MTA W2 Flashcards

1
Q

Asthma, rhinosinusitis and middle ear disease are accompanied by…

A

Chronic nasal inflammation

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2
Q

Factors that increase the development of allergic rhinitis

A
  • Female sex
  • Particulate air pollution
  • Maternal smoking
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3
Q

Factors that decrease the risk of developing allergic rhinitis

A
  • Increased number of siblings
  • Grass pollen exposure
  • Farm environment
  • Mediterranean diet
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4
Q

Intermittent allergic rhinitis duration

A
  • Less than 4 days per week or less than 4 weeks
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5
Q

Persistent allergic rhinitis

A
  • More than four days a week AND more than 4 weeks
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6
Q

This type of allergic rhinitis allows normal sleep, school and work, and does not cause impairment of daily activities, sports, leisure.

It also does not present with troublesome symptoms.

A

Mild allergic rhinitis

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7
Q

Moderate/severe allergic rhinitis is characterized by the presence of one or more of these items:

A
  • Abnormal sleep
  • Impairment of daily activities, sports or leisure
  • Abnormal school and work
  • Troublesome symptoms
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8
Q
A
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9
Q

40% of px. With chronic rhinitis also present ________

80% of px. With asthma symptoms have persistent __________

A
  • Asthma
  • Nasal symptoms
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10
Q

Rhinosinusitis is common in patients with ______, which is most commonly presented as _______ chronic sinusitis

A
  • asthma
  • bilateral
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11
Q

How does nasal allergy lead to bacterial proliferation?

A

Nasal allergy progresses to acute sinusitis by sinus ostial edema —> results in sinus drainage + shift to anaerobic conditions suitable for bacterial proliferation

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12
Q

How are allergy and chronic sinus disease related?

A

Both involve anti-staphylococcal IgE and present persistent type 2 inflammation of the sinus

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13
Q

Ear complications derived from allergic rhinitis

A
  • Concomitant otitis media with effusion
  • Eustachian tube dysfunction when exposed to pollen
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14
Q

Nasal obstruction associated with allergic rhinitis and sleep problems may lead to…

A
  • Microarousal
  • Hypopneas
  • Apnea
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15
Q

Alterations developed by children with persistent severe rhinitis:

A
  • Mouth breathing
  • Palatal anatomy
  • Dental malocclusion
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16
Q

First event in the pathogenesis of allergic rhinitis

A

Sensitization of nasal mucosa to airborne allergens, leading to interactions between APC, LTh2 and LB

LB begins production of IgE

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17
Q

In allergic rhinitis pathogenesis, what happens after IgE antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils

A

Degranulation with the release of preformed histamine and newly generated Leukotriene C4 and PGD2

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18
Q
A
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19
Q

Other mediators produced by mast cells and Th2 in allergic rhinitis pathogenesis

A

Eosinophil cationic protein, IL-4, IL-3 and IL-13

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20
Q

Why are nasal turbinates enlarged in allergic rhinitis?

A

Due to cytokine release + inflammatory cells’ (lymphocytes, eosinophils and basophils) constant migration

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21
Q

Why do patients with allergic rhinitis are more responsive to everyday stimuli?

A

Inflammatory changes lower the tress hold of responsiveness to specific and non-specific stimuli

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22
Q

What’s the role of eotaxin 1 and 2, RANTES and MCP-1, 3- and 4?

A

They are cytokines that attract eosinophils and induce inflammation in allergic responses

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23
Q

Family history of atopy, male sex, maternal exposure to smoking during the first year of life, firstborn status, early use of antibiotics, exposure to allergens and IgE over a 100 UI are risk factors in the development of

A

Allergic rhinitis

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24
Q

Name the typical symptoms of allergic rhinitis (either with or without conjunctivitis) (6)

A
  • Congestión
  • Sneezing
  • Rhinorrhea
  • Pruritus
  • Watering and redness
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25
Q

How can a person with allergic salute be identified?

A

If he/she presents any of the following:
- Transverse nasal crease
- Dennis-Morgan folds
- Allergic shiners

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26
Q

Usually, nasal congestion __________ in allergic rhinitis. Nevertheless, if unilateral obstruction is persistent, the patient may have _____, ______ or ________

A
  • Alternates between both sides
  • Anatomical defect, inflammatory mass, tumor
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27
Q

Describe rhinorrea in allergic rhinitis and what its opposite may indicate…

A
  • Clear to white
  • If it’s purulent, it may indicate chronic sinusitis or atopic rhinitis
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28
Q

What symptoms may change the diagnostic and treatment of allergic rhinitis?

A

Headache, feeling of facial fullness, anosmia, cough and halitosis

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29
Q

What symptom may be associated to a possible NS lesion if presented more prominently than nasal and ocular symptoms?

A

Anosmia

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30
Q

Temporal patterns and triggers of allergic rhinitis

A
  • More severe symptoms during early morning (circadian rhythms)
  • Aggravation while or after exposure to allergens
  • Clear-cut worsening in the outside (outdoor allergens)
  • Well demarcated seasonal allergic rhinitis indicate reaction to an outdoor allergen
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31
Q

Mention the allergens related to the seasonality

A
  • Spring = tree pollen exposure
  • Summer = grass and mold
  • Fall = weeds and mold
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32
Q

Triggers of allergic rhinitis that act as irritants instead of allergens and provoke nasal symptoms

A
  • Volatile organic compounds (perfumes, paints, cleaning fluids)
  • Pollution particles
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33
Q

Most important factor in non-allergic rhinitis response

A

Change in climatic factors

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34
Q

Red flags in children that raise suspicion of allergic rhinitis

A
  • Malocclusion or facial deformities due to chronic, severe nasal obstruction
  • Transverse crease over the lower portion of the nose due to repetitive pushing forward
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35
Q

What are the signs of allergic rhinitis found during nasal and nostrils inspection?

