MT2 Material Flashcards

1
Q

What is the sugar in ribonucleosides?

A

D-ribose

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2
Q

What is the sugar in deoxyribonucleosides?

A

A derivative of D-ribose: 2-deoxy-D-ribose

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3
Q

What is the basic structure of a nucleotide?

A

Composed of 3 main parts:

  1. Five membered sugar (aldopentose ß-furanose)
  2. Nitrogenous base - attached to C1’ of the sugar via N glycosidic linkage
  3. Phosphate group - negatively charged - attached to the 5’ carbon of the sugar.
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4
Q

What is the sugar in nucleotides?

A

aldopentose ß-furanose

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5
Q

How are ribose nucleotides and deoxyribose nucleotides differentiated?

A

Ribose has -OH at 2’ carbon

  • (component of ribonucleotides and RNA)

Deoxyribose has -H at 2’ carbon

  • (component of deoxyribonucleotides and DNA)
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6
Q

Why is RNA less stable than DNA?

A

The oxygen of the 2’ OH group of the ribose in RNA can serve as a nucleophile attacking phosphodiester bond in RNA in base catalyzed reaction. Thus, RNA is much less stable than DNA which has a 2’ H group, and as such RNA must be stored at -80°C.

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7
Q

How is the nitrogenous base attached to the nucleotide?

A

Via N to the C1’ of the sugar.

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8
Q

6 membered ring with two nitrogens

A

Pyrimidines

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9
Q

Fused 5 and 6 membered rings

A

Purines

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10
Q

What are the pyrimidines?

A

Cytosine (C) - DNA and RNA

Thymine (T) - DNA

Uracil (U) - RNA

“CUT the PY”

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11
Q

What are the purines?

A

Adenine (A) - DNA and RNA

Guanine (G) - DNA and RNA

“PUre AGony”

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12
Q

Differentiate between nucleoside and nucleotide.

A

Base + sugar = nucleoside

Base + sugar + phosphate = nucleotide

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13
Q
A

Cytosine (C)

* is link to sugar

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14
Q
A

Thymine (T)

(DNA only)

* is link to sugar

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15
Q
A

Uracil (U)

(RNA only)

* is link to sugar

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16
Q
A

Adenine (A)

* is link to sugar

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17
Q
A

Guanine (G)

* is link to sugar

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18
Q
A

Adenosine

Ribonucleoside

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19
Q
A

Adenylate (AMP)

Ribonucleotide

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20
Q
A

Adenine

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21
Q
A

Guanine

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22
Q
A

Guanosine

Ribonucleoside

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23
Q
A

Guanylate (GMP)

Ribonucleotide

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24
Q
A

Cytosine

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25
Q
A

Cytidine

Ribonucleoside

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26
Q
A

Cytidylate (CMP)

Ribonucleotide

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27
Q
A

Uracil

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28
Q
A

Uridine

Ribonucleoside

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29
Q
A

Uridylate (UMP)

Ribonucleotide

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30
Q
A

Deoxyadenosine

Deoxyribonucleoside

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31
Q
A

Deoxyadenylate (dAMP)

Deoxyribonucleotide

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32
Q
A

Deoxyguanosine

Deoxyribonucleoside

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33
Q
A

Deoxyguanylate (dGMP)

Deoxyribonucleotide

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34
Q
A

Deoxycytidine

Deoxyribonucleoside

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35
Q
A

Deoxycytidylate (dCMP)

Deoxyribonucleotide

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36
Q
A

Deoxythymidine

Deoxyribonucleoside

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37
Q
A

Deoxythymidylate (dTMP)

Deoxyribonucleotide

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38
Q

How is the phosphoric acid attached to nucleotides?

A

The 5’-OH of the (deoxy)ribose is esterified to phosphoric acid.

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39
Q

1P

A

monophosphate

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40
Q

2P

A

diphosphate

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41
Q

3P

A

triphosphate

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42
Q

Compare nomenclature for talking about individual molecules versus sequences of DNA/RNA.

A

We use AMP, ADP when talking about individual molecules, and single letter codes when talking about sequences of DNA/RNA.

e.g., adenosine 5’-monophosphate (AMP) a.k.a. adenylate

adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Note: For DNA it is the same nomenclature, but we add ‘deoxy’ at the beginning (or ‘d’ in abbreviations)

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43
Q

The atoms in nitrogenous bases in purine synthesis come from a single source.

True or false?

A

False.

Atoms in nitrogenous bases come from different sources.

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44
Q

Purine synthesis requires aerobic reactions that do not cost ATP.

True or false?

A

False.

Purine synthesis requires anabolic reactions that cost lots of ATP.

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45
Q

What is the common precursor of purine synthesis?

A

Inosine monophosphate (IMP)

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46
Q

Purines are synthesized in the form of nucleosides.

True or false?

A

False.

Purines are synthesized in the form of nucleotides.

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47
Q

Ribonucleotides are synthesized first, then if needed they can be converted to deoxy.

True or false?

A

True.

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48
Q

What is the committed step of purine synthesis?

A

Step 2) The pyrophosphate is replaced by amino group of Glutamine, forming 5-phospho-ß-D-ribosylamine, PPi, and Glutamate.

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49
Q

What is the first step of purine synthesis?

A

Ribose-5-phosphate (R5P) from the pentose phosphate pathway is phosphorylated using 1 ATP (but 2 ATP equivalents) to form 5-phosphoribosyl 1-pyrophosphate (PRPP) by the enzyme phosphate pyrophosphokinase (aka PRPP synthetase).

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50
Q

What enzyme phosphorylates ribose-5-phosphate (R5P)?

A

Ribose phosphate pyrophosphokinase (aka PRPP synthetase)

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51
Q

What serves as a scaffold for building bases?

A

5-phosphoribosyl 1-pyrophosphate (PRPP)

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52
Q
A

α-D-Ribose-5-Phosphate (R5P)

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53
Q
A

5-Phosphoribosyl-α-pyrophosphate (PRPP)

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54
Q
A

α-D-Ribose-5-phosphate (R5P)

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55
Q
A

5-Phosphoribosyl-α-pyrophosphate (PRPP)

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56
Q

What is the 2nd step of purine synthesis?

A

The committed step.

The pyrophosphate is replaced by the amino group of Gln, forming 5-phospho-ß-D-ribosylamine, PPi, and Glu.

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57
Q

What happens in the third step of purine synthesis?

A

In a series of 10 reactions, 5-phospho-ß-D-ribosylamine is converted to the nucleotide inosinate (IMP) - the common intermediate for both AMP and GMP.

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58
Q

What happens in the fourth step of purine synthesis?

A

IMP is converted to AMP or GMP (in 2 steps for either option)

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59
Q

How is IMP converted to AMP?

A
  • Aspartate is added forming adenylosuccinate (occurs with GTP hydrolysis to GDP and Pi)
  • Then fumarate is removed forming AMP
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60
Q

How is IMP converted to GMP?

A
  • IMP is hydrated by water and oxidized by NAD+ to xanthylate (XMP)
  • XMP is converted to GMP by changing carbonyl to amino group using Glutamine as a nitrogen source (occurs with ATP hydrolysis to AMP and PPi (i.e., 2 ATP equivalents))
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61
Q

Pyrimidine synthesis costs more energy than purine synthesis.

True or false?

A

False.

Pyrimidine synthesis is more simple than purine synthesis and does not cost as much energy.

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62
Q

In purine synthesis, how many steps involve ATP?

A

6 steps.

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63
Q

In pyrimidine synthesis, the base is made first and then attached to PRPP.

True or false?

A

True.

  • UTP is synthesized first, then CTP and TTP are synthesized from UTP.
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64
Q

Describe the first step of pyrimidine synthesis.

A

Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase 2 (CPS-2) forms carbamoyl phosphate from bicarbonate, Gln (converted to Glu in the process), and 2 ATP (hydrolyzed to ADP)

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65
Q

What is the 2nd step of pyrimidine synthesis?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate reacts with Asp forming carbamoyl aspartate.

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66
Q

What is the third step of pyrimidine synthesis?

A

Carbamoyl aspartate (in a series of reactions) is converted to the base called orotate.

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67
Q

Describe the fourth step of pyrimidine synthesis.

A

Orotate is transferred onto PRPP forming orotidylate (OMP) and PPi by action of the enzyme pyrimidine phosphoribosyl-transferase.

(UMP synthetase in humans)

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68
Q

What is step 5 of pyrimidine synthesis?

A

OMP is decarboxylated to form uridylate (UMP) by orotidine-5’-decarboxylase.

(UMP synthetase in humans)

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69
Q

What is step 6 of pyrimidine synthesis?

A

Nucleoside monophosphate kinase (UMP kinase) converts UMP to UDP using ATP.

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70
Q

What happens after UDP formation in pyrimidine synthesis?

A

Step 7) Broad specificity nucleoside diphosphate kinase converts UDP to UTP.

Note: Nucleoside diphosphate kinase catalyzes the reaction:

XDP + YTP = XTP + YDP

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71
Q

What reaction does broad specificity nucleoside diphosphate kinase catalyze?

A

XDP + YTP = XTP + YDP

(i.e., In step 7 of pyrimidine synthesis it converts UDP to UTP)

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72
Q

What happens in the last step of pyrimidine synthesis? (i.e., Step 8)

A

UTP is converted to CTP by replacing carbonyl with amino group from Gln with 1 ATP consumed.

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73
Q

Compare nucleoside monophosphate kinases with nucleoside diphosphate kinases.

A

nucleoside monophosphate kinases: BMP + ATP ⇌ BDP + ADP

nucleoside diphosphate kinases: BDP + ATP ⇌ BTP + ADP

where B – anything but A

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74
Q

How is a balanced pool of nucleotides maintained?

A

Interconversion of nucleotides by monophosphate and diphosphate kinases.

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75
Q

Describe the synthesis of CTP in pyrimidine synthesis.

A

In the last step of pyrimidine synthesis UTP is converted to CTP by replacing the carbonyl with an amino group from Gln with 1 ATP consumed.

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76
Q

When is ATP required in pyrimidine synthesis?

A

2 ATPs are needed - both are used in the first step.

One transfers phosphate, the other is hydrolyzed to ADP and Pi.

Also when UMP is converted to UTP and also when UTP is converted to CTP.

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77
Q

When are the condensation reactions of pyrimidine synthesis?

A

There are 2: one to form carbamoyl aspartate and the other to form dihydroorotate

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78
Q

How is the base attached to the ribose ring in pyrimidine synthesis?

A

It is catalyzed by OPRT; PRPP provides ribose-5-P

PPi splits off of PRPP (irreversible)

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79
Q

What is the result of deficiency in activity of orotate phosphoribosyl transferase/ orotidine-5’-decarboxylase (=UMP synthetase)?

What is the treatment?

A

Pyrimidine synthesis is decreased and excess orotic acid is excreted in the urine.

Treatment - UMP supplements

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80
Q

Describe the synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides (i.e., dADP, dGDP, dCDP, dUDP). [4]

A
  • Catalyzed by ribonucleotide reductase
  • Complex mechanism (don’t need to know details for BIOC 302) using free radicals
  • Converts rNDPs to dNDPs.
  • dNDPs are converted to dNTPs by nucleoside disphosphate kinase
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81
Q

Describe dTMP synthesis. [3]

A
  1. dUDP > dUTP by nucleoside diphosphate kinase
  2. dUTP > dUMP by UTPase (aka dUTP diphosphatase)
  3. dUMP > dTMP by thymidylate synthase using N5,N10-methylene tetrahydrofolate as methyl donor producing dihydrofolate.
  4. Dihydrofolate is converted back to N5,N10-methylene tetrahydrofolate using NADPH (dihydrofolate reductase) and serine (serine-hydroxymethyl transferase).

Note: Serine is a source of methyl group on dTMP.

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82
Q
A

N5,N10-Methylene-tetrahydrofolate

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83
Q
A

7,8-Dihydrofolate

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84
Q
A

Tetrahydrofolate

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85
Q
A

Tetrahydrofolate

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86
Q
A

Tetrahydrofolic acid

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87
Q

What enzyme catalyzes dUDP > dUTP?

A

Nucleoside diphosphate kinase

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88
Q

What enzyme catalyzes dUTP > dUMP?

A

UTPase (aka dUTP diphosphatase)

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89
Q

What enzyme catalyzes dUMP > dTMP?

A

Thymidylate synthase

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90
Q

What does thymidylate synthase use as a methyl donor?

A

N5,N10-methylene-tetrahydrofolate

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91
Q

What is the product of the reaction catalyzed by thymidylate synthase?

A

Thymidylate (dTMP) and Dihydrofolate

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92
Q

What enzyme converts dihydrofolate to N5,N10-methylene-tetrahydrofolate?

A

Dihydrofolate is converted back to N5,N10- methylene tetrahydrofolate using NADPH (dihydrofolate reductase) and Serine (serine-hydroxymethyl transferase).

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93
Q

What is the methyl group source on dTMP?

A

Serine

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94
Q
A

AZT (azidothymidine)

This is an antiretroviral medication used to treat and prevent HIV/AIDS.

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95
Q

Describe the origin of each atom in the purine ring structure.

A
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96
Q

Describe the origin of each atom in the pyrimidine ring structure.

A
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97
Q

What is gout?

How may it be treated?

A
  • Elevated uric acid levels in the blood, accumulation of uric acid causes gout (uric acid has low solubility)
  • Uric acid crystals will form in the extremeties with a surrounding area of inflammation
  • Can be caused by a defect in an enzyme of purine metabolism or by reduced secretion of uric acid into the urinary tract
  • Gout can be treated by allopurinol that acts as competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase leading to less uric acid production
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98
Q
A
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99
Q
A
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100
Q

Describe the treatment of gout.

A

Gout can be treated by allopurinol that acts as competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase leading to less uric acid production.

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101
Q

What is the goal of regulation of purine synthesis?

A

To maintain the balanced pool of nucleotides.

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102
Q

Describe the role of AMP, GMP, ADP, and IMP in purine synthesis regulation.

A
  • AMP, GMP, ADP, and IMP all inhibit PRPP synthesis allosterically, lowering the rate of conversion of R-5-P to PRPP.
  • AMP, GMP, and IMP inhibit glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase allosterically lowering the rate of conversion of PRPP to 5-P-ribosylamine
  • AMP inhibits allosterically adenylsuccinate synthetase, lowering conversion of IMP to adenylosuccinate
  • GMP inhibits allosterically IMP dehydrogenase, lowering conversion of IMP to XMP
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103
Q

AMP allosterically inhibits PRPP synthetase.

True or false?

A

True.

As does GMP, ADP, and IMP.

This lowers the rate of conversion of R-5-P to PRPP.

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104
Q

AMP activates glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase allosterically.

True or false?

A

False.

AMP (and GMP and IMP) allosterically inhibit glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase, lowering the rate of conversion of PRPP to 5-P-ribosylamine.

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105
Q

AMP allosterically activates adenylosuccinate synthetase.

True or false?

A

False.

AMP allosterically inhibits adenylosuccinate synthetase, lowering conversion of IMP to adenylosuccinate.

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106
Q

GMP allosterically inhibits IMP dehydrogenase, lowering conversion of IMP to XMP.

True or false?

A

True.

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107
Q

What is the result of inhibition of PRPP synthetase?

A

A lower rate of conversion of R-5-P to PRPP.

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108
Q

What is the result of inhibition of glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase?

A

Lowered rate of conversion of PRPP to 5-P-ribosylamine.

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109
Q

What is the result of inhibition of adenylosuccinate synthetase?

A

Lowered rate of conversion of IMP to adenylosuccinate.

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110
Q

What is the result of inhibition of IMP dehydrogenase?

A

Lowered rate of conversion of IMP to XMP

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111
Q

Describe regulation of pyrimidine synthesis. [3]

A
  1. UMP allosterically inhibits CPS-2, lowering production of carbamoyl phosphate
  2. CTP allosterically inhibits aspartate transcarbamoylase, lowering production of carbamoylaspartate
  3. ATP allosterically activates aspartate transcarbamoylase, increasing production of carbamoylaspartate
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112
Q

UMP allosterically activates CPS-2.

True or false?

A

False.

UMP allosterically inhibits CPS-2, lowering production of carbamoyl phosphate.

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113
Q

CTP allosterically inhibits aspartate transcarbamoylase.

True or false?

A

True.

This lowers production of carbamoylaspartate

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114
Q

ATP allosterically activates aspartate transcarbamoylase.

True or false?

A

True.

This increases production of carbamoylaspartate

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115
Q

What is the result of inhibition of CPS-2?

A

Lowered production of carbamoyl phosphate

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116
Q

What is the result of inhibition of aspartate transcarbamoylase?

A

Lowered production of carbamoylaspartate

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117
Q

Describe the regulation of ribonucleotide reductase (aka regulation of dNTPs synthesis.

A
  • Primary allosteric site:
    • Activated by rATP
    • Inhibited by dADP
    • Inhibited by dATP
  • Substrate specificity site - determines substrate specificity
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118
Q

Describe the order of preference of substrate specificity in the regulation of ribonucleotide reductase. [4]

A

CUGA order of preference:

  1. High ATP (dATP) will stimulate CDP conversion to dCDP
  2. High ATP (dATP) will stimulate UDP conversion to dUDP
  3. dTTP will inhibit production of dUDP and dCDP at the same time stimulating switch in specificity to dGPD production
  4. dGTP will stimulate switch in specificity to dADP production

Raja’s short answer: Production fo dCDP → dCTP activates production of dUDP → dTTP which activates production of dGDP →dGTP which activates production of dADP → dATP and the cycle continues

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119
Q

What are the steps of purine degradation?

A
  1. GMP and AMP in a series of reactions are degraded to xanthine
    • Guanine to xanthine by deamination
    • Adenosine > inosine > hypoxanthine > xanthine
  2. Xanthine is converted to uric acid
  3. In humans, uric acid is a final product of purine degradation
    • Invertebrates can convert uric acid all the way to ammonia
    • Sharks can convert uric acid to urea
    • Most mammals can convert uric acid to allantoin by enzyme uricase
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120
Q

What does uricase do?

