Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Path > MT2 > Flashcards

MT2 Flashcards

1
Q

How many protein-coding genes in Human Genome Project

A

19,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mutations affecting ___ cells can be inherited (basis of genetic disease)

Mutations affecting ____ cells can result in tumors (usually not inherited/passed along)

A

Germ

Somatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which type of mutation alters reading of RNA

A

Frameshift mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fragile X syndrome is what type of mutation?

A

Trinucleotide repeat mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where are polymorphisms usually found?

What are their significance for disease?

A

NON coding regions (i.e. introns & exons)

They are markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Copy number variation is an example of a ____, therefore, it’s recognized as a ____

A

polymorphism

marker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Epigentic change is a ___ that reduces/shuts down ____ by:

A

polymorphism
translocation (protein synth)
methylation of cytosine residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which polymorphism controls gene silencing?

A

Micro-RNA’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Autosomal ___ disorder will be evident clinically when only one of the chromosomes in the pair (heterozygous) exhibits a mutation

A

dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Majority of automsomal ____ create outward physical changes.

Early/late age of onset?
Example:

A

dominant

LATE (even though mutant gene is present from birth)
Huntington’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If one of the parents is infected and half the offspring are affected, it’s autosomal ____

A

dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which disease has nearly 100% penetrance

A

neurofibramotosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is variable expressivity?

A

Trait is seen phenotypically, but is expressed differently among individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

De novo mutation:

A

If a kid has an autosomal disorder and neither of the parents have it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which is a largest group of mendelian disorders?

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For autosomal recessive, do the parents usually show the disease?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Autosomal ___ is when you need a germline from both parents to develop disease

A

recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Autosomal recessive commonly effects enzyme for:

A

metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For autosomal recessive, the age is onset is ___ in life

The expression tends to be ___ uniform and ___ penetrance is common

A

earlier

more uniform
complete penetrance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

X-linked disorders are almost always (dom/rec)

If a man inherits an x-linked recessive (almost all are recessive), is he always affected?

A

Recessive

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When lyonization occurs, what is left in the female zygote?

What is unfavorable lyonization causes clinical evidence of an _____ disease in a ___zygote.
- Example:

A

Barr body

x-linked disease in a heterozygote.
Ex. hemophilia A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A patient has coarse facial features, clouding of cornea, joint stiffness, and mental retardation. They have _____ which is due to lack of _____. It’s a _______disease

A
  • Mucopolysaccharidoses
  • Lack of enzyme to degrade mucopolysachharides
  • Lysosomal Storage Disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are some things that come from MULTIFACTORIAL inheritance?

Frequency of inheritance:

A
  • Physiologic traits (i.e. height, weight, hair color, BP, etc)
  • Common diseases (i.e. diabetes, hypertension, gout, schizo)

-2-7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Prevalence of newborns that have a chromosomal abnormality:

In as many as __% of 1st trimester spontaneous abortions, the fetus has a chromosomal abnormality

A

1/200

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
Euploid:
Polyploidy:
Aneuploidy:
Trisomy:
Monosomy:
A
  • Euploid: normal
  • Polyploidy: multiple of 23 (SPONTANEOUS ABORTION)
  • Aneuploidy: any number that is not exact multiple of 23 (ASSOCIATED W MANY NEOPLASIAS -CANCER)
  • Trisomy: 1 extra chromosome
  • Monosomy: 1 less chromosome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Translocation:
Reciprocal translocation:
Deletion:
Inversion:

A
  • Translocation: transfer of a part of 1 chromosome to another nonhomologous chromosome
  • Reciprocal translocation: fragments are exchanged between 2 chromosomes
  • Deletion: loss of a portion of a chromosome
  • Inversion: chromosome breaks in 2 points, then the released fragment turns around and then reunites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Indications for genetic analysis..
Prenatal:
Postnatal:

A 
PREnatal:
-Mother >34yrs old
-Parent is carrier of chromosomal translocation/ or x-linked disorder
POSTnatal:
-Multiple congenital anomalies
-Mental retardation
-Infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does arteriosclerosis due to arteries

A

harderns arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which type of arteriosclerosis is calcification WITHOUT luminal narrowing or disruption (so blood flow is ok)

A

Monckeberg’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Difference of hyaline and hyperplastic arteriosclerosis..