A
  • Asymmetry of the nostrils
  • Swelling of the mucosa
  • Pale mucosa
  • Clear to white discharge
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36
Q

Atrophic rhinitis presents with…

A

Crusting inside the nostrils, especially with dried blood

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37
Q

Discolored discharge or erythematous mucous membranes are signs of

A
  • Chronic rhinosinusitis
  • Idiopathic rhinosinusitis
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38
Q

Besides conjunctival injection due to frequent rubbing, what is other sign of allergic rhinitis found in eye examinations?

A

Venous stasis caused by cyanosis of intraorbital tissues (pathognomonic)

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39
Q

Provides enhanced view of superior and posterior structures of the nose

A

Fiber optic rhinoscopy

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40
Q

This dx. Method allows for the differentiation between allergic and non allergic rhinitis and has to be accompanied with a nasal allergen challenge to confirm the diagnosis

A

Testing for specific IgE

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41
Q

Local allergy rhinitis or entropy is diagnosed when…

A

Specific IgE can only be found in the nose

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42
Q

This dx. Method should be considered when there is presence of atypical symptoms or unresponsiveness to therapy.

A

CT/radiographic images

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43
Q

Inflammation of paranasal sinuses, seen as mucoperiosteal thickening in px. With uncomplicated allergic rhinitis is detected with…

A

CT scans

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44
Q

This type of retinitis is presented by bakers, laboratory workers and furriers; it worsens during the week and improves over weekends and vacations but may persist due to _______. The dx. Is done by skin or blood testing for SPECIFIC IgE.

A

Work-related rhinitis

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45
Q

Chronic rhinosinusitis with or without nasal polyps is an inflammatory disease of the paranasal sinuses that lasts 12 weeks or longer.

Name its 4 cardinal symptoms

A
  • Mucopurulent drainage
  • Nasal obstruction
  • Facial discomfort
  • Decreased sense of smell
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46
Q

Dx. Of Chronic rhinosinusitis with or without nasal polyps

A

At least 2 of the cardinal symptoms + CT or endoscopic evidence of sinus mucosal inflammation

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47
Q

Name the 6 types of non-allergic rhinitis

A
  • Idiopathic non-allergic rhinitis (vasomotor rhinitis)
  • Non-allergy rhinitis with eosinophilia
  • Atrophic rhinitis
  • Rhinitis associated with drugs
  • Hormonal rhinitis
  • Rhinitis related to systemic disease
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48
Q

Non-allergic rhinitis that presents with chronic or intermittent nasal congestion and/or watery rinorrhea, may include gustatory rhinitis (eating) and the symptoms worsen acutely in response to non-specific triggers:

A

Idiopathic (vasomotor)

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49
Q

It’s true about skin tests on patients with idiopathic non-allergic vasomotor rhinitis

A

Specific IgE is negative, including food allergens

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50
Q

Most common symptoms in NARES caused by local allergic rhinitis with local IgE to an unknown allergen

A

Nasal congestion and discharge

**Often undiagnosed

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51
Q

This type of rhinitis is a chronic condition with symptoms of nasal crusting, purulent discharge, nasal obstruction and halitosis

A

Atrophic rhinitis

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52
Q

Prevalence and association of primary Atrophic rhinitis

A
  • Women
  • Warm climates like the South Asia and the Middle East
  • Associated with chronic bacterial infections —> most commonly Klebsiella ozaenae
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53
Q

This type of Atrophic rhinitis occurs mostly in developed countries. Name it and the px. That are more susceptible to it.

A

Secondary Atrophic rhinitis

  • Older patients
  • Multiple/aggressive nasal surgeries (empty nose syndrome)
  • Nasal trauma
  • Nasal irradiation
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54
Q

Rhinitis medicamentosa is a chronic rhinitis caused by _______

A

Prolonged use of topical a-adrenergic descongestants like oxymetazoline and phenylephrine

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55
Q

Mechanism of drug-associated rhinitis development

A

Rebound nasal congestion due to downregulation of a-agonist receptors

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56
Q

Symptoms and physical exam findings of rhinitis associated with drugs

A
  • Severe nasal congestion
  • Occasional nasal discomfort
  • Minimal discharge
  • Swollen, red nasal mucous membranes
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57
Q

Symptoms of cocaine-use rhinitis medicamentosa

A
  • Crusting
  • Bleeding
  • Septal perforation
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58
Q

Medications that can act as causative agents of rhinitis associated with drugs

A
  • a-adrenergic descongestants
  • antihypertensives
  • erectile dysfunction drugs
  • psychiatric medications
  • NSAIDs
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59
Q

New-onset nasal symptoms (congestion and/or rhinorrhea) lasting 6 or more weeks and resolving within 2 weeks postpartum

A

Hormonal rhinitis in pregnancy

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60
Q

____________ complication in uncontrolled rhinitis may lead to:

A
  • Severe snoring
  • Gestational hypertension
  • Preeclampsia
  • Intrauterine growth retardation
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61
Q

Systemic diseases that can cause rhinitis symptoms, affecting both the nose and sinus cavities, and leading to lung involvement, fatigue and poor appetite

A
  • Granulomatous disease
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Cilliary dyskinesia syndromes
  • Immunodeficiencies
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62
Q

Besides mechanisms of rhinitis, what factors can cause chronic nasal blockage without other major symptoms?