A

Most mammals can convert uric acid to allantoin by action of the enzyme uricase.

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121
Q

High ATP stimulates CDP conversion to dCDP.

True or false?

A

True.

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122
Q

What are pyrimidines generally degraded to?

A

Intermediates of carbon metabolism (succinyl-CoA) and ammonia (NH4+).

NH4+ is packaged as urea through the urea cycle and excreted.

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123
Q

What is Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome?

What is the treatment?

A
  • Hypoxanthine Guanine Phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT) deficiency
  • X-linked genetic condition
  • Up to 20 times the uric acid in the urine than in normal individuals. Uric acid crystals form in the urine.
  • Treated with allopurinol
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124
Q

Describe pyrimidine degradation. [6]

A
  1. Similar to purine, nucleotidase removes P, and then nucleosidase removes sugar.
  2. C > U or Me-C > T with NH4+ released.
  3. Reduction of U or T using NADPH
  4. Opening of the ring
  5. CO2 and NH4+ are released
  6. Beta-alanine (from U degradation) and beta-aminoisobutyrate (from T degradation) are further metabolised and nitrogen is secreted in the form of urea
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125
Q

Only CO2 is released during pyrimidine degradation.

True or false?

A

False.

CO2 and NH4+ are both released after the opening of the ring.

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126
Q

ß-alanine is from T degradation in pyrimidine degradation.

True or false?

A

False.

In pyrimidine degradation, ß-alanine (from U degradation) and ß-aminoisobutyrate (from T degradation) are further metabolized and nitrogen is secreted in the form of urea.

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127
Q

What does the enzyme phosphoribosyltransferase do?

A

They catalyze the addition of ribose-5-phosphate to the base from PRPP to yield a nucleotide.

Base + PRPP > Base-ribose-phosphate (BMP) + PPi

The reaction:

  • Adenine + PRPP > AMP + PPi
    • is catalyzed by adenosine phosphoribosyltransferase

The reactions:

  • Guanine + PRPP > GMP + PPi
  • Hypoxanthine + PRPP > IMP + PPi
    • are catalyzed by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
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128
Q
A

AZT

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129
Q

Why do we need to know the pathways of nucleotide synthesis and degradation? [4]

A
  • AZT is analog of thymidine, lacking 3’-OH
  • Prevents growth of DNA strand
  • HIVs reverse transcriptase has higher affinity to AZT than to dTTP, so AZT will prevent HIV replication cycle
  • Human DNApol has higher affinity for dTTP rather than AZT
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130
Q

What is AZT?

A

AZT is analog of thymidine, lacking 3’-OH.

It prevents growth of DNA strand.

HIVs’ reverse transcriptase has higher affinity to AZT than to dTTP, so AZT will prevent replication cycle.

Human DNApol has higher affinity for dTTP rather than AZT.

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131
Q

How does AZT prevent the HIV replication cycle?

A

AZT is analog of thymidine lacking 3’-OH and prevents growth of DNA strand.

HIVs’ reverse transcriptase has a higher affinity to AZT than to dTTP, so AZT prevents HIV replication cycle.

Human DNApol has higher affinity for dTTP rather than AZT.

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132
Q

What is Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome and how is it treated?

A

Hypoxanthine Guanine Phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT) deficiency is an X-linked genetic condition that results in up to 20 times the uric acid in the urine compared to normal individuals. Uric acid crystals form in urine.

HGPRT is treated with allopurinol.

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133
Q

How is a dinucleotide formed? (i.e., polymerization)

A

To make a dinucleotide, the 5’-phosphate is esterified to the 3’-OH of another nucleotide.

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134
Q

Describe the structure of nucleic acids. [6]

A
  • DNA and RNA are long polymers that consist of individual nucleotides linked by phosphodiester bonds.
  • Sugar-phosphate bonds form a ‘backbone’ and mostly planar bases ‘above’ the sugar and pointing away.
  • Chain of nucleotides has polarity: one end having 5’-phosphate and the other having a free 3’-OH.
  • Convention dictates that the sequence is written 5’ end on the left and 3’ end on the right (5’ > 3’)
  • RNA has 2’-OH that makes it less stable and prone to alkaline hydrolysis.
  • The sugar-phosphate backbone is negatively charged
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135
Q

The sugar-phosphate backbone of nucleic acids is negatively charged.

True or false?

A

True.

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136
Q

Why is RNA less stable and prone to alkaline hydrolysis?

A

2’-OH

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137
Q

What is the structure of DNA? [6]

A
  • DNA is a right-handed double helix double helix: two polynucleotide strands that are bound by H-bonding between bases.
  • The 2 polynucleotides (DNA strands) are complementary and antiparallel; the sequence of one determines the other
  • The sugar phosphate backbone is on the outside and the bases are on the inside of the helix.
  • The bases are almost perpendicular to the helix axis and are separated by 3.4Å.
  • The helix repeats itself every 34Å (there are ~10 bases per turn of the helix and a rotation of 360)
  • The diameter of the helix is 20Å.
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138
Q

What are Chargaff rules for the DNA structure?

A

The ratio of A:T and G:C in DNA is always around 1 - so A must bind T (2-H bonds) and G must bind C (3-H bonds)

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139
Q

What distance separates each base inside the DNA helix?

A

3.4Å

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140
Q

How often does the DNA helix repeat?

A

Every 34Å (~10 bases per turn)

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141
Q

What is the diameter of the DNA double helix?

A

20Å

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142
Q

What forces determine DNA structure? [4]

A
  1. Electrostatic (repulsion)
  2. Hydrophobic ‘forces’
  3. H-bonds
  4. Pi-stacking interactions (van der Waals interactions) between bases
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143
Q

What are the three forms of DNA whose structures have been solved?

A

A, B, and Z.

B form: 10.5 residues per turn of the helix, 1 turn is 36Å in length, major and minor groove due to glycosidic bonds not being perfectly opposite of each other.

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144
Q

Describe the B-form of DNA.

A

10.5 residues per turn, each turn is 36Å in length.

Major (wider and deeper) and minor (narrower and shallower) grooves are formed because glycosidic bonds are not perfectly opposite to each other.

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145
Q

Most proteins interacting with DNA do it via the major groove.

True or false?

A

True.

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146
Q

Is RNA double stranded or single stranded?

A
  • Usually single stranded (ss)
  • Some viruses have double stranded (ds) RNA
  • RNA can also fold on itself and form regions of ds structure (e.g., tRNA)
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147
Q
A
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148
Q
A
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149
Q
A
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150
Q

Draw Guanine and Cytosine H-bonds.

A
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151
Q

Draw Adenine and Thymine H-bonds.

A
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152
Q

What is the major-groove side of adenine-thymine and guanine-cytosine?

A
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153
Q

How may DNA be denatured (i.e., separated)?

A
  • Disruption of the hydrogen bonding and hydrophobic interactions between the bases resultin the separation of the strands (dsDNA > 2x ssDNA)
  • This may be done by increased temperatures or modified pH.
  • The melting temperature is defined as the temperature at the midpoint in the denaturation curve.
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154
Q

What can be used as a measure of concentration of DNA?

A

dsDNA absorbs less UV light at 260nm than ssDNA, so we use absorbance as a measure of concentration of DNA.

A-T denatures faster, G-C denatures slower.

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155
Q

A-T denatures slower than G-C.

True or false?

A

False.

A-T denatures faster, G-C denatures slower.

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156
Q

Describe the A form of DNA.

A
  • Certain sequences of DNA, RNA, and DNA/RNA hybrids can adopt this structure.
  • Also right handed by the helix is wider and shorter, 11bp per turn
  • Major groove is narrow and deep
  • Minor groove is very broad and shallow
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157
Q

Describe Protein-DNA interactions.

A
  • Essential to biological processes.
  • Transcriptional control, DNA replication, and DNA repair are all events that depend on accurate interpretation of the DNA sequence by a protein
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158
Q

Why is the major groove usually the site of most protein-DNA interactions?

A

The major groove is larger and contains more information:

  • H-bond donors/acceptors
  • Methyl groups (thymine)
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159
Q

What is the glycosyl bond conformation in the B structural form of DNA?

A

Anti

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160
Q

What influences the melting temperature (Tm) of the DNA double helix? [4]

A
  1. GC content: higher GC > higher Tm
  2. Salt: higher cations concentration increase Tm, but if salt concentration is too high Tm will decrease
  3. Low (<2.3) or high (>11.5) pH decreases Tm
  4. Organic compounds
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161
Q

What are the two steps of annealing?

A

DNA can be renatured (i.e., have two strands come back together at a lower temperature - known as annealing).

  1. Nucleation: the 2 strands find a region of complementarity and form a short double helix
  2. Zippering: in either direction from the paired region of complementarity, the double helix is elongated
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162
Q

What is hybridization?

A

We can anneal ssDNA with another ssDNA or ssRNA to form a hybrid molecule (hybridization).

For example:

  • Transcription DNA-RNA hybrid double helix
  • In situ hybridization - using fluorescently labelled DNA oligonucleotides to visualize RNA molecules using hybridization of RNA/DNA
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163
Q

What is supercoiling?

A

DNA is a large molecule that needs to be compactly packed but accessible when it is needed. B-DNA with 10bp per turn is ‘relaxed’. If we were to unwind DNA in one spot it becomes overwound in others.

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164
Q

What is the importance of managing supercoiling?

A
  1. Packaging of DNA
  2. DNA replication
  3. DNA transcription
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166
Q

What does type I Topoisomerase do?

A

Changes the linking number by +/- 1 by making ss break using Tyr in catalysis.

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167
Q

What does Type II Topoisomerase do?

A

Change linking number by +/- 2 by making ds break (using 2 ATP molecules)

For example, bacterial gyrase: underwinds bacterial DNA - decreasing the linking number by 2

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169
Q

What is the function of bacterial gyrase?

A

Bacterial gyrase is a special type II topoisomerase that underwinds bacterial DNA.

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171
Q

Describe the chromosome structure of eukaryotes.

A
  • Very compact structures made of chromatin (DNA-protein complex)
  • The basic unit is a nucleosome
  • The nucleosomes can be packed together into higher order structures.
    • 10 nm ‘zig-zag filament’
    • 30 nm superhelix
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172
Q

What is a nucleosome?

A
  • DNA protein complexes consisting of 2 tetramers of histones (each containing H2A, H2B, H3, and H4) forming a barrel with DNA wrapped twice around it.
  • H1 serves as a ‘clamp’ holding incoming strands at the base of the nucleosome together.
  • Histones have a high percentage of basic amino acids.
  • By changing the charge of histones we can modify the accessibility of DNA for transcription factors
    • Acetylation Lys makes DNA packing less tight - studied by epigenetics
  • The final form of DNA packaging in eukaryotes are chromosomes.
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173
Q

Describe the different levels of packaging of DNA. [6]

A
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174
Q

Describe histones in nucleosomes.

A
  • DNA protein complexes consisting of 2 tetramers of histones (each containing H2A, H2B, H3, and H4) form a barrel with DNA wrapped twice around it.
  • H1 serves as a ‘clamp’ holding incoming strands at the base of the nucleosome together.
  • Histones have a high percentage of basic amino acids.
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175
Q

What are telomeres?

A
  • The ends of linear chromosomes that consist of tandem repeats of a short (usually 6-8 nt) DNA sequence of TxGy in one strand (x,y =1-4).
  • ‘T-loop’; tandem repeat binding factors (TRF) stabilize telomeres
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176
Q

What are topoisomerases?

A

Enzymes that can chance the coiling of dsDNA (underwound overwound) by changing linking number (topology)

  • Type I Topoisomerases
    • Change linking number by +/- 1 by making ss break using Tyr in catalysis
  • Type II Topoisomerases
    • Change linking number by +/- 2 by making ds break (uses 2 ATP molecules)
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180
Q

Describe the chromosome of Escherichia coli (prokaryotes).

A
  • 4.5 Mbp of DNA in a single circle.
  • The chromosome is highly compacted
  • ~500 supercoiled loops
  • Histone-like proteins (HU proteins)
  • Nucleoid - region of cytoplasm with DNA in prokaryotes
    • Can have additional smaller pieces of circular DNA - plasmids (often antibiotic resistance genes)
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181
Q

What is hybridization?

A

We can anneal ssDNA with another ssDNA or ssRNA to form a hybrid molecule (hybridization).

For example:

  • Transcription DNA-RNA hybrid double helix
  • In situ hybridization - using fluorescently labelled DNA oligonucleotides to visualize RNA molecules using hybridization of RNA/DNA
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182
Q

What is supercoiling?

A

DNA is a large molecule that needs to be compactly packed but accessible when it is needed. B-DNA with 10bp per turn is ‘relaxed’. If we were to unwind DNA in one spot it becomes overwound in others.

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183
Q

What is the importance of managing supercoiling?

A
  1. Packaging of DNA
  2. DNA replication
  3. DNA transcription
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185
Q

What does type I Topoisomerase do?

A

Changes the linking number by +/- 1 by making ss break using Tyr in catalysis.

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186
Q

What does Type II Topoisomerase do?

A

Change linking number by +/- 2 by making ds break (using 2 ATP molecules)

For example, bacterial gyrase: underwinds bacterial DNA - decreasing the linking number by 2

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188
Q

What is the function of bacterial gyrase?

A

Bacterial gyrase is a special type II topoisomerase that underwinds bacterial DNA.

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190
Q

Describe the chromosome structure of eukaryotes.

A
  • Very compact structures made of chromatin (DNA-protein complex)
  • The basic unit is a nucleosome
  • The nucleosomes can be packed together into higher order structures.
    • 10 nm ‘zig-zag filament’
    • 30 nm superhelix
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191
Q

What is a nucleosome?

A
  • DNA protein complexes consisting of 2 tetramers of histones (each containing H2A, H2B, H3, and H4) forming a barrel with DNA wrapped twice around it.
  • H1 serves as a ‘clamp’ holding incoming strands at the base of the nucleosome together.
  • Histones have a high percentage of basic amino acids.
  • By changing the charge of histones we can modify the accessibility of DNA for transcription factors
    • Acetylation Lys makes DNA packing less tight - studied by epigenetics
  • The final form of DNA packaging in eukaryotes are chromosomes.
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192
Q

Describe histones in nucleosomes.

A
  • DNA protein complexes consisting of 2 tetramers of histones (each containing H2A, H2B, H3, and H4) form a barrel with DNA wrapped twice around it.
  • H1 serves as a ‘clamp’ holding incoming strands at the base of the nucleosome together.
  • Histones have a high percentage of basic amino acids.
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193
Q

What are telomeres?

A
  • The ends of linear chromosomes that consist of tandem repeats of a short (usually 6-8 nt) DNA sequence of TxGy in one strand (x,y =1-4).
  • ‘T-loop’; tandem repeat binding factors (TRF) stabilize telomeres
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194
Q

What are topoisomerases?

A

Enzymes that can chance the coiling of dsDNA (underwound overwound) by changing linking number (topology)

  • Type I Topoisomerases
    • Change linking number by +/- 1 by making ss break using Tyr in catalysis
  • Type II Topoisomerases
    • Change linking number by +/- 2 by making ds break (uses 2 ATP molecules)
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197
Q

Compare supercoiling in bacteria versus eukaryotes.

A
  • Bacterial supercoiling levels are determined by the balance between the activity of the topoisomerases.
  • Eukaryotic supercoiling is maintained by binding to histones and relaxation of DNA between nucleosomes.
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199
Q

What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

A

“The sequential transfer of genetic information flows to the proteins and once transferred cannot be transferred back”

“DNA makes RNA, RNA makes protein” (narrow definition, not entirely true)

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200
Q

What series of challenges exists in DNA replication? [8]

A
  1. Replication must overcome high affinity fo DNA strands to each other.
  2. The DNA must be unwound without being damaged.
  3. Must rearrange chromosomal packaging of DNA to allow access of molecular machinery of replication.
  4. Must be accurate.
  5. Must be fast.
  6. DNA polymerases that replication DNA can only do it in one direction 5’ → 3’, but strands run in opposite directions.
  7. Replication errors need to be repaired.
  8. DNA replication enzymes cannot replicate ends of linear chromosomes.
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201
Q

Describe how DNA replication is semi-conservative.

A

DNA is replicated semi-conservatively, which means each parental strand serves as a template for a daughter strand. (i.e., daughter molecule contains one original parental strand and one newly synthesized daughter strand.

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202
Q

Describe the mechanism of DNA polymerase. [3]

A
  1. dNTP base pairs with its complemental base on the parental template strand.
  2. The 3’-OH of the growing primer strand acts as a nucleophile, attacking the innermost 5’-phosphate of the incoming dNTP.
  3. A phosphodiester bond is formed with the release of pyrophosphate (PPi), which is then further hydrolyzed to 2 inorganic phosphates (Pi).

Note: The strand grows in the 5’ → 3’ direction.

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203
Q

What does DNA polymerase require? [2]

A

All DNA polymerases (DNA pol) require a template and a primer (need 3’-OH). This is in contrast with RNA polymerases (RNA pol), which require a template, but do not require a primer.

The template strand is the sequence that directs synthesis (i.e., determines the sequence of newly synthesized chain). The primer is the initial segment of polymer that has to be extended.

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204
Q

How is accuracy (i.e., fidelity) of DNA synthesis maintained by DNA polymerases?

A
  • Magnesium (Mg2+) is required.
  • Only correct base pairs have optimal interactions when oriented in the active site of DNA polymerase with the help of Mg2+ and Aspartate.
  • Mg2+ forms hydrogen bonds with minor groove of the growing chain
  • If wrong base pairing is formed, geometry will not be correct for proper H-bonds.
  • The DNA polymerase has a ‘lid’ that will close over the base-pair once the correct base pair has been formed.
  • All together, the error rate is lowered to to one mistake made by DNA pol only every 104-105 nucleotides.
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205
Q

What allows DNA pol III to have high processivity?

