critical for prevention of autoimmunity.

A

T-regulatory cells (T reg)

165
Q

T cells exposed to antigen

Activated T lymphocytes express receptors for IL-2, just as activated B cells

CD 25(+) is the receptor for IL-2

A

Activated T-Cells

166
Q

T lymphoblasts differentiate into functionally active small lymphocytes that produce cytokines/lymphokines.

A

Sensitized T-Cells

167
Q

It represents 20-35 percent (10-20% other books) of lymphocyte population. 10 -15% (Steven’s 4th edition)

A

B-Lymphocyte

168
Q

The pro-B cell has distinctive markers that include surface antigens it includes

A

CD19
CD45R
CD43,
CD24,
C-Kit

169
Q

Pre-B cells may also express μ chains on the cell surface, accompanied by an unusual light chain molecule called a

A

SURROGATE LIGHT CHAIN.

170
Q

Immature B cells are distinguished by the appearance of

A

complete IgM molecules

171
Q

It acts as a receptor for a breakdown product of the complement component C3, known as C3d

172
Q

In addition to IgM, all mature B cells exhibit IgD, another class of antibody molecule, on their surface.

Contain monomeric IgM

A

Mature B-Cells

173
Q

Memory B cells carry a what type of immunoglobulin as their antigen receptor

174
Q

Represents 10-15(<10%) percent of total Lymphocyte population. Other Books: 5 to 10%

A

Natural Killer Cells

175
Q

Natural Killer Cells is also known as

A

Larger Granular Lymphocytes (LGL)

176
Q

Natural Killer Cells is activated by

177
Q

Activated natural killer cell is also called as

A

(Lymphokine Killer activated cells) or LAK

178
Q

Natural Killer Cells possess what CD markers

A

CD 16
CD 56
CD 94

179
Q

Protease; a marker for pre-B CALLA

180
Q

Receptor for complement component C3d; part of B cell co-receptor with CD 19 (RECEPTER OF EBV)

181
Q

CD markers under B-Cells

A

CD 19
CD 20
CD 21 CD
CD 40
MHC Class II

182
Q

The most frequently used method for obtaining lymphocytes is density gradient centrifugation

A

Ficoll Hypaque

183
Q

Specific gravity of Ficoll Hypaque

A

1.007 - 1.114

184
Q

These are substances that stimulate cell division

185
Q

Phytohemagglutinin, Concanavalin A, Pokeweed

A

T-Cell Lymphocyte

186
Q

Lipopolysaccharide, Staphylococcal protein A, Pokeweed

187
Q

KILL/ANNIHILATE Virally infected cells or cancerous cells through the secretion of

A

Perforins
Granzymes

188
Q

A part of antibody that binds to the antigenic determinant site

189
Q

The key portion of the immunogen is known as the

A

Epitope or Determinant site

190
Q

Substances that are too small to be recognized by themselves, but if they are complexed to larger molecules, they are then able to stimulate an immune response.

191
Q

Example of haptens

A

Drugs
Therapeutic Hormones

192
Q

Is a substance administered with an immunogen that increases the immune response.

193
Q

It is originally referred to as human leukocyte antigens (HLA)

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

194
Q

Genes coding for the MHC molecules in humans are found on the

A

Short arm of Chromosome 6

195
Q

A light chains found in the urine of patient with Multiple myeloma

A

Bence Jones Protein

196
Q

Hinge region contains what for flexibility

197
Q

Hinge region is found between

A

CH1 and CH2

198
Q

Antibodies with Hinge Region

199
Q

Antibodies without Hinger Region

200
Q

Sedimentation coefficient of IgM

201
Q

Sedimentation coefficient of IgE

202
Q

A predominant immunoglobulin in humans

Non-agglutinating antibody
Immune antibody
Incomplete antibody

Warm antibodies

203
Q

IgG order (best to less efficient)

A

IgG 1
IgG 3
IgG 4
IgG 2

204
Q

All IgG can fix the complement except

205
Q

Known as Macroglobulin and is found mainly INTRAVASCULARLY.