A
  • Anatomic abnormalities
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63
Q

Name the 3 most common abnormalities in the nose

A
  • Concha bullosa
  • Nasal septal deviation
  • Adenoidal enlargement that causes nasal obstruction
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64
Q

Name the treatments indicated for allergic rhinitis

A
  • Allergen avoidance
  • Intranasal descongestants if less than 10 days
  • Oral descongestants
  • Oral or topical antihystamine
  • Antileukotrienes
  • Chromones
  • Intranasal corticosteroid
  • Specific immunotherapy
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65
Q

These targets of allergen avoidance measures should be based on positive allergy testing:

A
  • Dust mites
  • Animal dander
  • Molds
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66
Q

Effective strategies for avoidance of large, heavy dust mites

A
  • Pillow and mattress encasings
  • Acaricidal sprays and powders for carpets
  • Frequent washing of bed linens in hot water
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67
Q

Most common animal allergen and related strategies for avoidance

A
  • Cats
  • Best —> remove the cat from home

Oooor

  • Remove carpets
  • Wash bedding frequently
  • Clean upholstered furniture and washing the cat
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68
Q

Outdoor allergies avoidance strategies and management

A

Limit outdoor activity duren peak pollen hours (11 am - 3 pm)

Best managed with pharmacotherapy and/or immunotherapy

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69
Q

Antihistamines are the main pharmacotherapy for allergic rhinitis. What is their mechanism of action?

A

Competitive, reversible antagonism or inverse agonism of histamine H1 receptors (Gq protein-coupled receptor)

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70
Q

PERENNIAL allergic rhinitis refers to

A

Chronic allergic rhinitis

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71
Q

Out of all allergic rhinitis symptoms, what are oral h1-antihistamines not effective for?

A

Nasal congestion

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72
Q

Because of effects such as sedation and anticholinergic symptoms, these generation of oral antihistamines is preferred over the 1st one.

A

2nd gen antihistamines for allergic rhinitis

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73
Q

Azelastine hydrochloride and olopatadine hydrochloride are ___________ H1-antihistamines that show faster results (15-30 min) and reduce nasal congestion, itching, sneezing and runny nose. They also have the following side effects:

A

Intranasal H1 antihistamines

  • Taste sensation and somnolence
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74
Q

Diphenydramine, clorpheniramine and hydroxyzine are…

A

First generation antihistamines

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75
Q

Fexofenadine, loratadine, desloratadine and cetirizine are examples of…

A

Second generation antihistamines

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76
Q

How do decongestants work, and what symptom do they treat?

A

They act via α-adrenergic stimulation, causing vascular constriction and reducing nasal blood supply. They only reduce nasal congestion, not other symptoms.

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77
Q

• Can be catecholamines or imidazoline derivatives.
• Faster onset & stronger effect than systemic decongestants.
• No systemic side effects but may cause seizures in children.
• Rebound congestion if used >5 days.
• Recommended for acutely severe rhinitis.
• Help penetration of intranasal corticosteroids/antihistamines.

A

Topical descongestants

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78
Q

How do oral decongestants compare to topical ones?

A

Less effective but don’t cause rebound congestion.
• Often combined with antihistamines for acute/chronic rhinitis.

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79
Q

What are the side effects and contraindications of oral decongestants?

A

• Side effects: Insomnia & irritability
• Normal doses: May worsen hypertension & arrhythmias.
• Overdose risks: Renal failure, psychosis, strokes, seizures.

Avoid in:
• Hypertension, heart disease, seizure disorders, hyperthyroidism, prostatic hypertrophy.
• Those taking MAOIs (risk of hypertensive crisis) —> opt for topical admin.

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80
Q

Most potent drug available against all nasal symptoms, it is used in non-allergic rhinitis, has an effect within 7-8 h

A

Intranasal corticosteroids (INS)

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81
Q

Intranasal corticosteroids side effects

A
  • Local nasal irritation
  • Epistaxis
  • Systemic side effects
  • Rare septal perforations and Candida overgrowth
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82
Q

This drugs are only used in patients with any type of rhinitis who initially have severe nasal obstruction to decrease nasal edema and allow use of INS (also mention the reason of its limited use)

A
  • Systemic corticosteroids
  • Limited because of adverse side effects and limited morbidity of disease
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83
Q

Systemic corticosteroids contraindications and adverse side effects

A
  • Avoid IM injections because of side effects —> aseptic necrosis
  • Prolonged use is a risk factor for the development of cataracts and osteoporosis
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84
Q

Montelukast is a ___________ with similar effects to oral antihistamines, it is less effective than INS but relieves all ocular and nasal symptoms such as…

A

Leukotriene inhibitor

  • Congestion, rhinorrhea and sneezing
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85
Q

Although useful in asthma, Montelukast is reserved for patients that are unresponsive or intolerant to other treatments. What is the reason for it?

A

May produce drug-induced neuropsychiatric events and they are not as effective as intranasal steroids

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86
Q

The intranasal 4% solution of ___________ is effective, and summed to an antihistamine it may be a great reliever of sneezing, itching and rhinorrea

A

Cromolyn sodium

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87
Q

Children and pregnancy-safe drug dosed 4 times a day in the treatment of allergic rhinitis; it is more effective when dosage starts before onset of symptoms.