(i.e., the ability to add 1000 nt/sec)

A

DNA pol III has a clamp loading complex that ‘pops’ open the β-clamp, threads DNA through and closes the clamp.

This allows high processivity.

In comparison DNA pol I doesn’t have a clamp and can only add ~10 nt/sec.

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206
Q

What proteins are involved in DNA replication? [8]

A
  1. Processivity Factor - β-clamp of DNA pol III
  2. DNA ligase
  3. Helicase (DNA B)
  4. Topoisomerase (gyrase)
  5. Single-stranded DNA binding (SSB) proteins
  6. Primase
  7. DNA polymerase I
  8. DNA polymerase III
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207
Q

What happens if DNA pol makes a mistake by incorporating the wrong nucleotide?

A

Many polymerases have a proof-reading function.

  • 3’ → 5’ exonuclease activity
    • Detects mismatched base pairs and hydrolyzes (removes) the incorrect nucleotide.
    • This lowers the error rate to 1 in 106-8 nucleotides.
    • Sometimes this activity hydrolyzes a correct pair - wasteful but improves accuracy.
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208
Q

What if 3’ → 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA pol fails to detect a mismatch?

A

DNA repair enzymes can scan the DNA after replication and repair the mismatched bases - error rate 1 in 1010 nucleotides.

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209
Q

Where is the origin of replication in prokaryotes such as E.coli?

A

oriC locus - specific site (1 per circular genome)

This is a segment of ~246bp that contains several (4-5) repeats of a sequence recognized by the DNA A protein.

3 tandem 13’mer AT rich sites.

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210
Q

What is a replication fork?

A

Growth (replication) fork - the point at which new DNA is being synthesized.

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211
Q

Replication at oriC in prokaryotes happens unidirectionally.

True or false?

A

False.

Replication at oriC happens bidirectionally.

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212
Q

Describe initiation of DNA replication in E.coli. [5]

A
  1. DnaA protein binds at its binding sites within oriC and causes helix unwind at AT rich sites (aka DNA unwinding element - DUE)
  2. DnaB protein binds to DNA with the help of DnaC that hydrolyzes ATP to load DnaB onto DNA
  3. DnaB is a helicase and it will start unwinding and opening DNA using ATP hydrolysis (in opposite directions)
  4. Opening the helix puts strain on the rest of the helix, so DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) binds ahead of the replication fork and removes supercoils using ATP
  5. ssDNA binding proteins (SSB) bind to ssDNA to prevent reannealing of DNA strands
    • This is called preprimed complex and DNA replication can proceed.
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213
Q

Problem: replication fork moves in one direction at either end of the replication bubble, but DNApol synthesizes DNA 5’→3’ and the two strands are antiparallel.

What is the solution?

A

Make one strand continuously (leading strand) and a second one discontinuously (lagging strand).

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214
Q

What is the difference between leading and lagging strands?

A

Leading: one continuous synthesis by DNApol

Lagging: series of short fragments (Okazaki fragments)

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215
Q

The overall net direction of DNA synthesis for both strands is in the direction of growth.

True or false?

A

True.

The leading strand is made by continuous synthesis in the direction of DNA helix unwinding.

The lagging strand is made discontinuously in short stretches each made in the 5’→3’ direction as the DNA unwinds.

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216
Q

What are the four enzymatic activities of DNA polymerase I?

A
  1. A 5’→3’ (forward) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity, requiring a 3’ primer site and a template strand
  2. A 3’→5’ (reverse) exonuclease activity that mediates proofreading
  3. A 5’→3’ (forward) exonuclease activity mediating nick translation during DNA repair.
  4. A 5’→3’ (forward) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity. Pol I operates on RNA templates with considerably lower efficiency (0.1–0.4%) than it does DNA templates, and this activity is probably of only limited biological significance.
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217
Q

What is the function of DNA polymerases?

What do they require?

A

Activity: Synthesis of new DNA strand - the new strand synthesized by addition of nucleotides to the 3’ end will be complementary to the template strand

Requirements:

  • template strand
  • primer with free 3’-OH
  • dNTPs
  • Mg2+
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218
Q

What are the exonuclease activities of DNA pol I?

A
  • 3’→5’ exonuclease
  • 5’→3’ exonuclease
    • removes DNA fragments in ‘front’ of the enzyme
    • removes bp in front of the moving enzyme, and as a result any ss break in DNA (nick) will migrate in front of the enzyme
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219
Q

What is nick translation?

A

The 5’→3’ exonuclease activity of DNA pol I will remove bp in front of the moving enzyme, and as a result any ss break in DNA (nick) will migrate in front of the enzyme.

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220
Q

Describe DNA pol III. [6]

A
  • Huge protein (900kDA and 10 polypeptides)
  • A current model of replication of DNA pol III implicates dual function.
    • One part is involved in leading strand synthesis
    • The other is involved in lagging strand synthesis
  • Different subunit compositions allow for this specialization
  • Has high fidelity and processivity
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221
Q

What is processivity?

A

The ability to catalyze many reactions without releasing the substrate.

(i.e., DNA pol III has high processivity)

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222
Q

Describe DNA replication after initiation in prokaryotes. [6]

A
  1. A primase (DnaG) synthesizes 4-5 nt primer (RNA) for both leading and lagging strands
  2. DNA pol III replicates the leading and lagging strands at the same time (it has 2 core units)
    • The lagging strand is looped in such a way that its synthesis goes in the same direction as the leading strand.
  3. Every 1000bp the DNA pol III will release the lagging strand of DNA and then bind DNA further down the replication fork forming a new loop.
    • This leads to discontinuous synthesis of lagging strand in short, 1000bp Okazaki fragments
  4. Every time lagging strand synthesis restarts, primase (Dna G) needs to synthesize a fresh primer.
  5. DNA pol I fills the gaps between Okazaki fragments and removes RNA primers (5’→3’ exonuclease activity) and replaces it with DNA.
  6. DNA ligase connects breaks in newly synthesized strand of DNA by using ATP.
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223
Q

What does DNA ligase do?

A

Connects breaks in newly synthesized strand of DNA by using ATP.

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224
Q

Describe DNA replication termination in prokaryotes.

A
  • ter sites are short (20bp) sequences of DNA opposite of oriC that are bound by Tus proteins.
  • Ter-Tus complex stops a replication fork.
  • There are two sets of Ter-Tus complexes - one for each replication fork.
  • At the end of the DNA replication we will have catenated (intertwined) chromosomes that are resolved by special topoisomerases (Topoisomerase IV)
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225
Q

What is the function of DNA topoisomerase IV?

A

At the end of DNA replication we will have catenated (intertwined) chromosomes that are resolved by topoisomerase IV.

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226
Q

In prokaryotes and eukaryotes DNA replication and cell division happen at the same time.

True or false?

A

False.

In prokaryotes DNA replication and cell division happen at the same time (see image).

In eukaryotes these two processes are separated temporally.

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227
Q

What are the major differences with replication in eukaryotes? [11]

A
  1. More complex (more proteins and factors involved)
  2. Less studied
  3. Larger genomes
  4. Chromosomes are linear rather than circular
    • need to deal with ends (telomeres)
  5. Several origins of replication on each chromosome
  6. Replication fork movement is much slower
    • ~50nt/sec vs. ~1000nt/sec in prokaryotes
  7. Replication substrate is chromatin (i.e., histone bound DNA)
    • Histone removal is rate-limiting
  8. Okazaki fragments are shorter
    • 100-200nt vs. 1000-2000 nt in prokaryotes
  9. Primers are RNA-DNA made by Primase-pol-α
  10. Main polyermase is DNA polymerase δ
    • High processivity, associated with PCNA protein similar in function to β-clamp of prokaryotes
  11. RNA primers are removed by combination of RNase H (degrades RNA in RNA-DNA duplexes) and MF1 (maturation factor - 5’→3’ exonuclease)
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228
Q

What are telomeres?

A

The ends of eukaryotic chromosomes - bound by proteins forming a loop.

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229
Q

What is the main polymerase in DNA replication in eukaryotes?

A

DNA Polymerase δ

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230
Q

How are primers removed in DNA replication in eukaryotes?

A

By combination of RNase H (degrades RNA in RNA-DNA duplexes) and MF1 (maturation factor - 5’→3’ exonuclease)

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231
Q

Are Okazaki fragments shorter in eukaryotes or prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes

(100-200 nt vs. 1000-2000 nt)

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232
Q

What is the rate limiting component of DNA replication in eukaryotes?

A

Histone removal

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233
Q

What is the replication substrate of DNA replication in eukaryotes?

A

Chromatin

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234
Q

Because DNA polymerase can only replication in 5’→3’ direction, DNA at the end of linear chromosomes will be left unreplicated after the RNA primer is removed.

The linear chromosome in eukaryotes becomes progressively shorter with each round of DNA replication.

How does the cell solve this problem?

A

By adding DNA sequences to the ends of chromosomes →catalyzed by telomerase.

Telomerase contains protein and RNA:

  • The RNA functions as the template
  • Complementary to the DNA sequence found in the telomeric repeat
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235
Q

Describe the function of telomerase.

A
  • DNA ends with repeated sequence (in humans AGGGTT) that can be recognized by the telomerase
    • Telomerase RNA is complimentary to the AGGGTT).
  • Once bound to telomeres, proteins part of telomerase will extend (elongate) the telomere. This can be repeated several times to ensure correct length of the chromosomes
  • The complementary strand can be lengthened by action of primase and DNA pol.
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236
Q

What is transcription?

A

DNA directed synthesis of RNA by RNA polymerase.

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237
Q

What are the four types of RNA molecules?

A
  1. messenger RNA (mRNA) - template for translation
    • ~5% of total RNA
    • Each mRNA is usually unique (thousands - millions of unique sequences)
  2. transfer RNA (tRNA) - carry activated amino acids to ribosomes
    • ~15% of total RNA
    • At least 1 tRNA per amino acid
    • Usually smaller than mRNA
  3. ribosomal RNA (rRNA) - major component of ribosomes
    • Serve structural and catalytic roles
    • ~80% of total RNA
    • Few types: e.g., 23S, 16S, and 5S rRNAs
  4. Other RNAs (<1% of total RNA)
    • Examples: microRNA (miRNA), small nuclear RNA (snRNA), small interfering RNA (siRNA), long non-coding RNA (lnRNA), small nucleolar RNA (snoRNA), transfer-messenger RNA (tmRNA) - usually involved in regulation of gene expression.
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238
Q

What does RNA polymerase require?

A

Mg2+ similar to DNA pol, to coordinate NTPs in the active site.

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239
Q

What four elements can the typical protein-encoding gene be divided into?

A
  1. Transcriptional control sequences: sequences other than promoter that control transcription
  2. Promoter: sequence of DNA usually upstream (on the left) of transcription start (+1 site)
  3. Transcript: RNA that is being transcribed
  4. Termination sequences
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240
Q

Differentiate between the coding and the template strand.

A

​​Coding strand (non-template) - the strand of DNA that has the same sequence as RNA except T in place of U

Template strand (non-coding) - the strand of DNA that serves as a template during transcription (complimentary to coding strand)

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241
Q

How is a gene sequence typically reported?

A

People typically report a gene sequence as the DNA sequence that would be the mRNA if the T’s were written as U’s (the coding strand).

The template strand is complementary and antiparallel to the coding strand.

In eukaryotes, introns would also be present in the DNA.

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242
Q

What is the difference between standard, heat-shock, and nitrogen-starvation promoters in prokaryotes?

A

Examples of σ proteins: σ subunit recognizes a promoter and initiates transcription. After transcription initiation σ subunit will dissociate from RNA pol.

Standard promoter: σ 70

Heat-shock promoter: σ 32

Nitrogen-starvation: σ 54

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243
Q

What are the common consensus sequences of bacterial promoters?

A
  1. -10 sequence (Pribnow box)
    • Consensus sequence is TATAAT
  2. -35 sequence
    • Consensus sequence is TTGACA
  3. UP element
    • Less common than the other elements - usually present in genes with strong transcription such as housekeeping genes.
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244
Q

Promoters vary in the efficiency to start (initiate) transcription.

True or false?

A

True.

Strong promoters will initiate more effectively.

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245
Q

What factors affect promoter strength in prokaryotes?

A
  1. Sequence of promoter (e.g., sequence of -10 element, or presence of UP element)
  2. Presence or absence of regulatory proteins
  3. σ proteins
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246
Q

What is RNA pol holoenzyme?

A

E.coli RNA pol consist of α2ββ’ω (core protein) and σ subunit. All together they form holoenzyme.

RNA pol holoenzyme slides along the DNA ‘looking’ for the promoter to initiate transcription.

σ subunit recognizes a promoter and initiates transcription. After transcription initiation σ subunit will dissociate from RNA pol.

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247
Q

What are examples of σ proteins?

A

Standard promoter: σ 70

Heat-shock promoter: σ 32

Nitrogen-starvation: σ 54

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248
Q

Describe initiation of transcription in prokaryotes.

A
  • RNA pol holoenzyme scans the DNA.
  • σ protein determines specificity of what promoter will be recognized.
  • Once RNA pol holoenzyme is bound to the promoter (‘closed’ complex), it will unwind the DNA double helix (~17bp) forming ‘open’ complex.
  • Transcription will start (no primer is required)
  • σ protein will dissociate from RNA pol.
  • Only core RNA pol continues transcription promoter clearance and move to elongation phase.
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249
Q

Describe the elongation of transcription in prokaryotes.

A
  • RNA pol (core enzyme) synthesizes RNA using DNA as a template (non-coding strand)
  • RNA synthesis is in 5’→3’ direction
  • RNA pol has limited proof-reading capacity
  • Transcription occurs in transcription bubble - region of denatured DNA enclosed by RNA pol and containing the nascent (newly synthesized) RNA.
  • Transcription bubble contains 8 bp long DNA-RNA hybrid
  • DNA spontaneously rewinds back to double helix at the rear of the transcription bubble.
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250
Q

Describe termination of transcription in prokaryotes.

A
  • RNA is released from DNA and RNA pol
  • DNA helix completely rewind and RNA pol falls off DNA
  • There are two common mechanisms of termination:
    • Rho independent
    • Rho dependent
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251
Q

Describe Rho independent termination of transcription in prokaryotes.

A
  • Nascent RNA has CG palindromic sequence that forms stem loop structure that forces RNA pol to pause
  • A/U region is only weakly bound to DNA so RNA will dissociate from DNA
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252
Q

Describe Rho dependent termination of transcription in prokaryotes.

A
  • Rho (ρ) is a protein that binds nascent RNA at its binding site and travels along the RNA using ATP hydrolysis
  • Once Rho catches up with RNA pol it will cause its dissociation from the DNA
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253
Q

Give an overview of eukaryotic transcription. [5]

A
  1. Uses 3 different RNA polymerases: I, II, III
  2. Chromatin (have to deal with histones)
  3. mRNA is polyadenylated at 3’ end and has 5’ cap
  4. RNA must be spliced - made as larger precursor with intervening sequences (introns) that are removed before mRNA is exported from nucleus
  5. Activation of transcription can occur over long distances (enhancers)
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254
Q

Describe eukaryotic RNA polymerases.

A
  • RNA pol I: transcription of rRNAs (18S, 5.8S and 28S rRNAs)
  • RNA pol II: transcription of mRNAs, snRNA, miRNA
  • RNA pol III: transcription of tRNA, 5S rRNA, snRNAs
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255
Q

RNA pol I transcribes mRNA, snRNA, and miRNA.

True or false?

A

False - RNA pol II transcribes mRNA, snRNA and miRNA.

RNA pol I transcribes rRNAs (18S, 5.8S, and 28S rRNAs)

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256
Q

RNA pol III transcribes tRNA, 5S rRNA, and snRNAs.

True or false?

A

True.

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257
Q

Both RNA pol II and RNA pol III can transcribe snRNAs.

True or false?

A

True.

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258
Q

What must occur in order for transcription in eukaryotes?

A

Chromatin remodelling - in order to be more accessible for RNA pol and other proteins.

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259
Q

Describe chromatin remodelling.

A

In eukaryotes for transcription to occur chromatin must be remodelled by chromatin remodelling complex to be more accessible for RNA pol and other proteins.

E.g., histone acetyl transferase (HAT) adds acetyl groups to Lys of histones, making the histones less positively charged, which weakens the electrostatic interactions with DNA.

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260
Q

What is euchromatin?

A

Regions of DNA that are less densely packed and more accessible are called euchromatin - active transcription.

Euchromatin regions are unique for each cell type.

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261
Q

What is heterochromatin?

A

Regions of DNA that are more densely packed - no transcription.

Heterochromatin regions are unique for each cell type.

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262
Q

Describe eukaryotic promoters. [4]

A
  • Each RNA pol has a distinct type of promoter
  • Eukaryotes also have other sequences of DNA affecting the promoter - enhancers and insulators - with variable sequences and locations
  • Promoters, enhancers, insulators, and other regulatory elements are called ‘cis’ elements (sequences of DNA)
  • Eukaryotes have a number of proteins that bind promoters and enhancers, called transcription factors.
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263
Q

Describe the common elements of the RNA pol II promoter.

A
  1. TATA box (aka Hogness box) - consensus sequence TATAAA: key cis-element, discovered first, between -30 and -100 nt.
  2. CAAT box - sometimes present, usually -40 to -150 nt.

Note: These cis elements are not directly recognized by RNA pol II, it requires transcription factors to recognize the promoter and recruit RNA pol II.

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264
Q

Describe the initiation of transcription in eukaryotes. [5]

A

A set of general transcription factors (TFIIs - involved in almost all RNA pol II transcription initiation) guide RNA pol II to the transcription start site:

  1. TFIID binds to TATA box through TATA box binding protein (TBP) that unwinds and bends DNA
  2. TFIIs + Pol II then sequentially or all at once bind to the promoter forming basal transcription complex
  3. DNA unwinding changes the closed basal transcription complex into open basal transcription complex
  4. The C-terminal domain of RNA Pol II is phosphorylated at multiple sites
  5. RNA Pol II clears the promoter and transcription starts.