  • which causes narrowing of lumen?
  • which causes thickening of basement membrane?
  • which causes fibrocellular intimal thickening
  • which is more affected by diabetes?
A
  • hyperplastic = narrowing of lumen
  • hyaline = thickening of basement membrane
  • hyperplastic = fibrocellular intimal thickening
  • hyaline more affected by diabetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What disease is responsible for more death than any other?

A

Vascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q 
Arterial vs. Venous side...
Which is high pressure?
Which has strong muscular wall?
Which has a more elastic wall?
Which has a larger lumen?
A 
Arterial = high pressure
Arterial = strong muscular (to withstand pressure)
Venous = elastic wall
Venous = larger lumen (dilates easily)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Death rate for all atherosclerosis?

__% due to MI

A

50%

25% due to MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the most important NON-modifiable risk factor for arteriosclerosis?

A

Genetics (family history of MI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What modifiable risk factor for arteriosclerosis increases death rate by 200%?

What is a risk factor in the oral cavity?

A

smoking

inflammation (CRP- inflammatory marker)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Atherosclerosis: response to injury hypothesis…

  • Endothelial injury results in endothelial dysfunction
  • Accumulation of lipoproteins
  • Monocyte adhesion =
A

Monocyte adhesion = migration into intima w/ differentiation into macrophages and “foam cells” (macrophages that have ingested lipid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Atherosclerotic plaque (an atheroma) has a ____ cap, a _____ core and has progressive changes (which includes _____)

A

fibrous cap
central lipid core
fissure formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Fatty streaks occur in what age?

They can be in atherosclerotic and nonatherosclertoic prone geographic areas and are characterized by:

A

Infants and children

Lipid-laden cells in the intima

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A complication of ATHEROSCLEROSIS that’s due to pressure atrophy of the media w/ altered balance of collagen synthesis/degradation is?
-It leads to?

-Other complications?

A

Aneurysm
Sudden death

-gangrene, renal artery stenosis (atrophy of kidney)…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hypertension prevalence

Normal?
Severe?

A

25%

Normal 160/106

41
Q

Which type of hypertension accounts for 90%?

What are some contributing factors of essential hypertension?

What symptoms do most patients have?

A

Essential hypertension

Genetics, stress, obesity, increased salt intake, smoking

NONE until organ damage has already occured!

42
Q

With Essential Hypertension, what happens during compensation?

What happens if you add dilation?

A

Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy…the muscles get stronger and makes the ventricular chamber smaller (cardiac output at risk)…makes heart pump faster

Dilation causes it to be DEcompensated. Big heart but can’t pump very well. Leads to CHF

43
Q

Hypertension causes ____ sodium excretion –> salt and water ___ –> ____plasma volume and cardiac output

A

reduced excretion
salt and water retention
increases plasma volume and cardiac output

44
Q

What is Congestive Heart Failure?

Affects how many people in US annually?
Contributes to ____deaths

A

Failure of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to supply the metabolic requirements

5 million
300,000

45
Q

CHF compensatory mechanism..
Initially:
Then:

Activation of neurohumoral system releases ____ w/ increased __ + ___. Activation of ____ system w/ water/salt retention –> increased circulatory volume

A

Initially: Myocardial hypertrophy (helps initially, but the larger muscle fibers require more oxygen from the capillaries, which is not typically available)

Then: Frank-Starling mechanism (ventricular dilation)…as you stretch cardiac muscle, it’ll push out more forcefully

release of NE w/ increased HR + contractility
-Activation of renin-angiotensin system

46
Q

Biggest cause of LEFT-side heart failure?