A

Cromolyn sodium

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88
Q

Cromolyn sodium is less effective for the treatment of:

A

Nasal congestion

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89
Q

This type of drugs (…), which includes Ipratropium, has no systemic effects via intranasal, therefore it is a good option of ________________, while having NO effect on other symptoms

A
  • Anticholinergics
  • Perennial rhinitis
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90
Q

What systemic medications help reduce redness, tearing, and itching in allergic eye symptoms?

A

Oral H1-antihistamines and leukotriene receptor antagonists

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91
Q

When are topical ocular antihistamines used?

A

• As adjunctive treatment in rhinoconjunctivitis.
• As primary treatment for isolated allergic conjunctivitis.

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92
Q

What is the onset and duration of effect for topical ocular antihistamines?

A

• Onset: A few minutes.
• Duration: 12–24 hours.

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93
Q

How do intranasal steroids (INSs) help with allergic eye symptoms?

A

• They reduce intranasal inflammation.
• Inhibit the nasal-ocular reflex triggered by allergens in the nasal mucosa.
• As effective as antihistamines for ocular symptom control.

94
Q

Allergic rhinitis usual treatment scheme

A

Oral antihistamines + oral descongestants

95
Q

This combination of meds is more effective together than given alone in the treatment of allergic rhinitis

A

INS + intranasal antihistamine

96
Q

In the treatment of allergic rhinitis, _________ are given to those that don’t respond to the 1st one alone or present severe ocular symptoms

A

Oral antihistamines + INS

97
Q

2 years of treatment with this therapy leads to complete tolerance and is effective in seasonal and perennial allergic rhinitis

A

Allergen immunotherapy

98
Q

A 28-year-old woman with a 5-year history of allergic rhinitis reports worsening nasal congestion, sneezing, and itchy eyes despite using oral antihistamines and intranasal corticosteroids. Allergen avoidance hasn’t helped. She recently developed mild asthma and experiences insomnia from antihistamines. She asks for a long-term solution. What is the next best step?

A

Allergen immunotherapy (Subcutaneous immunotherapy (SCIT) or sublingual immunotherapy (SLIT))

99
Q

A patient with chronic nasal obstruction reports poor quality of life due to constant congestion. Exam reveals a significant septal deviation and persistent turbinate swelling unresponsive to meds and immunotherapy. What is the next step?

A

Surgical intervention
• Septal deviation: Surgery indicated if it affects quality of life
• Turbinate reduction: Consider only if mucosal edema is refractory to pharmacotherapy and immunotherapy

100
Q

Bilateral, self-limiting conjunctival inflammatory process that occurs in sensitized individuals with no gender difference

A

Allergic conjunctivitis

101
Q

How does allergic conjunctivitis begin?

A

Initiates by allergen binding to IgE on resident mast cells

102
Q

What’s the difference between seasonal and perennial allergic conjunctivitis?

A

• Seasonal (hay fever conjunctivitis): More common; linked to pollen exposure during specific seasons.
• Perennial: Related to year-round allergens like animal dander and dust mites.

103
Q

How common is allergic conjunctivitis and what symptoms are typical?

A

• Affects 20% of the population.
• 35% of people have allergies; of those, 50% report eye symptoms like itching, redness, and tearing.

104
Q

Signs and symptoms of SAC

A
  • Ocular itching
  • Tearing (watery discharge)
  • Chemosis, redness
  • Often associated with rhinitis
  • Not sight threatening
105
Q

Differential diagnoses of SAC

A
  • Infective conjunctivitis
  • Preservative toxicity
  • Medicamentosa
  • Dry eye
  • PAC, AKC, VKC
106
Q

Histopathology of SAC

A
  • Mast cell/eosinophil infiltration in conjunctival epithelium and substantial propia
  • Mast cell activation
  • Upregulation of ICAM-1 on epithelial cells
107
Q

Laboratory manifestations in seasonal/perennial allergic conjunctivitis

A

Increased in tears:
- Specific IgE antibody
- Histamine
- Tryptase
- TNF-a

108
Q

What triggers mast cell degranulation in allergic conjunctivitis?

A

Antigen cross-linking of IgE bound to FcεRI receptors on mast cells → Degranulation.

109
Q

What are the two types of mediators released by mast cells?

A

• Preformed (seconds–minutes): Histamine, tryptase
• Newly synthesized (hours): Arachidonic acid metabolites

110
Q

What mast cell subtypes are found in the conjunctiva?

A

• MCt (tryptase only) is the main type in conjunctiva
• MCtc (tryptase + chymase) also exists
• Normally rare, but increased in allergic conjunctivitis

111
Q

What mediators are found in the tear film of allergic conjunctivitis patients?

A

IgE, tryptase, histamine, eotaxin, eosinophil cationic protein (ECP)

112
Q

What does histamine do in allergic conjunctivitis?

A

• Increases vascular permeability
• Causes smooth muscle contraction, mucus secretion
• Promotes inflammation and leukocyte migration

113
Q

What cytokines are involved and what do they do?

A

• IL-4, 5, 6, 13, TNF-α, IL-10, IFN-γ
• Promote eosinophil recruitment, inflammation, and cell activation

114
Q

How do histamine and cytokines affect conjunctival epithelial cells?