Note: This basal transcription complex does not initiate transcription by itself often. Gene specific transcription factors will bind to cis elements to increase transcription initiation rate (e.g., SREBP (TF) binds SRE (cis element) to increase transcription of HMG-CoA reductase.

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265
Q

RNA processing occurs in prokaryotes.

True or false?

A

False.

Unlike prokaryotic RNA, eukaryotic RNA is heavily processed, especially mRNA, preparing it for translation.

The unprocessed mRNA is known as pre-mRNA (i.e., not ready for translation)

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266
Q

Regarding the pentoses in nucleic acids, the C-5 of the pentose is joined to a nitrogenous base, and the C-1 to a phosphate group.

True or false?

A

False.

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267
Q

Regarding pentoses in nucleic acids, the bond that joins nitrogenous bases to pentoses is an O-glycosidic bond.

True or false?

A

False.

It is joined by an N-glycosidic linkage

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268
Q

Pentoses in nucleic acids are always in the β-furanose form.

True or false?

A

True.

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269
Q

Pentoses in nucleic acids undergo constant interconversion between the straight-chain and the ring form.

True or false?

A

False.

This is only true of free pentoses, not those that are components of nucleic acids.

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270
Q

DNA contains deoxyribose, which lacks a hydroxyl group at the 3’ carbon.

True or false?

A

False.

DNA contains deoxyribose, which lacks a hydroxyl group at the 2’ carbon.

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271
Q

Identify the base as purine or pyrimidine.

Which base is it most likely derived from?

A

Purine

Guanine

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272
Q

Identify the base as purine or pyrimidine.

Which base is it most likely derived from?

A

Purine

Adenine

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273
Q

Identify the base as purine or pyrimidine.

Which base is it most likely derived from?

A

Pyrimidine

Cytosine

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274
Q

Pyrimidines have one ring whereas purines have two

True or false?

A

True.

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275
Q

Thymine is found in DNA whereas uracil is found in RNA.

True or false?

A

True.

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276
Q

Cytosine makes three hydrogen bonds with adenine when complementarily paired.

True or false?

A

False.

Cytosine makes three hydrogen bonds with guanine.

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277
Q

The main biological function of a nitrogenous base is to bond nucleic acids together.

True or false?

A

True.

278
Q

Nitrogenous bases owe their basic properties to the lone pair of electrons of a nitrogen atom.

True or false?

A

True

279
Q

What is the best way to distinguish between RNA and DNA?

A

Ribose has -OH at 2’ carbon (component of RNA)

Deoxyribose has -H at 2’ carbon (component of DNA)

280
Q

Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase performs an irreversible reaction due to the loss of a phosphate trimer.

True or false?

A

False.

281
Q

What is the cost in ATP equivalents to make GDP from Ribose-5-P?

A

2 ATP used for conversion of R5P to PRPP

5 ATP used for synthesis of IMP from PRPP

2 ATP used for conversionIMP to GMP

1 ATP used for conversion of GMP to GDP

Net cost: - 10 ATP

282
Q

Inhibition of glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase increases uric acid production.

True or false?

A

False

283
Q

Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is negatively regulated by concentrations of PRPP.

True or false?

A

False.

284
Q

The step at which the anomeric carbon changes from beta to alpha configuration is catalyzed by glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase.

True or false?

A

False.

285
Q

The step at which the anomeric carbon changes from alpha to beta configuration is catalyzed by glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase.

True or false?

A

True

286
Q

If 18O labeled CO2, 15N labeled aspartate, and 14C labeled glutamine were used to synthesize a purine, what atom(s) would be labeled?

A

N-1

287
Q

What are the sources of each atom in a purine ring structure?

A
288
Q

Assume a cell has an adequate supply of adenine nucleotides but requires more guanine nucleotides. Which of the following statements are true under this condition:

1) Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase will not be fully inhibited.
2) AMP will be a feedback inhibitor of the condensation of IMP with aspartate.
3) GMP will be a feedback inhibitor of the conversion of IMP to XMP.
4) ATP is required to produce GMP from IMP.

A

1, 2 and 4

289
Q

What is required for complete inhibition of glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase?

A

The synergistic effect of IMP, AMP, and GMP.

290
Q

What assures that the limited amount of IMP formed will be channeled to the production of guanine nucleotides?

A

AMP will be a feedback inhibitor of the condensation of IMP with aspartate.

291
Q

What is the cost in ATP equivalents to make CTP from glutamine, aspartate, and ribose-5-phosphate?

A

2 ATP used for conversion of R5P to PRPP

2 ATP used for synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate and UMP

2 ATP used for conversion of UMP to UTP

1 ATP used for conversion of UTP to CTP

Net cost: – 7 ATP

292
Q

Why is administration of UMP a biochemically sound treatment for Orotic Aciduria?

A

Orotic aciduria is caused by a deficiency of orotate phosphoribosyl transferase/orotidine-5’-decarboxylase (=UMP synthetase).

Since this enzyme is deficient UMP will not be produced in high enough quantities for pyrimidine synthesis.

UMP supplementation bypasses this block.

293
Q

Methotrexate is an inhibitor of the dihydrofolate reductase enzyme required to get the cofactor THF (tetrahydrofolate) from folic acid. Administration of methotrexate would inhibit:

1) de novo synthesis of UMP.
2) conversion of dUMP to dTMP.
3) conversion of IMP to GMP.
4) de novo synthesis of IMP.

A

2 and 4

294
Q

How does allopurinol treat gout?

What is another compound that can be used to treat gout? And in what form?

A

Allopurinol is a competitive inhibitor for xanthine oxidase.

It inhibits the enzyme to stop uric acid production.

Hypoxanthine (enol form) is another compound that can be used for gout treatment.

295
Q

Administration of allopurinol to a patient with gout and normal HG-PRT levels would be expected to lead to decreased de novo synthesis of IMP.

True or false?

A

True, as long as HG-PRT is available, the bases will be salvaged to make AMP, GMP, and IMP, which inhibits the rate limiting step of the synthesis.

296
Q

Administration of allopurinol to a patient with gout and normal HG-PRT levels would be expected to lead to decreased uric acid in the urine.

True or false?

A

True.

Allopurinol directly inhibits the production of uric acid.

297
Q

Administration of allopurinol to a patient with gout and normal HG-PRT levels would be expected to lead to an increase in hypoxanthine in the blood.

True or false?

A

True.

Hypoxanthine is a substrate for the inhibited enzyme, and therefore, increases.

298
Q

Administration of allopurinol to a patient with gout and normal HG-PRT levels would be expected to lead to increased levels of PRPP.

True or false?

A

False.

As long as HG-PRT is available, the increasing xanthine, and hypoxanthine will consume the PRPP (unlike in Lesch-Nyhan syndrom)

299
Q

Administration of allopurinol to a patient with gout and normal HG-PRT levels would be expected to lead to increased xanthine in the blood.

True or false?

A

True.

Xanthine is a substrate for the inhibited enzyme.

300
Q

A dideoxynucleotide has hydrogen instead of a hydroxyl at the 3’ position.

What would happen to the DNA polymerization reaction if this analog were incorporated into the growing strand?

Why?

A

The incorporation of this analog into the growing strand would result in chain termination since there is no 3’-OH to form a phosphodiester bond with the next incoming nucleotide.

301
Q

Explain why DNA is more stable than RNA.

Identify the moiety that is responsible RNA’s instability and explain how it leads to the breakdown of RNA.

A

Alkaline hydrolysis of RNA.

At basic pH, the 2’-OH gets deprotonated and can perform a nucleophilic attack on the phosphate group in the phosphodiester bond of the sugar-phosphate backbone of the RNA.

302
Q

The favoured form of nucleotide unit conformation (with respect to the pentose ring) is anti- because of limited rotation about the C-1’ to N-9 bond.

True or false?

A

False.

The rotation about the C-1’ to N-9 bond is not limited as purine can exist in both syn and anti conformations.

303
Q

What is the source of each of the atoms in a pyrimidine ring structure?

A
304
Q

Pyrimidines are only found in the syn- conformation because of the C-2 keto group.

True or false?

A

False.

Pyrimidines are only found in the anti- conformation.

305
Q

Purines can be found in either the anti- or syn- conformation depending on rotation about the C-4’ to C-5’ bond.

True or false?

A

False.

Anti- or syn- conformation in purines is determined by rotation about the C-1’ to N-9 bond.

306
Q

What is the favoured form for both purines and pyrimidines, with regard to the pentose ring, and why?

A

The favoured form for both purines and pyrimidines is anti- because it limits steric hindrance with the sugar ring.

307
Q

The favoured form for purines is syn- because of the stabilizing effect of hydrogen bonds between the base and the sugar ring.

True or false?

A

False.

The favoured form is anti because is limits steric hindrance with the sugar ring.

308
Q

In nucleic acids, what is the role of phosphodiester bonds?

A

To join adjacent nucleotides in one strand.

309
Q

In nucleic acids, what is the role of N-glycosidic linkage?

A

To link nitrogenous base to pentose in nucleotide.

310
Q

In a nucleic acid, what is the significance of a phosphate ester bond?

A

This is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide.

311
Q

What is the role of hydrogen bonds in nucleic acids?

A

To join complementary nucleotides between two strands.

312
Q

Only a right-handed dsDNA helix is possible.

True or false?

A

False.

Left-handed helix is possible - less common.

313
Q

Sequences rich in A-T base pairs are denatured less readily than those rich in G-C base pairs.

True or false?

A

False.

A-T base pairs are denatured more readily than G-C pairs.

314
Q

The sequence of bases has no effect on the overall structure of DNA.

True or false?

A

False.

The sequence of bases will influence base stacking (pi-bonds) and folding of the DNA.

315
Q

The two strands of DNA are parallel.

True or false?

A

False.

The two strands are anti-parallel.

316
Q

The two strands of DNA have complementary sequences.

True or false?

A

True.

317
Q

The composition (mole fraction) of one of the strands of a double-helical DNA is [A] = 0.3, and [G] = 0.24.

Calculate the following, if possible. If impossible, write “I.”

For the same strand:

[T] =

[C] =

[T] + [C] =

For the other strand:

[A] =

[T] =

[A] + [T] =

[G] =

[C] =

[G] + [C] =

A

For the same strand:

[T] = I

[C] = I

[T] + [C] = 1 - 0.3 - 0.24 = 0.46

For the other strand:

[A] = I

[T] = 0.3

[A] + [T] = I

[G] = I

[C] = 0.24

[G] + [C] = I

318
Q

What determines anti/syn conformation of purines?

A

Rotation about the C-1’ to N-9 bond.

319
Q

You have 2 samples of bacterial DNA. One is isolated from a normal E. coli which thrive at 37oC and another is from a thermophilic bacterium that lives in geothermic vents in excess 90oC. You’ve accidentally mixed up the labels of those 2 samples, you have no idea which one is which. All you do know is that the DNA from the thermophilic bacteria is extremely rich in GC base pairs.

How does the thermophilic bacterial DNA being extremely rich in GC base pairs help in its survival at temperatures of 90oC and higher?

A

GC base pairs have 3 hydrogen bonds as opposed to 2 hydrogen bonds between AT base pairs. Therefore, DNA with higher GC content requires a lot more energy to be broken down, leading to higher melting point temperature. The high Tm allows for survival of the thermophilic bacteria at termperatures in excess of 90oC.

320
Q

You have 2 samples of bacterial DNA. One is isolated from a normal E. coli which thrive at 37°C and another is from a thermophilic bacterium that lives in geothermic vents in excess 90°C. You’ve accidentally mixed up the labels of those 2 samples, you have no idea which one is which. All you do know is that the DNA from the thermophilic bacteria is extremely rich in GC base pairs.

In a few sentences, describe an experimental design that you can use to determine which sample is which using DNA absorption of UV light.

A

Thermophilic bacteria will have a higher melting temperature than E.Coli. Absorbance values (UV 260nm) increase when DNA is denatured as compared to intact double stranded DNA. If samples from both bacteria are heated to temperatures higher than 37°C but lower than 90°C, the bacteria from E.Coli will denature but the thermophilic bacteria will remain double stranded. By measuring the absorbance values of the two samples pre- and post- heating, we can identify the E. Coli bacteria as its absorbance value will be higher than its double stranded counterpart, while the absorbance of the thermophilic bacterial DNA will not change.

321
Q

Does salt concentration influence the melting temperature of DNA?

A

Yes, cations minimize repulsions between strands (phosphate backbones)

322
Q

Does GC content influence the melting temperature of DNA?

A

Yes, GC = 3-H bonds; AT = 2 H-bonds.

323
Q

Does pH influence the melting temperature of DNA?

A

Yes, high or low pH changes nitrogenous base tautomers which affects H-bonds.

324
Q

Does DNA concentration influence its melting temperature?

A

No, amount of DNA does not influence Tm.

325
Q

Does the solvent (aqueous vs. organic) influence the melting temperature of DNA?

A

Yes.

Whether the solvent is aqueous or organic influences the hydrophobic effect, which effects the stability of the DNA.

So organic solvent = less hydrophobic effect = less stable DNA = lower melting temperature.

326
Q

DNA supercoiling makes the DNA molecule relaxed.

True or false?

A

False.

Relaxed DNA: 10.5 bp/turn → no supercoils and most energetically favourable state.

When DNA is underwould or overwound supercoiling helps to relieve some of the topological stress.

Supercoiling has higher or lower bp/turn overall compared to relaxed DNA.

327
Q

Supercoiling of DNA occurs only in viruses.

True or false?

A

False.

Any organism that has ds-DNA capable of replicating and transcription requires DNA to be underwound to allow for DNA separation.

328
Q

DNA supercoiling makes DNA appear larger on an agarose gel than DNA which isn’t supercoiled.

True or false?

A

False.
Negative DNA travel toward positive anode.

Separates based on size → supercoiled DNA is compacted in size and will appear smaller than relaxed DNA on a gel.

329
Q

DNA supercoiling usually results from overwinding.

True or false?

A

False.

Negative supercoiling (underwound) DNA makes strand separation easier for replication or transcription to occur.

Bacterial and eukaryotic DNA is typically underwound for this reason.

Overwinding is not usually seen.

330
Q

DNA supercoiling results in compaction of the DNA structure.

True or false?

A

True.

Supercoiling allows larger scale helical structure of relaxed DNA to be compacted so that it can fit the cellular environment.

331
Q

Topoisomerase II makes double stranded cuts on the DNA.

True or false?

A

True

332
Q

Topoisomerase I changes the linking number by 1 and topoisomerase II changes the linking number by 2.

True or false?

A

True.

333
Q

Topoisomerases I and II aid in changing the overall size of ds-DNA.

True or false?

A

True.

334
Q

Topoisomerase I is couple to ATP hydrolysis.

True or false?

A

False.

Topoisomerase II is coupled to ATP hydrolysis, not topoisomerase I.

335
Q

Bacterial gyrase is a special type of topoisomerase II.

True or false?

A

True

336
Q

Which sample(s) are supercoiled.

Explain.

A

Sample B.

Topoisomerase can underwind or overwind DNA.

The increase in size indicated by the banding on the gel for sample B pre- and post- treatment show that sample B is supercoiled.

337
Q

Calculate values for the following topological properties of a closed, circular DNA containing 1700 bp (assume 10 bases per turn of relaxed DNA). Lk can be defined as number of turns of a given piece of DNA = total number of base pairs / numbers of base pairs per turn.

A. Lk when the DNA is relaxed (Lk0)

B. Lk when DNA in part A is underwound by 12 enzymatic turnovers of bacterial DNA gyrase.

C. Lk when the DNA from part B is relaxed through 8 enzymatic turnovers of bacterial DNA topoisomerase (type I)

A

A. Lk0 = total bp/ number of base pairs per turn of relaxed DNA

  • Lk0 = 1700/10 = 170

B. DNA gyrase → topoisomerase II - changes Lk by 2 for every enzymatic turnover. When DNA is underwound Lk reduces.

  • Lk1 = Lk0 - (12 x 2) = 170 - 24 = 146

C. DNA in part B is underwound (> 10 bp per turn) so it needs to be overwound to relax it. Topoisomerase I changes Lk by 1 for every enzymatic turnover. When DNA is overwound Lk increases.

  • Lk2 = Lk1 + (8 x 1) = 146 + 8 = 154
338
Q

When DNA is underwound Lk reduces.

True or false?

A

True.

339
Q

When DNA is overwound Lk reduces.

True or false?

A

False.

When DNA is overwound Lk increases.

340
Q

What is the linking number definition?

A

Total number of base pairs per number of base pairs per turn.

Reduces when DNA is underwound.

Increases when DNA is overwound.

341
Q

A culture of E. coli growing in 14N-labelled medium (all the nitrogen in their DNA is 14N-labelled) is switched to a medium containing N-15 for three generations.

What is the molar ratio of hybrid DNA (15N-14N) to heavy DNA (15N-15N)?

A

1:3

342
Q

A culture of E. coli growing in 14N-labelled medium (all the nitrogen in their DNA is 14N-labelled) is switched to a medium containing N-15 for three generations.

The E. coli culture is grown another 5 generations in media containing N-15.

What is the molar ratio of hybrid DNA (15N-14N) to light DNA (14N-14N) for generation 8?

What about hybrid to heavy for generation 8?

A

2: 0 for hybrid to light
1: 127 for hybrid to heavy

343
Q

Soluble extracts of E. coli were incubated with dATP, dTTP, dGTP and dCTP precursors.

dATP and dGTP were labelled with 32P in the beta-phosphate while dTTP and dCTP were labelled with 32P in the gamma-phosphate group.

Would radioactivity be found in the precipitate of the resulting DNA molecule? Explain.

A

No. DNA polymerase catalyzes the incorporation of new dNTPs by cleaving off pyrophosphate, which have the β and γ phosphate groups. Only the α-groups are incorporated into the newly synthesized strand.

344
Q

The DNA below is replicated from left to right.

Which strand is leading and which strand is lagging?

A

Top is lagging.

Bottom is leading.