A

Immunoglobulin M

206
Q

Also known as Agglutinating Ab / complete Ab / non-immune Ab

A

Immunoglobulin M

207
Q

The five monomeric units are held together by a

A

J or joining chain

208
Q

Number of valence/ antigen binding sites of Immunoglobulin M

209
Q

Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions such as tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal fluids.

A

Immunoglobulin A

210
Q

An immunoglobulin that is an anti-inflammatory

A monomer and mainly found in serum

211
Q

An immunoglobulin that is resistant to proteolysis

A dimer and mainly found in secretions

212
Q

Protects IgA from digestion by proteolytic enzymes and acts to facilitate the transport of IgA to mucosal surfaces

A

Secretory/Vesicle component

213
Q

An immunoglobulin that is capable of acting as opsonin

214
Q

Aggregates of IgA can activate what type of complement pathway

A

Alternative pathway

215
Q

Immunoglobulin D was found in patient with

A

Multiple myeloma

216
Q

Multiple myeloma is a cancer of

A

Plasma cell

217
Q

IgD function as

A

Immunoregulation

218
Q

IgD may play a role in regulating

A

B cell maturation and differentiation

219
Q

An immunoglobulin that is primarily a cell membrane Ig found on the surface of B cells

220
Q

It is an immunoglobulin that is extremely susceptible to proteolysis because of its unusual long hinge region

221
Q

The least abundant immunoglobulin in the serum

222
Q

Tt is an inflammatory antibody

Heat labile antibody

223
Q

IgE is also known as

A

Inflammatory antibody
Reaginic antibody

224
Q

It mediates some types of hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions, allergies, and anaphylaxis and is generally responsible for an individual’s immunity to invading parasites

225
Q

no antibody is detectable.

226
Q

the antibody titer increases logarithmically.

227
Q

the antibody titer stabilizes.

A

Plateau phase

228
Q

the antibody is catabolized.

A

Decline phase

229
Q

An immortal cell capable of producing an indefinite sequence of nucleotides

A

Hybridoma Cells

230
Q

Formation of a hybridoma in monoclonal antibody production. A mouse is immunized, and spleen cells (plasma or B cells) are removed.

A

Hybridoma Technology

231
Q

In complement system what is the order of discovery

A

C1>2>3>4>5>6>7>8>9

232
Q

In complement system what is the order of activation

A

C1>4>2>3>5>6>7>8>9>

233
Q

It acts as a powerful opsonin

234
Q

It acts as a Chemotaxin/attract WBC

235
Q

It acts as an Anaphylatoxin

A

C3a, C4a, C5a

236
Q

The most potent anaphylatoxin in complement cascade

237
Q

Ions involved in the complement system

A

Calcium and Magnesium

238
Q

C3 convertase of Classical and Lectin Pathway

239
Q

C3 convertase of Alternative Pathway

240
Q

Example of Single Diffusion, Single Dimension

A

Oudin’s Test
Rocket immune electrophoresis

241
Q

Example of Single Diffusion, Double Dimension

A

Radial immunodiffusion

242
Q

Double diffusion, Single Dimension

A

Oakley and Fulthrope (Modified Oudin)
Countercurrent Immuno-electrophoresis

243
Q

Double diffusion, Double Dimension

A

Ouchterlony

244
Q

Uses bacteria as the inert particles

A

Coagglutination

245
Q

Reactions are based on competition between particulate and soluble antigens for limited antibody- combining sites, and a lack of agglutination is an indicator of a positive reaction.

A

Agglutination Inhibition

246
Q

This type of testing has been used to detect antibodies to certain viruses, such as rubella, mumps, measles, influenza, parainfluenza, HBV, herpesvirus, respiratory syncytial virus, and adenovirus.

A

Hemagglutination inhibition