A

• Activate H1 receptors → calcium mobilization
• TNF-α increases ICAM-1 expression → leukocyte adhesion

115
Q

Dominant symptom of allergic conjunctivitis

A

Mild to severe ocular itching

116
Q

Symptoms like watery discharge, redness, swelling, burning, sensation of fullness in eyes or eyelids, urge to rub eyes, sensitivity to light and blurred vision may be present in…

A

Allergic conjunctivitis

117
Q

Periorbital pigmentation due to decreased venous return in skin and subcutaneous tissue

A

Allergic shiners (periorbital darkening)

118
Q

Typical findings in allergic conjunctivitis

A

Conjunctival hyperemia and chemosis with parpebral edema

119
Q

How is dry eye different from allergic conjunctivitis?

A

There isn’t presence of itching

Dry eye is mostly caused by foreign objects or anticholinergic meds

120
Q

How is bacterial conjunctivitis different from allergic conjunctivitis?

A

Bacterial conjunctivitis
- One-eye presentation
- Palpable preauricular nodes
- Mucoid or purulent discharge
- Morning crusting + difficulty opening eyes

121
Q

Non-specific ocular symptoms

A

Tearing, irritation, stinging and burning

122
Q

Treatment of allergic conjunctivitis is aimed at

A

Preventing and alleviating symptoms

123
Q

Interventions that alleviate conjunctival allergy discomfort:

A
  • Avoidance of scratching or rubbing
  • Application of cool compresses
  • Artificial tears and refrigeration of topical ocular meds
124
Q

Oral antihistamines considerations when used for eye itch

A
  • 1st generation should be avoided because of reduced tear production
  • Topical treatments are more effective together than relieve itching and may be additive to oral
125
Q

Best treatment for mild to moderate allergic conjunctivitis

A

Dual-acting topical meds
- Mast cells stabilizing component
- Rapid relieve because of high affinity to H1 receptor

126
Q

Treatment for severe allergic conjunctivitis

A

Combination therapy: oral antihistamines + topical meds

127
Q

Low potency steroids, along with measurement of intra-ocular pressure every 3 months + anual evaluation for cataracts, are used to treat:

A

Extreme cases of allergic conjunctivitis

128
Q

Chronically relapsing inflammatory skin disease associated with respiratory allergies

A

Atopic dermatitis

129
Q

Name the 2 presentations of atopic dermatitis

A
  • Weeping eczema of early childhood
  • Chronic xerosis and lichenified lesions in older people
130
Q

______ and ______ are typically related to atopic dermatitis, meaning 65% of px with AD present the symptoms of the others

A
  • Allergic rhinitis
  • Asthma
131
Q

Increased prevalence of atopic dermatitis might be due to… (3)

A
  • Increased exposure to pollutants and indoor allergens
  • Decline in breastfeeding
  • Greater awareness of AD
132
Q

Risk factors for the development of atopic dermatitis

A
  • Metropolis, black race and higher educational level (eczema)
  • Cities with temperate climate
133
Q

Age of atopic dermatitis symptom onset

A

3-6 months

134
Q

Main gene and type of mutation involved in the pathogenesis of atopic dermatitis; it encodes for filaggrin, an essential protein of the epidermal barrier

A

FGL gene (loss of function)

135
Q

How does loss-of-function mutations on FGL influence the development of atopic dermatitis?

A

It allows for increased trans-epidermal loss and entry of allergens, antigens and chemicals, producing a skin inflammatory response

136
Q

What are the environmental triggers in atopic disease pathogenesis and how do they enter the body?

A

Triggers include allergens, microbes, pollutants, and irritants.

They penetrate through a damaged epidermal barrier, especially the **stratum corneum and stratum **, which may be compromised by mutations in barrier-related genes

137
Q

Which disorder involves defects on these genes, and what happens when they are dysfunctional?

•	EDC genes: FLG, LOR, LCEs, S100s, SPRRs
•	Tight junction gene: CLDN1
•	Proteases: KLK5, KLK7
•	Antiprotease: LEKTI-1
A
  • Atopic dermatitis
  • If defective, the skin barrier weakens → increased permeability to allergens and microbes → immune activation.
138
Q

Which immune cells and mediators are involved in the adaptive response of atopic disease?

A

• Th2 cells release IL-4 and IL-13 → drive allergic inflammation.

•	Chemokines: RANTES and eotaxin → attract eosinophils (Eos).

This leads to chronic allergic inflammation characteristic of atopic diseases.

139
Q

What role does TSLP play in atopic inflammation?

A

Damaged skin triggers dendritic cells to release TSLP (thymic stromal lymphopoietin) → promotes Th2 polarization of the immune system and activates mast cells, leading to allergic inflammation.

140
Q

What is the role of innate immunity in atopic disease?

A

Innate immunity is activated through pattern recognition receptors like TLRs, CD14, NOD1, NOD2, and genes like DEFB1, IRF2.

These recognize microbes and danger signals, contributing to the dysregulated immune response.

141
Q

What genetic and immunologic traits are patients with atopic dermatitis predisposed to?

A

Patients with atopic dermatitis (AD) have a genetic predisposition to develop IgE antibodies to environmental allergens and show overproduction of Th2 cytokines, contributing to eosinophilia.

142
Q

How does early-onset atopic dermatitis (AD) affect the risk of respiratory allergies?

A

Onset before 3 months of age increases the risk of developing asthma and rhinoconjunctivitis.

It is linked to a higher incidence and severity of respiratory allergic diseases.