345
Q

5’→3’ exonuclease performs a proof-reading function.

True or false?

A

False. 5’→3’ exonuclease performs a nick translation function.

346
Q

3’→5’ exonuclease performs a nick translation function.

True or false?

A

False.

3’→5’ exonuclease performs a proof-reading function.

347
Q

DNA polymerase I opens up the DNA at the replication fork at the oriC site in prokaryotes.

True or false?

A

False.

DNA-A protein binds within the Ori-C site and causes helix unwinding at the AT rich sites (DUE region).

348
Q

DNA-A helicase seals gaps between DNA fragments.

True or false?

A

False.

DNA ligase seals gaps between DNA fragments.

DNA-B helicase helps to unwind and open up DNA.

There is no DNA-A helicase.

349
Q

DNA primase extends primers by adding nucleotides to the 3’ end.

True or false?

A

False.

DNA pol III extends the primer by the 3’ end, DNA primase places the primer.

350
Q

Topoisomerases work ahead of the replication fork to prevent supercoiling.

True or false?

A

True.

351
Q

A select mutation is causing a cell lineage to be unable to replicate DNA successfully.

When observed under a microscope, researchers observe that the DNA is able to be separated, but the template strands keep coming back together before the new strands can be replicated.

Based on this observation, which protein involved in DNA replication is most likely mutated.

A

Single-stranded binding proteins.

These proteins help to stabilize the separated DNA strands during the replication process.

352
Q

The purpose of the beta-clamp in DNA replication of E.Coli is to increase proofreading activity of DNA polymerase III.

True or false?

A

False.

353
Q

The purpose of the beta-clamp in DNA replication of E.Coli is to increase fidelity of the DNA replication process.

True or false?

A

False.

354
Q

The purpose of the beta-clamp in DNA replication of E.Coli is to stabilize single-stranded DNA on the lagging strand.

True or false?

A

False.

355
Q

The purpose of the beta-clamp in DNA replication of E.Coli is to increase the processivity of DNA polymerase III.

True or false?

A

True.

356
Q

The purpose of the beta-clamp in DNA replication of E.Coli is to relieve topological stress in front of the replication fork.

True or false?

A

False.

357
Q

ds-DNA isolated from a dog has the following sequence. The BOLDED nucleotides represent the region that you are required to amplify using PCR. The underlined regions represent the sequences that flank your region of interest and where your primers should attach to the template DNA.

Design the correct primer sequences required to correctly amplify the region of interest.

A

Primer W = ACGTAGAGAC

Primer X = TACTCGGTCC

dNTP’s are added onto the 3’-OH end of the primers –chain elongation takes place in the 5’→3’ direction. Primers will have complementary sequences to their template strands. To amplify the region of interest: primer X will need to attach to the lagging (5’→3’) template strand and have a complementary sequence to the underlined region. Primer W will need to attach to the leading strand (3’→5’) template strand and have the same sequence as the underlined region.

Based on questions in tutorial: If the DNA was single stranded and you only need to amplify the region on the given 5’→3’ template, you would still need both primers to amplify the region of interest. Round 1 of PCR would only utilize primer X and produce the complementary 3’→5’ strand. All the following PCR rounds would utilize both primers to amplify the region of interest.

358
Q

Briefly describe the structure of telomeres and their role in DNA replication.

A

Telomeres are repeating sequences found at the ends of linear eukaryotic chromosomes. Due to the ‘primer problem’ chormosomes get shortened after each replication. Telomeres buffer the ends of chromosomes and allow for replication of all genetic information by lengthening the chromosome so that the essential part of the chromosome doesn’t get lost during replication.

359
Q

What is unusual about the structure and/or mechanism of action of telomerase?

A

It uses an RNA template to synthesize DNA telomeres. The enzyme has an RNA component and DNA polymerase activity.

360
Q

The telomeric repeat amplification protocol (TRAP) is a PCR-based experiment that is used by biochemists to detect the presence of telomerase in cells. The experiment works in 3 phases: (1) telomerase (if it’s present in the cell extract) synthesizes telomeric repeats at the 3’ end of an 18nt synthetic ssDNA fragment. (2) ds-DNA is produced via synthesis of the complementary DNA strand. (3) PCR is performed and the region containing telomeric repeats are amplified.

If phase 1 was successful and telomerase was present in the cell tissue extract, write out the DNA sequence that telomerase synthesizes (with 4 telomeric repeats).

A
361
Q

The telomeric repeat amplification protocol (TRAP) is a PCR-based experiment that is used by biochemists to detect the presence of telomerase in cells. The experiment works in 3 phases: (1) telomerase (if it’s present in the cell extract) synthesizes telomeric repeats at the 3’ end of an 18nt synthetic ssDNA fragment. (2) ds-DNA is produced via synthesis of the complementary DNA strand. (3) PCR is performed and the region containing telomeric repeats are amplified.

Phase 2 allows the contents of the microfuge tube to be exposed to 2 separate temperatures: 30 secs at 58°C and 30 secs at 72°C. Briefly explain what processes are occurring in the microfuge tube at these 2 temperatures.

A

58°C →annealing of primers

72°C →extension of primers –Taq polymerase adds dNTPs to 3’ end of primers.

362
Q

The telomeric repeat amplification protocol (TRAP) is a PCR-based experiment that is used by biochemists to detect the presence of telomerase in cells. The experiment works in 3 phases: (1) telomerase (if it’s present in the cell extract) synthesizes telomeric repeats at the 3’ end of an 18nt synthetic ssDNA fragment. (2) ds-DNA is produced via synthesis of the complementary DNA strand. (3) PCR is performed and the region containing telomeric repeats are amplified.

Using all of the information presented to you in this question, what is the sequence of the primer present in the microfuge tube? Assume that the primer is 18nt long. Write your primer sequence (in the 5’ to 3’ direction).

A
363
Q

DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase synthesize their polymers in a 5’→3’ direction.

True or false?

A

True.

364
Q

RNA polymerase polymerizes selectively whereas DNA polymerase must polymerize everything.

True or false?

A

True.

365
Q

Fidelity is much more important in RNA polymerase than DNA polymerase.

True or false?

A

False.

366
Q

DNA polymerase requires primers to synthesize its polymer whereas RNA polymerase does not.

True or false?

A

True.

367
Q

Regarding the sigma factor of E.coli RNA polymerase, it associates with the promoter before binding the core enzyme.

True or false?

A

False

368
Q

Regarding the sigma factor of E.coli RNA polymerase, it combines with the core enzyme to confer specific binding to a promoter.

True or false?

A

True.

369
Q

Regarding the sigma factor of E.coli RNA polymerase, it is inseparable from the core enzyme.

True or false?

A

False.

370
Q

Regarding the sigma factor of E.coli RNA polymerase, it is required for termination of an RNA chain.

True or false?

A

False.

371
Q

Regarding the sigma factor of E.coli RNA polymerase, it will catalyze synthesis of RNA from both DNA template strands in the absence of the core enzyme.

True or false?

A

False.

372
Q

What inhibits rho-independent termination?

A

Deamination of adenosines (A) on the template strand and mutation of ALL palindromic sequence formations in the mRNA.

373
Q

Consider the following small hypothetical gene (highlighted in bold).

Give the sequence(s) of the corresponding mRNA strand(s) transcribed from this gene.

Make sure to indicate the 5’ and 3’ ends of the mRNA sequence(s).

A
374
Q

Dissociation of RNA polymerase from the template strand inhibits rho-independent termination.

True or false?

A

False.

375
Q

Removing the rut sequence from the template strand inhibits rho-independent termination.

True or false?

A

False.

376
Q

What are the four types of RNA processing in eukaryotes?

A
  1. 5’ cap
  2. Polyadenylation
  3. Splicing
  4. RNA editing
377
Q
A

RNA 5’ Cap

378
Q
A

RNA 5’ Cap

379
Q

Describe the structure and function of the 5’-cap.

A
  • 5’ to 5’ linkage to guanylate formed at the 5’ end during RNA maturation
  • The guanine is methylated at N-7
  • The 2’-OH of ribose is also methylated
  • Helps ribosome to recognize the 5’ end of mRNA
  • Improves stability and prevents degradation of mRNA
  • Present only on mRNAs
380
Q

Describe polyadenylation of pre-mRNA.

A
  • Addition of poly A tail at the 3’ end of mRNA
  • When most of mRNAs are transcribed they will have AAUAAA sequence at 3’ end
  • A special endonuclease recognizes this sequence and cuts mRNA downstream of the signal
  • Then PolyA polymerase adds 200-300 adenylate residues to the 3’-OH
  • Recognized by translation initiation factors
  • Improves stability of mRNA
381
Q

What is an exon?

A

Region of mRNA that is retained in mature mRNA (usually have coding sequence)

382
Q

What is an intron?

A

Regions of mRNA that are removed during maturation (usually non-coding sequence)

383
Q

What is splicing?

A

The removal of introns and linking exons together in mRNA.

In humans, there are on average 8 introns per mRNA.

384
Q

How many exons and introns does β-globin have?

A

β-globin has 3 coding sequences (exons) and 2 non-coding regions (introns).

385
Q

What is the function of introns?

A
  • Introns are considered ‘selfish’ elements of genome
  • Introns can include non-coding RNAs (miRNA, snRNA, etc.) that are involved in gene expression regulation
  • Intron-mediated enhancement of gene expression
  • Introns were first discovered as loops of DNA hybridized with corresponding mature mRNA.
386
Q

Presence of introns increases sequence variability.

True or false?

A

True.

Alternative splicing - regions that are removed from mRNA will differ from cell to cell, as a result mature mRNA and proteins will have different sequences.

387
Q

Give an example of alternative splicing.

A

Insulin receptor

  • Exon 11 is retained in splicing
    • IR-B (main metabolic receptor for insulin)
  • Exon 11 is removed during splicing
    • IR-A (mainly transduces growth and anabolic effects of insulin, especially during development)
388
Q

Describe group I self-splicing introns.

A
  • First 3’-OH of free guanosine acts as a nucleophile attacking the P in at the 5’ splice site and 5’ intron-exon border is cleaved
  • Then 3’-OH of 5’ exon acts as a nucleophile and attacks P at 3’ splice site and 3’ intron-exon border is cleaved
  • Self-catalyzing (a.k.a. ribozymes)
389
Q

Describe group II self-splicing introns.

A
  • 2’-OH Adenosine in the middle of the intron acts as a nucleophile attacking the P in the 5’ splice site and 5’ intron-exon border is cleaved
  • As a result, lariat structure with 2’-5’ phosphodiester bond is formed
  • The second step is the same as in Group 1: exons are joined and intron leaves as a lariat
  • Self-catalyzing (a.k.a. ribozyme)
390
Q

What is the predominant form of splicing in humans?

A

Spliceosome mediated

391
Q

Describe spliceosome mediated splicing.

A
  • Requires group snRNA and protein complex, called spliceosome (a.k.a. snRNP: small nuclear ribonuclear proteins)
  • Spliceosome recognizes introns and removes them
  • The mechanism involves formation of a lariat structure
392
Q

What is the active site of peptidyl transferase?

A

rRNA: active site of peptidyl transferase in ribosome is part of the 23S rRNA in the large subunit.

393
Q

Name 3 ribozymes.

A

Group I introns

Group II introns

rRNA: active site of peptidyl transferase in ribosome is part of the 23S rRNA in the large subunit

394
Q

What is RNA editing?

A
  • Change in nucleotide sequence in mRNA prior to translation, which leads to changes in protein sequences.
  • Rare - in humans less that 1% of all mRNA
395
Q

Give an example of RNA editing in humans.

A
  • Apolipoprotein B: 1 gene - 1 pre-mRNA, but 2 mature mRNAs:
    • In the liver, no editing happens - so full length proteins are produced (ApoB100) and incorporated into LDL
    • In the intestines, RNA editing is happening and C is edited to U, this introduces UAA stop codon and translation stops early, resulting in ApoB48, which is incorporated into chylomicrons.
396
Q

Humans edit more than 50% of mRNA in their brain.

True or false?

A

False.

Cephalopods, such as octopus, edit more than 50% of mRNA in their brain.

RNA editing is rare in humans - less than 1% of all mRNA.

397
Q

Prokaryotic mRNA does not contain a 5’ cap and a poly A tail found in eukaryotes.

True or false?

A

True

5’ capping and 3’ polyadenylation require specific enzymes and interactions found only in eukaryotes.

398
Q

Translation in prokaryotes can take place as the RNA is being transcribed while in eukaryotes cannot.

True or false?

A

True.

Prokaryotic mRNA doesn’t require extensive post-transcriptional modification before translation.

399
Q

Eukaryotic mRNA needs to be transported out of the nucleus for protein synthesis.

True or false?

A

True.

Ribosomes are found outside of the nucleus. mRNA must be modified (capping, polyA tail) and usually spliced before export + translation.

400
Q

Eukaryotes can regulate transcription by modifying its histone tails.

True or false?

A

True.

Histone modifications can affect how DNA binds histone (e.g., Acetylation, methylation), and also how tightly DNA and histones are packed together.

401
Q

Prokaryotic mRNA transcripts requires additional processing before it can be used for translation.

True or false?

A

False.

Eukaryotic mRNA requires processing. Prokaryotic mRNA can be directly translated during or after transcription.

402
Q

Which of these element (s) do all eukaryotic promoter regions share?

A. Enhancers that accept binding agents

B. Transcription factors

C. A basal promoter (TATA box)

A

A basal promoter (TATA box)

403
Q

What kinds of RNA processing is carried out by eukaryotes?

A
  • Splicing and removal of introns
  • Capping of the 5’ end
  • Conversion of a primary mRNA transcript into a mature mRNA transcript
  • Polyadenylation of the 3’ end

Note: Nucleotide proofreading function is not a type of RNA processing carried out by eukaryotes.

404
Q

All three eukaryotic RNA polymerases recognize the same promoters as prokaryotic promoters.

True or false?

A

False.

They all recognize different promoter regions.

405
Q

RNA pol I has similar structural elements to bacterial RNA polymerase.

True or false?

A

False.

RNA Pol II has similar structure to bacterial RNA polymerase.

406
Q

Only eukaryotic RNA pol I recognizes prokaryotic promoters

True or false?

A

False.

They recognize differen promoters.

407
Q

Eukaryotic RNA polymerases are found in the cytoplasm.

True or false?

A

False.

Eukaryotic transcription occurs in the nucleus.

408
Q

RNA pol II is involved in the transcription of mRNA.

True or false?

A

True.

409
Q

What is TFIID and what is it involved in?

A

TFIID is a transcription factor that is involved in binding the TATA box through TBP.

410
Q

Two distinct mRNAs have been isolated from a single unknown organism. The mRNAs are shown.

A. What structural feature on mRNA #1 is missing on #2? Why might this be the case?

B. Someone says ‘Bacteria are tricky with their mRNA’. What fact about these mRNA sequences has this person forgotten?

A

A. mRNA #2 is missing the poly-A tail. This is because the consensus sequence 5’-AAUAAA that is 10bp upstream is missing and without this sequence the poly-A tail is not added.

B. Presence of poly A tail suggests these mRNA came from eukaryotes and NOT prokaryotes (bacteria).

411
Q

The general splicesome reaction involves the splicing of introns and the tethering of exons.

True or false?

A

True.

412
Q

The formation of the lariat structure in a splicesome reaction is dependent on the adenine nucleotide acting as a nucleophile.

True or false?

A

True.

2’OH in adenosine acts as the nucleophile.

413
Q

In a splicesome reaction 5’-GU and AG nucleotides are the terminal boundaries of the spliced introns.

True or false?

A

True.

414
Q

The initial step in a splicing reaction catalyzed by a splicesome is dependent on 3’-OH nucleophilic activity.

True or false?

A

False.

The adenine performs the first nucleophilic attack on the 5’ end, and not the 3’ hydroxyl.

Only after the lariat is released that the 3’-OH is available to perform a nucleophilic attack on the 5’ end and bring the exons together.

415
Q

In a splicesome reaction, the lariat structure is subsequently degraded following its formation.

True or false?

A

True.

416
Q

What does excision (splicing) of many group I introns require in addition to the primary transcript RNA?

A

A guanine nucleoside.

417
Q

What is the genetic code?

A

A triplet (3 nts → 1AA) that DNA/RNA sequence to AA sequence.

418
Q

What are the characteristics of the genetic code? [5]

A
  1. It’s almost universal.
  2. It’s sequential and unambiguous (non-overlapping)
  3. It has no breaks
  4. It has start and stop signals
  5. It is degenerate (or redundant) - 64 codons but only 20 amino acids.
419
Q

What is a synonymous codons?

A

Codons that encode the same amino acid are called synonymous. Usually they only vary at the last nucleotide of the codon.

420
Q

What are the 3 stop codons?

A

UAA

UAG

UGA

Normally these do not correspond to any amino acid and are not read by tRNA, but rather read by release factors.

421
Q

What is the start codon?

A

AUG

This encodes Methionine.

422
Q

Who cracked the genetic code?

A

Har Gobind Khorana (worked at UBC).

423
Q

How does translation machinery know where to start in prokaryotes?

A
  • mRNA has purine-rich sequence (a.k.a. Shine-Dalgarno sequence) - GGAGG - usually located several nucleotides upstream of the AUG start codon.
  • The Shine-Dalgarno sequence forms H-bonds with 16S rRNA
  • The first amino acid is actually N-formyl methionine (fMet)
  • The N-formyl methionine tRNAi will bind methionine first, and then methionine is modified to fMet by a special enzyme.
424
Q

How does translation machinery know where to start in eukaryotes?

A
  • mRNA does not have analog of SD sequence
  • Ribosome recognizes cap structure and then scans the mRNA from 5’ end until it encounters an AUG start codon.
  • Uses Met as the first amino acid (no fMet in eukaryotes)
425
Q

Is Met or fMet always the first amino acid?

A

No. fMet and Met are very often removed after translation.

426
Q
A

formyl methionine

427
Q
A

N-formylmethionine (fMet)

428
Q

What is a reading frame?