144
Q

What factors increase the risk of respiratory allergies in patients with AD?

A

Respiratory allergy risk increases when:
• AD begins before 3 months of age
• Patient has ≥1 atopic family member

145
Q

How does AD influence asthma severity?

A

Children with atopic dermatitis tend to have more severe asthma than children without AD, due to systemic immune activation and sensitization through the skin.

146
Q

How does allergen sensitization through the skin affect respiratory allergies?

A

Epidermal allergen sensitization can trigger a systemic allergic response, predisposing patients to severe and persistent respiratory allergies.

147
Q

How does atopic dermatitis progress regarding age?

A
  • Many px. Outgrow the disease by adolescence, in others it becomes less severe
  • Some adults present relapses characterized by hand dermatitis (especially if daily activities require repeated hand wetting)
148
Q

AD associated skin barrier abnormalities

A
  • Increased transepidermal water loss
  • Increased levels of endogenous proteolytic enzymes
  • Reduced ceramides levels
149
Q

How does soap use contribute to skin barrier breakdown in atopic dermatitis?

A

Soap increases skin pH, enhancing endogenous protease activity, which breaks down the skin barrier and increases allergen/microbial penetration.

150
Q

What external and genetic factors worsen skin barrier damage in AD?

A

• Exogenous proteases from house dust mites and Staphy aureus
• Lack of protease inhibitors
• Mutation of the FLG gene (Chr 1q21) → ↓ Filaggrin, essential for barrier function

151
Q

What is the role of filaggrin in atopic dermatitis?

A

Filaggrin is crucial for epidermal barrier formation. Its deficiency (due to FLG mutation) increases risk for eczema-associated asthma and allergen sensitization.

152
Q

How does skin allergen exposure in AD affect future allergic disease risk?

A

Skin allergen sensitization increases the risk of developing respiratory allergies like asthma later in life due to systemic allergic response.

153
Q

Which cytokines contribute to barrier dysfunction in AD?

A

IL-4, IL-13: Downregulate FLG expression

•	**IL-22 from Th22 and CD8⁺ T cells**: Regulates genes like FLG, loricrin, and involucrin, worsening barrier abnormalities.
154
Q

The reduced expression of these tight junctions proteins is observed in atopic dermatitis patients:

A
  • Claudin-1 and 23

Reduced CLDN-1 expression leads to barrier and immune dysfunction

155
Q

Which barrier-related proteins are decreased in atopic dermatitis?

A

Filaggrin-2, corneodesmosin, desmoglein-1, desmocollin-1, and transglutaminase-3

↓ Expression = weaker skin barrier

156
Q

Which enzymes are decreased in AD and what is their effect?

A

Arginase-1, caspase-14, and γ-glutamylcyclotransferase

↓ Expression leads to reduced natural moisturizing factors → increased water loss

157
Q

How does increased fatty-acid binding protein expression affect AD?

A

↑ Expression triggers inflammatory response through eicosanoid signaling, perpetuating skin inflammation.

158
Q

T/F: AD is diagnosed based on pathognomonic lesions and laboratory parameters

A

F. Dx is based on presence of major and associated clinical features.

160
Q

How is the severity of atopic dermatitis assessed?

A

Using standardized scoring systems like SCORAD (Severity Scoring of AD) and EASI (Eczema Area and Severity Index).

161
Q

Principal features of AD

A
  • Severe pruritus
  • Chronically relapsing course
  • Typical morphology and distribution of skin lesions
  • History of atopic disease
162
Q

This symptom is critical for the diagnosis of atopic dermatitis:

A

Pruritus

(Usually accompanied by dry skin)

163
Q

What are the 3 types of lesions in atopic dermatitis?

A
  1. Acute – erythema, edema, PRURITIC vesicles, serous exudate
    1. Subacute – scaling, crusting, erythematous and excoriated dry patches
    2. Chronic – thickened skin, lichenification, excoriated fibrotic papules
164
Q

This type of AD may present with the 3 types of lesions:

A

Chronic AD

165
Q

Body areas involved in infant AD

A

Face, scalp, extensor surfaces of extremities and infragluteal areas

166
Q

In cases of infant AD, the diaper area is spared; what should you suspect if you see lesions in that area?

A

Secondary Candida infection

167
Q

Where are AD lesions located in older patients?

A

Flexural folds of extremities

168
Q

Major features of AD

A
  • Pruritus
  • Facial and extensor involvement in infants and children
  • Flexural lichenification in adults
  • Chronic or relapsing dermatitis
  • Personal or family history of atopic disease
169
Q

Minor features

A
  • Xerosis
  • Cutaneous infections
  • Nonspecific dermatitis of hands or feet
  • Pytiriasis alba
  • Nipple eczema
  • White dermatographism and delayed blanch response
  • Anterior subcapsular cataracts
  • Elevated serum IgE levels
170
Q

T/F. Positive immediate-type allergy skin tests are a major feature of atopic dermatitis.

A

False, they are a minor feature of AD.

171
Q

Complicating features of atopic dermatitis:

A
  • Ocular problems
  • Hand dermatitis
  • Infections
172
Q

What ocular problems are associated with atopic dermatitis?

A

• IgE-bearing Langerhans cells (LCs) in conjunctiva → inflammation
• Atopic keratoconjunctivitis (always bilateral): itching, burning, tearing, mucoid discharge
• Associated with eyelid dermatitis & chronic blepharitis → risk of corneal scarring
• May lead to keratoconus (from eye rubbing) and anterior subcapsular cataracts

173
Q

What are features of hand dermatitis in atopic dermatitis?

A

• Non-specific, aggravated by repeated wetting
• AD history doubles effect of irritant exposure
• Increases risk in occupations with frequent hand washing

174
Q

Which infections are AD patients more susceptible to?

A

• HSV, molluscum contagiosum, HPV
• Risk of eczema herpeticum and eczema vaccinatum
• Often due to defective antimicrobial peptide response
• Dermatophytes and Pityrosporum ovale may worsen AD

175
Q

What are features of AD with eczema herpeticum (EH)?

A

• More severe disease & widespread lesions
• Increased eosinophils, IgE, chemokines (TARC, CTACK)
• More likely asthma/inhalant allergies
• Reduced IFN-γ → poor HSV response
• Frequent co-infections with S. aureus or molluscum contagiosum

176
Q

What is the role of S. aureus in atopic dermatitis?

A

• Colonizes 90% of AD patients
• Adheres better to inflamed skin via adhesins (e.g. fibronectin, fibrinogen)
• Worsens inflammation and barrier dysfunction

177
Q

Psychosocial implications of atopic dermatitis

A

Stimulation of CNS intensify cutaneous vasomotor

Stress-related emotions may exacerbate AD, leading to itching and scratching

178
Q

Food Ag can exacerbate AD in some patients, resulting in ___________. How can this be avoided?

A
  • Eczematous lesions
  • Elimination of certain foods to ameliorate skin disease and decrease basophil histamine release
179
Q

T/F. Triggers of AD cannot be predicted by allergy testing

180
Q

Relationship btwn aeroallergens and atopic dermatitis

A
  • Exposure to pollen, house-dust mite and animal danders may exacerbate AD
  • Intranasally absorbed allergens may produce eczematous skin lesion
  • Inhalation or contact may be involved in pathogenesis of AD
  • Reducing exposure may improve AD
181
Q

Which fungi are linked to increased IgE in AD, especially in head and neck? What does improvement with antifungal therapy suggest?

A
  • M. Sympodialis and Trychophyton rubrum
  • Improvement indicates a role of fungi in pathogenesis
183
Q

Almost 50% of AD patients have IgE antibodies against ________ toxins, linking superantigen exposure to histamine release and skin inflammation

A

Staphylococcal (specifically S. Aureus)

184
Q

___________ correlate with AD severity and amplify cutaneous inflammation by enhancing allergen-specific IgE synthesis

They also disrupt Treg cell function and induce corticosteroid resistance, worsening AD symptoms.

A

Superantigens

185
Q

Autoantigens play a role in chronic AD. What protein in skin keratinocytes has been identified as an IgE-reactive autoantigen?

186
Q

Damage in skin induces the release of intracellular antigens, what effect does this have on AD?

A

It sustains IgE and T cell responses in AD

187
Q

_________ might act as an auto allergen in some AD patients. How does this relate with M. Sympodialis infection?

A

Manganese superoxide dismutase

Molecular mimicry with MnSOD from the moo’ yeast could induce cross-reactive sensitization in AD

188
Q

Abnormal increases in atopic dermatitis (7)

A
  • Synthesis of IgE
  • Levels of specific IgE
  • Expression of CD23 on B cells and monocytes
  • Surface expression of FceRI on antigen-presenting cells in the skin
  • Cutaneous T cell attracting chemokine (CTACK and TARCK)
  • Levels of monocyte cyclic adenosine monophosphate phosphodiesterase
  • IL-10 and PGE2
189
Q

The secretion of these interleukins and cells plays a major role in AD pathogenesis:

A

IL4, IL5 and IL13 by T helper type 2 (Th2) cells

190
Q

Immunoregulatory decreases in AD

A
  • Secretion of IFN-y by Th1 cells
  • CD4 and CD25 Tregs after superantigen stimulation
  • Secretion of antimicrobial peptides by keratinocytes
191
Q

What histological findings are seen in normal-appearing AD skin?

A

Mild epidermal hyperplasia and sparse lymphocytic infiltrate in dermis

192
Q

What is characteristic of acute eczematous lesions in AD?

A

Spongiosis (intercellular edema)
Sparse lymphocytes in epidermis
Perivenular lymphocytic infiltrate
Some monocytes in dermis (Eos, basophils and NT may be present)

193
Q

What defines chronic lichenfield lesions in AD?

A

Hyperkeratosis in epidermis
Increased number of epidermal cutaneous lymphocytes (Langherhans)
Dermal infiltrate of monocytes/macrophages

194
Q

What immune markers are identified via immunohistochemistry in AD lesions?

A

• CD3, CD4 T cells
• CD45RO (memory T cells)
• CD25, HLA-DR (activation markers)
• CLA (cutaneous lymphocyte antigen)

195
Q

What is the role of keratinocytes in AD pathogenesis?

A

Produce TSLP —> Activates DC to prime LTh2 differentiation

196
Q

The production of these antimicrobial peptides is reduced in atopic dermatitis:

A

Defensins and cathelicidines

197
Q

What helps restore keratinocyte function?

A

Vitamin D → supports antimicrobial peptide production (preventive role)

198
Q

Cytokine expression in acute vs chronic lesions in AD

A

Acute: high IL4, IL5 and IL13
Chronic: IL5 and eosinophil infiltration, low IL4 and increased IL12 and IFN-y

199
Q

IL-31 overexpression and its production by superantigens is linked to…

200
Q

Role of TSLP in AD

A

TLSP-driven Th2 cytokines contribute to skin barrier dysfunction and microbial colonization

201
Q

What type of immune response is primarily involved in AD: Th1 or Th2?