A

Sequence of non-overlapping nucleotide triplets.

429
Q

What is an open-reading frame?

A

DNA/RNA sequence with start and stop codons that encode a protein.

430
Q

What does recognition of tRNA involve?

A

Recognition of anticodon loop and other secondary and tertiary structures of tRNA.

431
Q

There is more than one aminoacyl tRNA synthetase per amino acid.

True or false?

A

False.

There is only one aminoacyl tRNA synthetase per amino acid.

432
Q

What are the wobble rules?

A
  1. 1st and 2nd base of the codon are specific to the 3rd and 2nd bases of anticodon (specific)
  2. 1st base of anticodon and 3rd base of codon are not always specific - this contributes to the degeneracy of the code.
  3. Some tRNAs use hypoxanthine in the first position of the anticodon

NOTE: Need to know the table!

433
Q

Pairing between 3rd base of codon and 1st base of anticodon is not very stringent.

True or false?

A

True.

Wobble pair

434
Q

Describe prokaryotic ribosomes.

A

E.coli ribosome 70S (2700 kDA) consists of 2 parts:

  1. Large subunit - 50S: 34 proteins, 23S rRNA and 5S rRNA
  2. Small subunit - 30S: 21 proteins, 16S rRNA

2/3 of ribosome is RNA which is important for structure and function of ribosome.

435
Q

Describe the structure of tRNA.

A
  • tRNA has L-shaped 3D structure with CCA terminus at one end and anticodon loop at the opposite end.
  • Usually between 73-93 nucleotides long with some parts single stranded and some double stranded that form common structures:
  1. Acceptor stem with amino acid attachment site
  2. TΨC loop
  3. Extra arm (not always present)
  4. Anticodon
  5. DHU loop
  6. 5’ end paired with G
436
Q

How are certain base pairing formations prevented in tRNA?

A

tRNAs often contain unusual bases that prevent certain base pairing formation. These bases are:

  • Dihydrouridine (DHU)
  • Pseudouridine (Ψ)
  • 5-methyl cytidine
  • Thymidylate
437
Q

What is translation?

A

Cellular protein synthesis on ribosomes using mRNA as a template.

Translation of nucleic acid alphabet (4 letter) to amino acid alphabet (20)

438
Q

What is the purpose of tRNAs?

A

To carry amino acids to the mRNA and ribosome.

Some parts are double stranded and some are single stranded.

439
Q

How does tRNA interact with mRNA and amino acids?

A
  • Template recognition site containing 3 bases - anticodon
    • Interacts with mRNA
    • Anticodon base pairs with 3 bases on mRNA known as codon
    • Each codon encodes a particular amino acid
  • Amino acid attachment site is at the 3’ end of the tRNA
    • Usually ends with CCA
    • Amino acid is attached to A via carboxylic acid group
440
Q
A

5-Methylcytidine

(mC)

441
Q
A

Dihydrouridine

(UH2)

442
Q
A

Aminoacyl-tRNA

443
Q

What is the function of amino acyl-tRNA synthetases?

A

They are the actual ‘translators’ that know both ‘languages’.

  • Attach the right amino acid to the right tRNA
  • Attach C-terminus of the amino acid to the 3’-OH of ribose in terminal adenosine in tRNA
444
Q

Describe the formation of amino acyl tRNA.

Differentiate between class I and class II.

A
  1. Activation step: amino acid reacts with ATP to form aminoacyl-AMP (a.k.a. amino acyl adenylate) and PPi.
  2. Transfer of amino acid from aminoacyl-AMP to tRNA
    1. Class 1: 2’-OH of ribose serves as a nucleophile attacking aminoacyl-AMP and forming aminoacyl-tRNA.
    2. Class 2: 3’-OH of ribose serves as a nucleophile attacking aminoacyl-AMP and forming aminoacyl-tRNA.
  3. Only for class 1 - aminoacyl is transesterified from 2’-OH to 3’-OH.

Overall:

Amino acid + ATP + tRNA → aminoacyl-tRNA + AMP + PPi (→2Pi)

445
Q

If the average amino acid residue contributres 110 to the peptide molecular weight, what will the minimum nucleotide length of the mRNA encoding a protein of molecular weight 50,000 be?

A

1,400 nucleotides

446
Q

Which would you expect to be more critical to the production of a functional protein?

  • the precise positioning of the initiation codon
  • the precise positioning of the termination codon

How do prokaryotes determine the correct reading frame of a given mRNA sequence that is to be translated?

A

The initiation codon determines the correct reading frame, so it is more critical than the termination codon.

Prokaryotes determine the correct reading frame of a given mRNA sequence that is to be translated via the Shine-Dalgrano sequence. This sequence in the mRNA base pairs with a complementary sequence in the 16S RNA of the ribosome; this positions the correct start codon (AUG) on the 30S ribosomal subunit. Thus, the correct reading frame is distinguished by the proximity of the initiation codon (AUG) to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence.

447
Q

A segment of the double-helical DNA is composed of the following sequence. Write out the corresponding mRNA sequence and the corresponding amino acid sequence of the encoded protein using the codon table by identifying the correct open reading frame.

3’-TGTAAATACGGACTCGGCATATAGCTACTTACTGTGTGG-5’

A

mRNA:

5’-ACAUUUAUGCCUGAGCCGUAUAUCGAUGAAUGACACACC-3’

Amino acid:

N’-Met-Pro-Glu-Pro-Tyr-Ile-Asp-Glu-C’

448
Q

It is possible to convert the Cys that is a part of Cys-tRNACys to Ala by a catalytic reduction.

If the resulting Ala-tRNACys were added to a mixture of ribosomes, all the other tRNAs, amino acids, cofactors and enzymes needed to make protein in vitro, and mRNA for hemoglobin, WHERE in the newly synthesized hemoglobin protein would the Ala from Ala-tRNACys be incorporated?

A

Wherever Cys normally occurs.

It would be incorporated wherever the tRNA normally incorporates its amino acid (i.e., wherever Cys normally would be incorporated). The tRNA already read the codon on the mRNA and the amino acid itself does not play a role in this process.

449
Q

You isolate from human blood a novel DNA virus. One of the DNA fragments is 400bp long and found to encode two proteins, 120 and 80 amino acids long.

Why might you consider this unusual?

A

120+80=200

200x3 nucleotides per amino acid =600bp

The DNA fragment is 400bp long, but the two proteins encoded a total of 200 amino acids.

Each amino acid residue requires a 3-letter codon, so at least 600 bps are required in mRNA to encode for the two proteins.

450
Q

The following sequence of four amino acids occurred in the structure of a polypeptide found in a wild-type organism:

Leu-Ser-Ile-Arg.

Several mutants were also isolated, each of which carried a single base pair change in the region of DNA that coded for this amino acid sequence. Their corresponding amino acid sequences are:

Mutants

1 MET-Ser-Ile-Arg

2 Leu-TRP-Ile-Arg

3 Leu-Ser-ARG-Arg

4 Leu-Ser-Ile-PRO

5 Leu-Ser-Ile-TRP

What was the nucleotide sequence of the region of mRNA that coded for the amino acid sequence in the wild-type organism?

A
451
Q

Write out the polypeptide sequence that is made if the sequence above was translated.

Writeout the sequence of the corresponding coding strand (5’→3’)

If the nucleotide on the mRNA codon that is complementary to the indicated position of the 3rd tRNA - 3’-GUG-5’ (underlined) is mutated to an A. Would this change the sequence of the polypeptide that is produced? Yes or no?

A

Polypeptide: Met-Arg-His-Asn

mRNA transcript: 5’-AUG-CGC-CAC-AAC-UGA-UGA-3’

Template strand: 3’-TAC-GCG-GTG-TTG-ACT-ACT-5’

Coding strand: 5’-ATG-CGC-CAC-AAC-TGA-TGA-3’

Yes, mRNA complementary to the given tRNA is CAC (His). If the 3rd position is changed so that the mRNA is now CAA, then it will encode Gln instead.

452
Q

A scientist has discovered a new tRNAArg isolated from a prokaryotic organism shown in the diagram below. The G* represents an 8-oxoguanine, which through experimental studies with this tRNA has been shown to always base-pair with A.

  1. What amino acid would be incorporated into a growing polypeptide strand with the tRNA shown in the diagram above?
  2. The scientist performed an experiment to change the 8-oxoguanine (G*) to an unmodified guanine (G) nucleotide. To the scientist’s surprise, a different amino acid was incorporated following aminoacylation of this newly designed tRNA. The scientist concluded that aminoacylation must be based on the sequence of the anticodon. What was the different amino acid that was incorporated following aminoacylation of the newly designed tRNA?
A

A.

Anticodon: 3’-UCG*-5’

Codon: 5’-AGA-3’

Amino acid: Arginine

B.

Anticodon: 3’-UCG-5’

Codon: 5’-AGC-3’

Amino acid: Serine

453
Q

What direction is translation done in prokaryotes?

A

5’ → 3’ direction

454
Q

mRNA can be translated at the same time as it is being transcribed in prokaryotes.

True or false?

A

True.

455
Q

How is mRNA bound and recognized in prokaryotes?

A

mRNA is bound in 30S subunit, specifically 16S rRNA recognizes Shine-Dalgarno sequence.

456
Q

What component of the ribosome synthesizes protein in prokaryotes?

A

Protein synthesis occurs in the 50S subunit.

50S has a ‘tunnel’ that allows the growing polypeptide chain to pass through and exit the ribosome.

457
Q

What are the 3 sites of the 70S ribosome in prokaryotes?

A

E (exit), P (peptidyl), and A (aminoacyl)

Each site is usually occupied by tRNA.

458
Q

What occurs at the A site of the 70S ribosome in prokaryotes?

A

Where aminoacyl-tRNA enters the ribosome.

459
Q

What occurs at the P site of the 70S ribosome in prokaryotes?

A

Where the growing peptide chain is located.

460
Q

What occurs at the E site of the 70S ribosome in prokaryotes?

A

Where the empty tRNA is located.

461
Q

What is the rate-limiting step of translation in prokaryotes?

A

Initiation of protein synthesis.

462
Q

What are the four steps of initiation of protein synthesis in prokaryotes?

A

Requires a set of translation initiation factors.

  1. 30S binds IF1 and IF3 which prevents 30S from binding 50S prematurely and directs IF2 to the P-site.
  2. IF2 binds to fMet-tRNAfMet
    • IF2 is a G-protein, meaning it requires GTP hydrolysis for its function.
    • IF2 bound to GTP will bind fMet-tRNAfMet - ternary complex
  3. Ternary complex binds to mRNA and 30S subunit with IF1 and IF3 forming 30S initiation complex
  4. IF2 hydrolyzes GTP to GDP and Pi
    • IF1, IF2-GDP, IF3 leave the initiation complex
    • 50S subunit binds to the initiation complex forming 70S initiation complex
    • Translation can start!

Note: fMet-tRNAfMet is in the P-site

463
Q

Why does 30S bind IF1 and IF3 during initiation of protein synthesis in prokaryotes?

A

To prevent 30S from binding 50S prematurely, and also to direct IF2 to the P-site.

464
Q

IF3 is a G-protein.

True or false?

A

False.

IF2 is a G-protein.

465
Q

IF1 is a G-protein.

True or false?

A

False.

IF2 is a G-protein.

466
Q

IF2 is a G-protein.

True or false?

A

True.

467
Q

What is a G-protein?

A

A G-protein (e.g., IF2, EF-Tu) requires GTP hydrolysis for its function.

468
Q

What comprises the ternary complex during the intiation of protein synthesis in prokaryotes?

A

IF2 bound to GTP will bind fMet-tRNAfMet which forms the ternary complex.

469
Q

What comprises the 30S initiation complex in the initiation of protein synthesis in prokaryotes?

A

Ternary complex binds to mRNA and 30s subunit with IF1 and IF3 forming the 30S initiation complex.

470
Q

What comprises the 70S initiation complex in the initation of protein synthesis in prokaryotes?

A

50S subunit binds to the initiation complex forming 70S initiation complex.

471
Q

Where is fMet-tRNAfMet found after initiation of protein synthesis in prokaryotes?

A

In the P-site.

472
Q

Describe elongation of protein synthesis in prokaryotes. [2]

A
  1. tRNA with matching anticodon binds to the A-site.
  2. The nitrogen from the amino group on the tRNA in the A-site attacks carbonyl group, attached to the tRNA in the P-site, catalyzed by 50S subunit rRNA (peptidyl transferase center)
473
Q

Describe the catalytic mechanism of peptide bond formation in peptidyl transfer center (PTC) in prokaryotic protein synthesis. [4]

A
  • N of amino group on the tRNA in A-site attacks the carbonyl group attached to the tRNA in the P-site.
  • Works via oxyanion tetrahedral intermediate
  • This results in separation of peptidyl from tRNA in the P-site and the formation of the peptide
  • With the formation of the peptide bond, the tRNA with peptidyl chain is in the P-site in the 50S subunit, but it is still in the A-site in the small subunit. Likewise, the empty tRNA is in the E-site in 50S, but it is still in the P-site in 30S
474
Q

What is the Tu/Ts cycle?

A

During elongation of protein synthesis in prokaryotes, EF (elongation factor) -Tu is a G-protein that can bind aminoacyl-tRNA, which protects the ester linkage and positions the aminoacyl-tRNA in the A-site of the ribosome.

475
Q

Describe what occurs during the Tu/Ts cycle. [4]

A
  • EF-Tu hydrolyzes GTP to GDP once tRNA is in the A-site and codon/anticodon pairing is correct.
  • EF-Tu-GDP has low affinity to aminoacyl-tRNA and is released
  • EF-Ts is a GDP → GTP exchange factor that binds to EF-Tu-GDP and facilitates exchange of GDP to GTP
  • Now EF-Tu-GTP can deliver another aminoacyl-tRNA
476
Q

EF-Tu-GDP has high affinity to aminoacyl-tRNA.

True or false?

A

False.

EF-Tu-GDP has low affinity to aminoacyl-tRNA.

477
Q

Describe the translocation step of translation elongation in prokaryotes.

A
  • EF-G bound to GTP binds the ribosome and hydrolyzes GTP causing conformational changes that force part of EF-G into the A-site.
  • This displaces the peptidyl tRNA into the P-site in the 30S subunit, dragging mRNA with it.
  • As a result mRNA will translocate by 3 bases.
  • Now, new codon is in the A-site, the empty tRNA is in the E-site.
  • Then, empty tRNA will leave the E-site and EF-G-GDP will leave the A-site.
478
Q

Describe termination of translation elongation in prokaryotes. [6]

A
  • Release factors - RF1 and RF2 recognize stop codons
  • One end of RF1 recognizes UAA and UAG, and one end of RF2 recognizes UAA and UGA
  • Opposite end of RF1/2 will interact with PTC coordinating water molecule with the help of rRNA
  • Water will attack the carbonyl group (ester linkage) and hydrolysis will occur.
  • Polypeptide is released from the ribosome
  • RF3 is a GTPase. It will hydrolyze GTP to help release RF1/2 from the ribosome
479
Q

Which proteins recognize stop codons in termination of translation elongation in prokaryotes?

A

Release factors 1 and 2 (RF1 and RF2)

480
Q

What does RF1 recognize?

A

UAA and UAG

481
Q

What does RF2 recognize?

A

UAA and UGA

482
Q

What does RF3 do?

A

RF3 is a GTPase.

It will hydrolyze GTP to help release RF1 and RF2 from the ribosome during termination of translation elongation in prokaryotes.

483
Q

What is RRF?

A

Ribosomal recycling factor

RRF with the EF-G, IF-1, IF-3 will dissociate ribosomal subunits and mRNA to recycle the ribosomes for further use.

484
Q

How many initiation factors exist in eukaryotes for translation?

A

9 or more (called eIFs)

485
Q

Describe initiation of translation in eukaryotes.

A
  • Several proteins bind both the 5’ and 3’ ends of the mRNA and bring the together in order to present them to the ribosome.
  • eIF4 complex recognizes cap (eIF4E) and polyA tail (PABP - poly-A binding protein)
  • eIF1 and eIF3 serve the same function as IF1 and IF3 in bacteria (homologs)
  • eIF2 is a homolog of IF2 in bacteria: delivers ternary complex
    • eIF2 has regulatory subunit (alpha) that can be phosphorylated to slow down translation (during amino acid starvation, accumulation of missfolded proteins, viral infections)
  • 43S pre-initiation complex (ternary complex + 40S) will scan mRNA (using ATP) to find start codon. When AUG is reached the large 60S subunit will bind and all eIF are released
486
Q

What is the regulatory subunit (alpha) of eIF2 for?

A

During the initiation of translation in eukaryotes, eIF2 has a regulatory subunit (alpha) that can be phosphorylated to slow down translation (during amino acid starvation, accumulation of missfolded proteins, viral infections)

487
Q

What comprises the 43S pre-initation complex in eukaryotes?

A

ternary complex and 40S

488
Q

The 40S Pre-initiation complex requires ATP to scan mRNA for the start codon (AUG).

True or false?

A

True.

489
Q

What is the analog for the Shine-Delgarno sequence in eukaryotic mRNAs?

A

There is none!

The initiation codon is AUG (Methionine), which begins all eukaryotic polypeptides.

490
Q

What are the 3 eukaryotic elongation factors analogous to those in the prokaryotic system?

A
  1. eEF1-alpha → EF-Tu
  2. eEF1-beta → EF-Ts
  3. eEF2 → EF-G
491
Q

Describe termination of translation elongation in eukaryotes.

A

Eukaryotes only have 1 release factor (eRF1) that can recognize all stop codons.

eRF3 is GTPase similar to RF3 in bacteria.

492
Q

Describe recycling of ribosomes in eukaryotic translation.

A

Poorly understood.

ABCE1 protein acts similar to RRF in bacteria.

493
Q

In eukaryotes, where are proteins destined to the membrane or to be secreted translated?

A

They are translated on the ribosomes associated with the ER rather than free cytosolic ribosomes.

This process involves special sequences at the start of mRNA/protein called signal peptide.