A

Th2. AD is driven by allergen-induced, IgE-mediated, Th2-dominant responses.

202
Q

What are the two phases of IgE-dependent reactions in AD?

A

• Immediate-type reaction: Mast cells release mediators → pruritus & erythema.
• Late-phase reaction: Persistent symptoms and chronic inflammation.

203
Q

What cytokines are expressed by T lymphocytes during the late-phase reaction in AD?

A

A: IL-3, IL-4, IL-5, GM-CSF (but not IFN-γ).

204
Q

How do Langerhans cells (LCs) contribute to sustained inflammation in AD?

A

• LCs in AD skin express IgE
• They are more efficient at presenting allergens, promoting persistent local T cell activation

205
Q

What is the initial maintenance treatment for atopic dermatitis?

A

Twice-daily emollient application and once-daily bathing in lukewarm water (5–10 min) using a soap-free cleanser.

206
Q

What should be done if there is no flare-up in a patient with atopic dermatitis?

A

Continue with maintenance treatment only

207
Q

What are the treatment steps for a mild flare-up of atopic dermatitis?

A

• Continue maintenance treatment
• Add twice-daily low to medium potency topical steroid

208
Q

What is the next step if a mild flare-up does not respond to treatment?

A

Start treatment for a moderate flare-up.

209
Q

What is the treatment approach for a moderate flare-up of atopic dermatitis?

A

• Continue maintenance
• Twice-daily medium to high potency topical steroid
• Twice-daily topical calcineurin inhibitor
• Optional: Crisaborole (Eucrisa), dilute bleach baths (2x/week), wet wrap therapy

210
Q

Q: What should be done if a moderate flare-up responds to AD treatment?

Q: What is the next step if a moderate flare-up does not respond to AD treatment?

A
  1. Switch to treatment for a mild flare-up.
  2. Start treatment for a severe flare-up.
211
Q

What is the treatment for a severe flare-up of atopic dermatitis?

A

• Continue maintenance
• Twice-daily high potency topical steroid
• Twice-daily topical calcineurin inhibitor
• Twice-weekly dilute bleach baths
• Wet wrap therapy
• Consider specialist referral

212
Q

What clinical tool is recommended to assess severity of atopic dermatitis flare-ups?

A

The Scoring Atopic Dermatitis (SCORAD) index, which evaluates body area affected, lesion intensity, and symptoms.

213
Q

What are the core treatments if AD is not severe?

A

Eliminate exacerbating factors
• Address psychosocial/QOL issues
• Education and hydration
• Moisturizers
• Low to mid potency topical corticosteroids
• Topical calcineurin inhibitors
• Topical PDE4 inhibitor
• Anti-infective and anti-pruritic therapy
• Written care plan

214
Q

What advanced treatments are considered in severe or resistant AD?

A

• Culture & sensitivity (r/o MRSA)
• Wet wrap therapy
• Dupilumab
• Hospitalization
• UV light therapy
• Systemic immunosuppressives

215
Q

What therapy is suggested for maintenance in responsive cases?

A

Topical immunomodulators

216
Q

What condition should be ruled out with persistent skin lesions in AD?

A

MRSA (via culture and sensitivity)

217
Q

Why is skin hydration essential in atopic dermatitis?

A

Because AD has increased transepidermal water loss and reduced water-binding capacity due to decreased ceramide levels

218
Q

What is the recommended bathing technique for hydrating AD skin?

A

Soak in warm water for 10 minutes and immediately after apply an occlusive agent to prevent evaporation

219
Q

How does frequent bathing affect AD during flares?

A

Múltiple daily baths are more effective than infrequent bathing technique

220
Q

Affordable and effective moisturizers for AD

A

Vegetable oil and petroleum jelly

221
Q

What type of moisturizer is the most occlusive and effective?

A

Ointments - better delivery and less water content

222
Q

What is the role of alpha-hydroxy acids in moisturizers?

A

Improve skin barrier, increase dermal collagen and help reverse the atrophy from topical corticosteroids

223
Q

What is required for optimal skin barrier repair in AD?

A

Equivocar ratio of ceramides, colesterol and fatty acids

224
Q

What is the recommended principle for choosing TCS?

A

Use the lowest effective potency for the shortest duration

225
Q

Common side effects of topical corticosteroids use in the long term?

A

Skin thinning, telangiectasias, hypopigmentation, acne, striae and infections

226
Q

Why must low-potency TCS be used on the face or folds?

A

These areas are more sensitive and prone to side effects like perioral dermatitis or steroid addiction

227
Q

This treatment is effective for AD cases and has advantages such as: no skin atrophy, safe for face and folds, good for steroid insensitive px, and can reduce flare frequency

A

Topical calcineurin inhibitors (TCIs)

228
Q

Overactive enzyme in AD that contributes to ceramide deficiency

A

M deacyclase, which competes with ceramide-producing enzymes

229
Q

Why are systemic corticosteroids avoided in AD?

A

They cause rebound flares after discontinuation

230
Q

What are side effects of topical calcineurin inhibitors?

A

Transient burning, especially on inflamed skin

231
Q

What strength of tacrolimus is used in adults vs children with AD?

A
  • Adults 0.1%
  • Children 0.03%