494
Q

What are four issues with mRNA vaccines?

A
  1. Stability
  2. Immunogenicity
  3. Delivery
  4. Translation efficiency
495
Q
A

inosine monophosphate (IMP)

496
Q
A

5-phospho-ß-D-ribosylamine

Product of the committed step (step 2) of purine synthesis

497
Q
A

Orotidine 5’-monophosphate (OMP)

498
Q
A

Orotate, a pyrimidinecarboxylate anion

499
Q
A

Carbamoyl phosphate

500
Q
A

5-methylcytosine

501
Q
A

5-methylcytosine

502
Q
A

Hypoxanthine

503
Q
A

cytidine-5’-diphosphate (CDP)

504
Q
A

Uric acid

505
Q
A

Uric acid

506
Q
A

Xanthine

507
Q
A

Xanthine

508
Q

H2O would greatly accelerate deamination of cytosine.

True or false?

A

False.

NaNO2 would greatly accelerate deamination of cytosine.

509
Q

NaNO2 would greatly accelerate deamination of cytosine.

True or false?

A

True

510
Q

Uracil would greatly accelerate deamination of cytosine.

True or false?

A

False.

NaNO2 would greatly accelerate deamination of cytosine.

511
Q

Xanthine would greatly accelerate deamination of cytosine.

True or false?

A

False.

NaNO2 would greatly accelerate deamination of cytosine.

512
Q

(CH3)2SO4 would greatly accelerate the deamination of cytosine.

True or false?

A

False.

NaNO2 would greatly accelerate deamination of cytosine.

513
Q

Increased purine catabolism causes Gout.

True or false?

A

True.

514
Q

A deficiency in the enzyme xanthine oxidase causes Gout.

True or false?

A

False.

Increased purine catabolism causes gout.

515
Q

Increased pyrimidine catabolism causes Gout.

True or false?

A

False.

Increased purine catabolism causes Gout.

516
Q

Increased activity of HGPRT causes Gout.

True or false?

A

False.

Increased purine catabolism causes Gout.

517
Q

Increased activity of PRPP synthetase causes Gout.

True or false?

A

False.

Increased purine catabolism causes Gout.

518
Q

The pair of primers used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) are complementary to each other.

True or false?

A

False.

519
Q

The pair of primers used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) should always be complementary to the same strand of the template DNA.

True or false?

A

False.

520
Q

The pair of primers used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) should always have their 3’ ends point towards each other upon complementary binding to the template.

True or false?

A

True.

521
Q

The pair of primers used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) contain the same nucleotide sequence.

True or false?

A

False.

522
Q

The S phase of a Eukaryotic cell can BEST be described as:

  • synchronous or asynchronous?
  • 1 origin of replication or multiple origins of replication?
A

Asynchronous with multiple origins of replication

523
Q

In rho-dependent termination, the rho protein binds to an A-U rich hairpin to inhibit RNA polymerase movement.

True or false?

A

False.

524
Q

In rho-dependent termination, the rho protein binds directly to RNA polymerase and inhibits its movement.

True or false?

A

False.

525
Q

In rho-dependent termination, the rho protein has endonuclease activity and destroys the mRNA-DNA duplex.

True or false?

A

False.

526
Q

In rho-dependent termination, the rho protein binds to the rut sequence and moves along the mRNA-DNA duplex to catch-up to DNA polymerase.

True or false?

A

False.

527
Q

If a tRNA contains the anticodon sequence 5’-GGA-3’, then:

A. It can base pair to a codon with the sequence 5’-CCU-3’.

B. It must be tRNAPro.

C. It can be aminoacylated to Serine by aminoacyl tRNA synthetase.

D. It can base pair to a codon with the sequence 5’-UCU-3’.

A

Re-written as 3’-AGG-5’, codon is 5’-UCC-3’.

UCC codes for Serine.

Wobble base pairing allows 3’-AGG-5’ to base pair with 5’-UCC-3’ or 5’-UCU-3’.

C & D are correct.

528
Q

The figure shows the process of protein synthesis initiation in a prokaryotic cell.

The subunit shown on the diagram is the 50S ribosomal subunit.

True or false?

A

False, it is the 30S.

529
Q

The figure shows the process of protein synthesis initiation in a prokaryotic cell.

Z corresponds to IF-3.

True or false?

A

False, this is IF-1.

530
Q

The figure shows the process of protein synthesis initiation in a prokaryotic cell.

X corresponds to IF-2-GTP.

True or false?

A

False, IF-2 would be bound to the fMet-tRNAfMet.

531
Q

The figure shows the process of protein synthesis initiation in a prokaryotic cell.

The codon CGA is sitting in the A-site of the ribosomal subunit.

True or false?

A

True.

532
Q

The figure shows the process of protein synthesis initiation in a prokaryotic cell.

Z corresponds to a Release Factor (RF).

True or false?

A

False.

533
Q

The figure shows the process of protein synthesis initiation in a prokaryotic cell.

After the initiation complex is formed, which aminoacyl-tRNA will enter the ribosome NEXT?

A

The codon is CGA, so this is the codon for Arg.

Argininyl-tRNAArg

534
Q

The figure shows the process of protein synthesis initiation in a prokaryotic cell.

After the initiation complex is formed the next aminoacyl-tRNA that enters the ribosome is Serinyl-tRNASer.

True or false?

A

False.

The codon is CGA, so this is the codon for Arg.

Argininyl-tRNAArg

535
Q

The figure shows the process of protein synthesis initiation in a prokaryotic cell.

What is the MAIN purpose of the formyl group on the amino acid in fMet?

A

To prevent peptide bond formation at the N-terminus.

536
Q

Which enzymes are required for conversion of UMP to dTMP? [5]

A

UMP→UDP (nucleoside monophosphate kinase)

UDP→dUDP (nucleoside diphosphate reductase)

dUDP→dUTP (nucleoside diphosphate kinase)

dUTP→dUMP (dUTPase)

dUMP→dTMP (thymidylate synthase)

537
Q

Why isn’t DNA stable in pure, distilled water at pH = 7?

A

The phosphodiester backbone causes repulsion of the 2 strands.

538
Q

DNA polymerase I performs the bulk of DNA replication in E. coli cells due to its high processivity.

True or false?

A

False.

539
Q

DNA polymerase I is involved in separating dsDNA into ssDNA.

True or false?

A

False.

540
Q

DNA polymerase I has proofreading capability due to it’s 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity.
True or false?

A

True.

541
Q

Why does DNA polymerase I have proofreading capability?

A

Due to it’s 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity.

542
Q

DNA polymerase I is involved in removing topological stress in front of the DNA replication fork.

True or false?

A

False.

543
Q

DNA polymerase I performs the bulk of DNA replication in Eukaryotic cells due to its high processivity.

True or false?

A

False.

544
Q

The figure is a newly isolated segment of pre-mRNA from the HUMAN prostate cancer cell line, LNCaP. There is a single intron present. Assume that intron 1 in the diagram will be spliced out by the splicesome.

What are the correct nucleotides that occupy the positions W, X, Y, and Z on the mRNA?

A

X = G

Y = A

W = U

Z = G

The splice junctions are 5’-GU […] AG-3’

545
Q

The figure is a newly isolated segment of pre-mRNA from the HUMAN prostate cancer cell line, LNCaP. There is a single intron present. Assume that intron 1 in the diagram will be spliced out by the splicesome.

Which of the following features would this strand of pre-mRNA have on it?

  • A TATA box present at the -25 region
  • A poly (A) tail
  • A 5’ 7-methylguanosine cap
  • UP sequences
  • Portions of the Inr sequence
A
  • A TATA box present at the -25 region (part of DNA)
  • A poly (A) tail (mature mRNA not pre-mRNA)
  • A 5’ 7-methylguanosine cap (mature mRNA not pre-mRNA)
  • UP sequences (bacterial promoter)
  • Portions of the Inr sequence (yes, because Inr is around the +1 region)
546
Q

TFIIH is a transcription factor that is involved in binding to the TATA box.

True or false?

A

False.

547
Q

TFIIH is a transcription factor that is involved in binding to UP sequences.

True or false?

A

False.

548
Q

TFIIH is a transcription factor that is involved in binding to the -35 promoter region (TTGACA).

True or false?

A

False.

549
Q

TFIIH is a transcription factor that is involved in forming a ‘saddle’ around the DNA.

True or false?

A

False.

550
Q

TFIIH is a transcription factor that is involved in phosphorylation of RNA polymerase II.

True or false?

A

True.

551
Q

What is a major reason as to why linear chromosomes shorten after each round of DNA replication?

A

There are no DNA polymerases that can synthesize DNA in the 3’→5’ direction.

552
Q

This figure can be best descibed as a:

  • dNTP
  • ddNTP
  • NTP
  • dNMP
  • NMP
A

ddNTP

553
Q

If this molecule were incorporated into a growing DNA strand, it halts the process of DNA synthesis. Why?

A

This molecule has no 3’-OH present.

554
Q

A synthetic mRNA molecule is made by using only 2 types of nucleotides containing adenine and cytosine.

Given this scenario what is the maximum number of different codons it could contain?

A

8

555
Q

A major step in purine de novo synthesis is the addition of an amino group to PRPP to form 5-phosphoribosylamine. Regarding this specific enzymatic step, it is allosterically activated by UMP and CMP.

True or false?

A

False.

556
Q

A major step in purine de novo synthesis is the addition of an amino group to PRPP to form 5-phosphoribosylamine. Regarding this specific enzymatic step, it is allosterically inhibited by AMP and GMP, but allosterically activated by IMP.

True or false?

A

False.

557
Q

A major step in purine de novo synthesis is the addition of an amino group to PRPP to form 5-phosphoribosylamine. Regarding this specific enzymatic step, it is allosterically inhibited by CTP.

True or false?

A

False.

558
Q

A major step in purine de novo synthesis is the addition of an amino group to PRPP to form 5-phosphoribosylamine. Regarding this specific enzymatic step, it is allosterically activated by PRPP.

True or false?

A

True.

559
Q

A major step in purine de novo synthesis is the addition of an amino group to PRPP to form 5-phosphoribosylamine. Regarding this specific enzymatic step, and in reference to the ribose sugar, the product is in the alpha configuration and the substrate is in the beta configuration.

True or false?

A

False.

560
Q

Which configuration is the pucker of the pentose ring found in RNA normally found?

A

C3’ Endo

561
Q

If 14C-labelled glutamine were used to construct this IMP in de novo synthesis of purines, which of the atoms would contain the label?

A

IMP would not contain a radiolabel.

562
Q

If 14C-labelle glycine were used to construct IMP in de novo synthesis of purines, which atoms would be labelled?

A

Arrow #2 and #3

563
Q

DNA polymerase e in eukaryotes is needed for DNA excision repair.

True or false?

A

True

564
Q

DNA polymerase I in prokaryotes is needed for DNA excision repair.

True or false?

A

True.

565
Q

Excinuclease is required for DNA excision repair.

True or false?

A

True.

566
Q

DNA ligase is required for DNA excision repair.

True or false?

A

True.

567
Q

Primase is required for DNA excision repair.

True or false?

A

False.

568
Q

Telomeres are found on all chromosomes.

True or false?

A

False.

569
Q

Telomeres consist of a TA-strand and a CG-strand.

True or false?

A

False.

570
Q

Telomeres are synthesized by an enzyme that contains a DNA template.

True or false?

A

False.

571
Q

One strand of a telomere is longer than the other and binds to TRF proteins.

True or false?

A

True.

572
Q

One strand of a telomere consists of repeats:

5’-CCGGGGCCGGGGG-3’.

True or false?

A

False.

573
Q

What does O6-methylguanine base pair with?

A

Thymine (aka 5’-methyluracil)

574
Q

What does Chargaff’s Rules state about double-helical DNA samples?

A

(T+C) = (A+G)

pyrimidines = purines

575
Q

DNA synthesis is an endergonic process that requires the input of free energy. This is because we are synthesizing a highly organized molecule (DNA) from highly disorganized monomers (nucleotides). However, when Taq polymerase synthesizes DNA, it is an exergonic process.

What is the major contributing factor that “drives” the process of DNA synthesis (allowing it to be an exergonic process)?

A

Hydrolysis of dNTPs to form dNMPs and PPi.

The spontaneous hydrolysis of PPi occurs after the formation of the phosphodiester bond and ensures that the DNA synthesis reaction is energetically favorable without the need for additional enzymes.

576
Q

Suppose a double-helical DNA molecule consists of Strand #1 and Strand #2.

If Strand #1 consists of 34% T and 22% C and Strand #2 consists of 32% C.

Assuming Chargaff’s rules are followed, what is the percent (%) composition of T on Strand #2?

A

T = 12%

577
Q

Give two major differences between Topoisomerase I and II.

A
  1. Topoisomerase Type II can induce supercoils whereas Topoisomerase Type I can only remove supercoils.
  2. Topoisomerase Type II uses ATP and Topoisomerase Type I does not.
578
Q

Why do PCR reactions require buffer that contains Mg2+ ions?

A

Magnesium ions act as co-factors.

579
Q

A student wishes to perform a PCR reaction of the following nucleotide sequence (which represents the

TEMPLATE STRAND of double-stranded DNA). The bolded nucleotides represent the region that he wishes to amplify. The underlined regions represent the region that he wishes to design primers for.

What are the sequences of the primers that he should order?

A

Primer X = CCCACCGGGCT

Primer Y = GGGATGGCCAG

580
Q

Which of the following could potentially be found in bacterial DNA?

  • Shine-Dalgarno sequence
  • -35 region of promoters
  • -10 region of promoters
  • Methylated adenines at the 6th position
A

All of them!

581
Q

How does DNA polymerase III attach to replication forks in E.coli cells?

A

Interaction with DnaB.

582
Q

Which protein is required for translocation of the ribosome?

A

EF-G

583
Q

What describes the eukaryotic ribosome in its entirety?

A

80S

584
Q

What describes the prokaryotic ribosome in its entirety?

A

70S

585
Q

Which factor is important for blocking the 50S rRNA from complexing with 30S rRNA?

A

IF-3

586
Q

Which factor is important for blocking the A-site during initiation?

A

IF-1

587
Q

Which ribosomal subunit is necessary for identifying the ribosome binding site/ Shine-Dalgarno sequence in prokaryotes?

A

30S rRNA (16S rRNA is present here)

588
Q

Which ribosomal subunit is necessary for catalyzing the formation of the peptide bond in prokaryotes?

A

50S rRNA (23S rRNA is present here)

589
Q

Which factor is important for GTP/GDP exchange during elongation?

A

EF-Ts

590
Q

Which factor is important for binding the incoming aminoacyl-tRNA into the A-site of the ribosome?

A

EF-Tu

591
Q

Which strand is IDENTICAL in composition to pre-mRNA except that T’s are present instead of U’s in eukaryotes?

A

Coding strand

592
Q

Which enzyme has 3’→5’ and 5’→3’ exonuclease activity? In addition, it has 5’→3’ polymerization activity.

A

DNA polymerase I

593
Q

Which protein binds directly to the TATA box to initiate transcription for RNA polymerase II?

A

TBP

594
Q

What term describes the number of nucleotides a polymerase adds before falling off the template?

A

Processivity

595
Q
  1. This molecule has 3 valid names. State them.
  2. Number the ring 1 to 6 and indicate where each of these atoms comes from during synthesis of pyrimidines
  3. Explain how this molecule could be used to treat orotic aciduria.
A
  1. Uridine-5’-monophosphate, uridine monophosphate, uridylate
  2. 1 at the bottom nitrogen attached to the ribose sugar, then clockwise from there
  3. Bypasses the blockage in the anabolic pathway
596
Q

It has been recommended for women to take a folic acid supplement prior to conceiving. Please explain from a biochemical perspective why folic acid/folate is an important supplement to take during pregnancy.

A
  • Folic acid is needed to produce tetrahydrofolate, which is involved in 1 carbon transfer of methyl group from uracil to make thymine. (i.e., dUMP→dTMP).
  • No production of dTMP means no dTTP, which is a substrate needed for DNA synthesis.
  • DNA synthesis is necessary for development of the baby (especially the neural tube formation stage!)
597
Q

You feed a rat 14C labeled glycine. Consider the de novo synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. Draw the resulting guanine structure and clearly indicate with an asterisk (*), which atoms you expect to be radiolabeled (if any).

A

Asterisks should be at positions 4 and 5 on the ring.

598
Q

The diagram shows a portion of an agarose gel. A DNA plasmid containing 950 bp has been placed into each of the 3 lanes. The gel was stained with ethidium bromide. Band A represents a 950 bp band.

  1. The relaxed plasmid and the supercoiled plasmid are placed into Lane #1. Which Band (A or B) most likely corresponds to the SUPERCOILED plasmid? Explain how you know.
  2. The 950 bp supercoiled DNA plasmid was treated with topoisomerase type I for different lengths of time. After treatment (with topoisomerase type I), the DNA plasmid was added to Lanes #2 and #3 on the agarose gel. Which Lane (#2 or #3) corresponds to the DNA plasmid treated with topoisomerase type I for a shorter period of time. Explain.
A
  1. B, further down the gel, smaller effective size
  2. Lane 2 because there is still more DNA concentrated near the bottom of the gel, indicating the sample is still more supercoiled.
599
Q

The SRB1 receptor gene codes for mature mRNA that contains 900 bases, which is translated into a protein receptor containing 250 amino acids. A mutant form of the SRB1 receptor gene created by a single point mutation also yields a 900-base mature mRNA but results in the synthesis of a receptor protein containing 220 amino acids with slightly modified function. Give an explanation on how a single point mutation in DNA can produce this shortened peptide. (Hint: Your answer should make reference to the genetic code.)

A
  • In the long peptide there are 250 codons followed by stop codon.
  • In the short peptide there are 220 codons followed by stop codon.
  • A single point mutation most likely occurred in the 221st codon of the long peptide, resulting in the change of a codon that codes for an amino acid to a STOP codon.
  • When a stop codon is introduced, this resulted in a truncated peptide (classified as a NONSENSE mutation).
600
Q

A polypeptide consisting of 6 amino acids is in the process of being synthesized in E. coli cells. Assume that translation has been initiated and the tRNAfMet is currently present in the P-site of the ribosome. A series of tRNAs are sequentially added to the A-site of the ribosome as translation occurs. The tRNAs which are added to the A-site are shown in the image.

  1. In order to terminate protein synthesis, what is the 6th structure that must enter the A-site?
  2. Briefly describe how protein synthesis is terminated in prokaryotes.
  3. Out of the 5 tRNAs listed, which can complementary base pair with more than one codon. Explain why this is possible.
  4. Determine 2 possible polypeptide sequences (consisting of 6 amino acies) that can be produced. Write the answer from N- to C-terminus.
A
  1. Release factor
  2. Finished peptide is hydrolyzed from the tRNA that is sitting in the peptidyl site. The ribosome complex dissociates. The 2 ribosomal subunits dissociate, mRNA is removed, tRNAs are released and finished peptide is released.
  3. 1st, 2nd, and 3rd tRNA because they all have anticodons with 3rd position I or G. I and G can wobble base pair. U can wobble base pair too, but it is not listed in any of the anticodons.
  4. First: N-fMet-Ile-Cys-His-Ala-Glu-C | Second: N-fMet-Ile-Cys-Gln-Ala-Glu-C
601
Q

What is CUGA order of preference?

A

Production of dCDP → dCTP activates production of dUDP → dTTP which activates production of dGDP → dGTP which activates production of dADP → dATP and the cycle continues

602
Q

How does linking number work in relation to increasing it and decreasing it by one?

A
603
Q
A

O6-Methylguanine

6-O-Methylguanine is a derivative of the nucleobase guanine in which a methyl group is attached to the oxygen atom.

It base-pairs to thymine rather than cytosine, causing a G:C to A:T transition in DNA.

604
Q

Why did AZT fail as a chemotherapy drug?

A

AZT failed as a chemotherapy drug because human DNA pol has a higher affinity for dTTP than AZT, so it cannot prevent DNA strand from growing in cancerous cells in humans since human DNA pol will still incorporate dTTP instead of AZT when synthesizing DNA in those cancerous cells.

605
Q

How does AZT prevent HIV?

A

AZT prevents HIV because the HIVS reverse transcriptase has higher affinity for AZT than dTTP.

So, DNA synthesis will stop due to a lack of 3’-OH.

606
Q

Why is ribonucleotide reductase activated by rATP and deactivated by dATP?

A

Riboucleotide reductase activated by rATP because a high level of rATP means that there are a lot more ribonucleotides so we should make more deoxynucleotides to balance the pool.

And on the other hand, riboucleotide reductase is deactivated by dATP and dADP because both high levels of dATP and dADP means that there are too much deoxynucleotides and we need more ribonucleotides.

607
Q

When does the Tu/Ts cycle occur?

A

Tu is needed for an amino acyl tRNA to enter the A site, hydrolysis of its GTP to GDP is needed so that the amino acid on the tRNA in the A site will attack the already existing chain in the P site.

Once the Tu-GDP comes off it must then be rephosphorylated by TS so that it can once again associate with an amino acyl tRNA and the peptide chain can be grown longer

608
Q

How are the atoms of bases numbered?

A
609
Q
A

N10-formyltetrahydrofolate

610
Q

Name two compounds that inhibit dihydrofolate reductase.

A

Aminopterin and methotrexate

611
Q

Name a compound that inhibits thymidylate synthase.

A

Fluorouracil

612
Q
A
613
Q

What are the activation and commitment steps for pyrimidine synthesis?

A

Aspartate Transcarbamoylase (ATCase) catalyses the first committed step in pyrimidine biosynthesis. So for that reason it is a highly regulated enzyme.

Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate by cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II is considered an activation step prior to the committed step.

614
Q

What is the final product of pyrimidines catabolism?

A

Urea

615
Q

What helps compact DNA molecules in eukaryotes?

A

Histones

616
Q

What enzyme replaces RNA primers with DNA during prokaryotic DNA replication?

A

DNA pol I

617
Q

What is the predominant type of RNA in most cells?

A

ribosomal RNA

618
Q

What is required for release factors to dissociate from the ribosome?

A

GTP

619
Q

What is the rise along the axis per base pair in B DNA helix?

A

3.4 A

620
Q

What is the primary enzyme involved in replication activity in prokaryotes?

A

DNA pol III

621
Q

What is required for DnaB activity?

A

ATP hydrolysis by DnaC

622
Q
A

Pseudoruidine

623
Q
A

Xanthylate

624
Q
A

Dihydrouridine

625
Q
A

Adenylosuccinate

626
Q
A

Hypoxanthine

627
Q
A

Carbamoyl phosphate

628
Q

Name a prokaryotic enzyme that is an ATPase.

A

DnaC

629
Q

Changes in mRNA sequence, exon sequence, or intron sequence always lead to changes in protein sequence.

True or false?

A

False.

630
Q

You are a scientist studying amino acid metabolism. You feed three groups of mice the same diet, but it is supplemented with a different amino acid for each group. Each supplemented amino acid has a “heavy” isotope nitrogen-15 in the amino group instead of normal nitrogen-14. Supplementation with which amino acid will result in “heavy” molecules of ATP in mice?

A

Amino groups of both Glycine and Aspartate are incorporated in purines during de novo synthesis. However for Glutamine, it is side chain amide that serves as a nitrogen source, not the amino group.

631
Q

Uracil at the third position of a codon can base pair with which bases at the first position of the anticodon?

A

Adenine

Guanine

Hypoxanthine

632
Q

Inosinate allosterically inhibits production of 5-phosphoribosylamine.

True or false?

A

True

633
Q

ADP is an allosteric inhibitor of PRPP synthetase.

True or false?

A

True.

634
Q

CTP enhances the overall activity of aspartate transcarbamoylase.

True or false?

A

False. CTP inhibits aspartate transcarbamoylase activity.

635
Q

ATP enhances overall activity of the ribonucleotide reductase.

True or false?

A

True.

636
Q

Eukaryotic mRNA needs to be transported from nucleus to the cytoplasm for translation

True or false?

A

True

637
Q

Acetylation of lysine residues in histone proteins affect transcription in eukaryotes.

True or false?

A

True.

638
Q

Most of prokaryotic mRNA transcripts require additional processing before it can be bound by ribosomes

True or false?

A

False.

639
Q

What is the 5’-terminal cap structure of eukaryotic mRNAs?

A

7-methylguanosine joined to the mRNA via a 5’ -> 5’ triphosphate linkage.

640
Q

Unusually high levels of PRPP contributes to gout.

True or false?

A

True.

641
Q

Inhibition of xanthine oxidase contributes to gout.

True or false?

A

False.

642
Q

Unusually high turnover of nucleic acids contributes to gout.

True or false?

A

True.

643
Q

High activity of adenosine deaminase contributes to gout.

True or false?

A

True.

644
Q

Deficiency of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HG-PRT) contributes to gout.

True or false?

A

True.

645
Q

You have a double-helical DNA molecule. The composition (mole fraction) of one of the strands is [A] = 0.15, and [C] = 0.35. The composition of second (complimentary) strand is [A] = 0.3.

What is the [C] of the second (complimentary) strand?

A

0.2

646
Q

You grow E. coli for several generations in a medium containing heavy nitrogen-15. After that, E. coli cells with only nitrogen-15 in their DNA are transferred to a nitrogen-14 medium and are allowed to divide 4 times. The DNA is then extracted, centrifuged on a salt density gradient and compared to pure nitrogen-14 DNA and nitrogen-15 DNA. What percentage of experimental DNA molecules will be “light”, i.e. contain only nitrogen-14?

A

87.5%

647
Q

In eukaryotes, TATA binding protein binds DNA in a sequence specific manner.

True or false?

A

True.

648
Q

In eukaryotes, binding of transcription factors to enhancers is critical to making sure that genes are expressed in the right cell at the right time.

True or false?

A

True

649
Q

In eukaryotes RNA pol I transcribes rRNAs.

True or false?

A

True.

650
Q

In eukaryotes, RNA pol II is phosphorylated during transcription initiation.

True or false?

A

True.

651
Q

Methionine is first formylated, then attached to a specific tRNA.

True or false?

A

False

652
Q

Leucine can be attached to tRNAPhe by the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase specific for leucine.

True or false?

A

False.

653
Q

The amino acid is attached to the 5’ end of the tRNA through a phosphodiester bond.

True or false?

A

False.

654
Q

Two separate enzymes are required, one to form the aminoacyl adenylate, the other to attach the amino acid to the tRNA.

True or false?

A

False.

655
Q

After Pfizer and Moderna companies announced successful clinical trials of their mRNA vaccines for SARS-CoV-2 (COVID-19), global demand for ultra-cold freezers (-80C) increased dramatically. From biochemical standpoint explain why ultra-low temperature freezers are sold out? In other words, why do you want to store mRNA vaccine at such a cold temperature?

A

mRNA must be stored at such a low temperature because it is inherently unstable molecule, even when it is purified from cellular nucleases.

First of all, it is single stranded compared to DNA.

Second, mRNA doesn’t have stabilizing secondary structures like rRNA and tRNA.

Final and most important, RNA has 2’-OH in the ribose. This makes RNA susceptible to base-catalyzed hydrolysis. RNA hydrolysis will spontaneously occurs when the deprotonated 2’-OH of the ribose, acting as a nucleophile, attacks the adjacent phosphorus in the phosphodiester bond of the sugar-phosphate backbone of the RNA. This will lead to breakdown of RNA strand.

With long enough time RNA will be hydrolyzed all way to NMPs.

656
Q

You study a prokaryotic gene that contains rut (Rho utilization site) site 1000 bp downstream of the promoter, and a Rho-independent terminator 3000 b downstream of the promoter. When you mix DNA of this gene with RNA polymerase, rNTPs, and Rho-factor, you get a series of RNA products between ~1000-3000 nucleotide long. You vary the concentrations of nucleotides (rNTP’s) and observe that lengths of the RNA products changes. When you use all 4 rNTPs are at a high concentration, you observe long RNA products. But when you use low concentration of (GTP + CTP + UTP) but high concentration of ATP, you observe short RNA products. Explain these results.

A

Rho binds to a rut site in the newly made RNA. However, the RNA polymerase may be far away down the template. How fast Rho catches RNA polymerase depends on their relative speed. Rho uses ATP hydrolysis to move along (5’ to 3’) the RNA, chasing the RNA polymerase. When it catches the polymerase, the RNA is pulled out of the DNA RNA-polymerase complex. If concentration of all 4 rNTPs are high, RNA polymerase moves at the maximum speed and can transcribe RNA all the way to the end until it reaches a Rho-independent terminator. This explains long RNA products.

However, when concentration of GTP + CTP + UTP is low RNA polymerase will move slow, whereas Rho will still move at the high speed along the newly made RNA because ATP concentration remain high. So very quickly Rh-factor will “catch” RNA polymerase and cause its dissociation from DNA template. This explains short RNA products.

657
Q

Compare similarities of translation initiation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

A

Prokaryotes and eukaryotes have similar processes in translation initiation with small differences in proteins.

In translation initiation in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, the small ribosomal subunit is bound by two proteins

  • Prokaryotes: 30S subunit bound by IF1 and IF3
  • Eukaryotes: 40S subunit bound by eIF1 and eIF3

The tRNA for the first amino acid is bound by a G-protein and delivered to the P site of the small subunit; the G-protein then detaches using GTP hydrolysis

  • Prokaryotes: fMet-tRNAfMet bound by IF2
  • Eukaryotes: Met-tRNAMet bound by eIF2

The large subunit binds the small subunit after initiation factors leave

  • Prokaryotes: 50S subunit binds after IF1, IF3, and IF2-GDP leave
  • Eukaryotes: 60S subunit binds after eIF1, eIF3, and eIF2-GDP leave
658
Q

Compare differences in translation initiation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

A
659
Q

You are studying new eukaryotic gene called Zoom. It has 3 exons and 2 introns. You chemically synthesize mRNA corresponding to this gene with single nucleotide modifications in intronic regions. Specifically, you substitute one adenosine at a time with deoxyadenosine in each of the introns. After that, you transfect (deliver) this mRNA into a eukaryotic cell line and check what proteins are synthesized. For intron 1 none of the mutations affected the protein sequence, however for intron 2 you found that one mutation changed the sequence of protein produced.

a) Explain these results (4 marks)
b) What would you expect to observe if you perform the same experiment, but instead substitute cytidine with deoxycytidine (2 marks)

A

a) Most likely explanation is that intron 1 is a group I intron, and intron 2 is a group 2 intron. For group I introns external guanosine act as a nucleophile in the first step of splicing, so substituting adenosine with deoxyadenosine will not affect the splicing reaction. So mRNA will be successfully spliced and then translated. However, for group 2 introns 2’-OH of adenosine in the middle of an intron acts as a nucleophile. So if we are substituting adenosine with deoxyadenosine, there will be no 2’-OH to perform nucleophilic attack and splicing cannot happen. Intron will be retained in the mRNA, will be translated and this will change the sequence of the protein.
b) We would expect to observe Zoom phenotype, because cytidine does not act as a nucleophile in either type 1 or type 2 introns

660
Q

Dietary RNAs are hydrolyzed by pancreatic RNases to individual nucleotides and then absorbed in intestines. Describe how dietary UMP which was part of RNA in eggs (or beans or whatever you prefer) you had for breakfast this morning can be incorporated into your DNA. Describe all steps and include names of the enzymes.

A
  • UMP + ATP -> UDP + ADP by nucleoside monophosphate kinase (uridylate kinase)
  • UDP -> dUDP by ribonucleotide reductase
  • dUDP + ATP -> dUTP + ADP by nucleoside diphosphate kinase
  • dUTP -> dUMP by dUTPase (I don’t expect you to know the name of the enzyme for this reaction. I did talk about the reaction, but I didn’t name the enzyme in class. )
  • dUMP + THF ->dTMP + DHF by thymidylate synthase
  • dTMP + ATP -> dTDP + ADP by nucleoside monophosphate kinase (thymidylate kinase)
  • dTDP + ATP -> dTTP + ADP by nucleoside diphosphate kinase
  • dTTP -> DNA by DNA polymerase

UDP can also be converted into dCTP:

  • UDP phosphorylated by nucleoside diphosphate kinase, which uses ATP and yields UTP and ADP
  • UTP converted to CTP by glutamine-UTP amidotransferase, which uses glutamine and ATP, yielding CTP, glutamate, ADP, and Pi
  • Phosphate group in CTP is removed, yielding CDP
  • 2’-OH group in CDP then removed by ribonucleotide reductase, which yields dCDP
  • dCDP can be phosphorylated by nucleoside diphosphate kinase, which uses ATP, yielding dCTP and ADP
661
Q

Provided below is a partial sequence of the template strand of a prokaryotic gene:

5’- GATTCAATTGATTTTCAACGCCATAGGTCAAACCTCCTAGG - 3’

a) Write down the sequence of the coding strand (3 marks).
b) Write down the sequence of the corresponding mRNA, assuming that first nucleotide is a transcription start site (3 marks).
c) Write down the amino acid sequence (in single letter code) of the encoded protein (3 marks).
d) Estimate how many ATP equivalents will be used to synthesize this protein from free amino acids. Show you calculations. (3 marks).

A

a) coding strand

5’-CCTAGGAGGTTTGACCTATGGCGTTGAAAATCAATTGAATC -3’

b) mRNA

5’-CCUAGGAGGUUUGACCUAUGGCGUUGAAAAUCAAUUGAAUC -3’

c) protein

MALKIN

d) ATP equivalents required

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthesis (tRNA charging): 2 X 6 = 12

Initiation: 1 GTP by IF2 =1

Elongation (1 GTP by Tu + 1 GTP by EF-G) X 5 = 10

Termination 1 GTP by RF = 1

Total = 24

662
Q
A

Beta-alanine

product of uracil degradation

663
Q
A

Beta-alanine

Product of uracil degradation

664
Q
A

Beta-alanine

Product of uracil degradation

665
Q
A

Beta-aminoisobutyrate

Product of thymine degradation

666
Q
A

Beta-aminoisobutyrate

Product of thymine degradation

667
Q
A

Beta-aminoisobutyrate

Product of thymine degradation

668
Q

N-Met-Arg-Arg-Arg-C

What is the ATP cost for synthesis of the above polypeptide?

A

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthesis (tRNA charging): 2 X 4 = 8

Initiation: 1 GTP by IF2 =1

Elongation (1 GTP by Tu + 1 GTP by EF-G) X 3 = 6

Termination 1 GTP by RF = 1

Total = 16

669
Q

Given a sequence with no other information which is the template and which is the coding strand?

5’-3’

3’-5’

A

3’-5’ is the template strand

5’-3’ is the coding strand

670
Q

What is the ATP cost for synthesizing dTTP?

(including PRPP synthesis)

A

1) bicarbonate–> carbamoyl phosphate –> 2 ATP
2) PRPP–> 2 ATP ( from purine pathway)
3) UMP–> UDP –> 1 ATP
4) UDP –> UTP–> 1 ATP

Total = 6 ATP

671
Q

What is the pathway for production each dNTP?

A

IMP -> rAMP/rGMP -> rADP/rGDP -> dADP/dGDP -> dATP/dGTP

rUMP -> rUDP -> rUTP -> rCTP -> rCDP -> dCDP -> dCTP

rUMP -> rUDP -> dUDP -> dUTP -> dUMP -> dTMP ->dTTP

672
Q

Give the eukaryotic analogue for each of the following eukaryotic replication proteins.

DNA pol III

DNA pol I

DnaG

DNA ligase

A

DNApol III vs DNApol δ

DNApol I vs Rnase + MF1

DnaG vs Primase-Pol α

DNA ligase vs DNA ligase I

673
Q

What is the bacterial homolog of the Hogness box?

A

The bacterial homolog of the TATA box (i.e., the Hogness box) is called the Pribnow box which has a shorter consensus sequence.