Biggest cause of RIGHT side failure?
Other causes of right side:

A

Ischemic heart disease

Left side heart failure
-pulmonary (lung) hypertension (cor pulmonate), valve disease, septal defects w/ left to right shunts

47
Q

Most common manifestation of CHF:
CHF due to __ side leads to __ failure
Left ventricular failure causes ___ edema

Right ventricular failure (caused by left failure causing congestion) causes congestion of ____ AND edema of ____

A

Left ventricular failure
Left failure leads to right failure (cuz left doesn’t pump out enough so it congests the right)

Pulmonary edema (difficulty breathing while lying down)

Congestion of liver and spleen AND edema of feet and ankle

48
Q

Prevalence of Congenital heart disease:

What are the two forms:

A

6/1,000 births

Cyanotic (right –> left) (shunting of poorly-oxygenated venous return to systemic arterial circulation.)

Noncyanotic (left–>right)

49
Q

What are the 2 cyanotic congenital heart diseases?
This can cause what clinically:

Most common congenital heart disease:

A

Tetrology of Fallot + Transpostion

  • clubbing of fingers
  • Ventricular septal defect
50
Q

Leading cause of death in the US?

A

Ischemic Heart Disease. 500,000 per year

51
Q

During Ischemic heart disease, narrowing of ____ by at least __% by atherosclerosis.

Other factors:

A

narrowing of coronary arteries by at least 75%

Shock, pneumonia, anemia

52
Q

3 types of cardiomyopathy:

A

Dilated
Hypertrophic
Restrictive

53
Q

DILATED cardiomyopathy:

A

dilation of all 4 chambers

54
Q

HYPERTROPHIC cardiomyopathy:

A

Genetic

ASYMMETRIC HYPERTROPHY

55
Q

RESTRICTIVE cardiomyopathy:

A

decrease in ventricular compliance (wall is stiffer)

56
Q 
Acute vs Subacute Endocarditis...
Which has large vegetations?
Which is longer duration?
Which has a more virulent organism?
Which has a previously normal valve?
Which has more tissue destruction
A 
Large vegetations: Acute
Longer = subacute
More virulent = Acute
Previously normal valve = acute
More tissue destruction = acute
57
Q

Vasculitis:

What causes vasculitis to be worse?

A

Inflammation of blood vessels

Immune complexes

58
Q

What are the 2 ANCA - positive forms of vasculitis?

A

Wegener’s and microscopic polyarteritis

59
Q

Leukemias are malignant proliferations of cells native to the _____ which often spillover into the ___. They can spread to involve ____

A

bone marrow
blood
organs (usually liver and spleen..but also gingiva)

60
Q 
Hodgkin VS NHL...
Which has RS cells
Usually has multiple node involvement:
More common:
Which is based on STAGE (location):
Which is based on GRADING (morphology):
Which affects ALL ages:
Large painless lymph nodes:
A 
RS = Hodgkin
Multiple node = NHL
More common = NHL
Stage = Hodgkin
Grading = NHL
All ages = NHL
Large painless nodes = BOTH
61
Q

Biggest difference between acute and chronic Leukemias (with regards to bone marrow)

A

Acute has an increase in blasts (chronic doesn’t have an increase in blasts)

62
Q

Acute Lympoblastic Leukemia (ALL) vs Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia (AML)

  • Enlargement of lymph nodes, liver and spleen more common in:
  • Often involves CNS:
  • Which affects mostly children..which affects mostly adults
  • Remission more common with
A
  • Enlargement more common = ALL
  • CNS = ALL
  • Children = ALL
  • Adults = AML
  • Remission = AML
63
Q

What are the 2 main clinical features of Leukemia?

A

1) impairment of marrow function

2 )infiltration of body organs

64
Q

In plasma cell disorders, the secreted immunoglobulin results in increases of ________, which may have adverse effects on ___ and ___ fucntion

A
  • increase of serum monoclonal protein (M component)

- Adverse effects on renal and neurologic function

65
Q

Do testing for anemia DIRECTLY measure the red cell mass?

Whats an INCREASE in red cell mass called?

A

NO! just reflect

Polycythemia

66
Q 
RBC loss // Decreased RBC survival // or Decreased RBC production...
***Nutritional deficiency:
Hemorrhage:
Hemolysis (transplant not doing well):
Malaria:
Iron anemia:
Hemolytic anemia:
A 
Nutritional = decreased PRODUCTION
Hemorrhage = loss
Hemolysis (transplant) = decreased survival
Malaria = decreased survival
Iron anemia = decreased production
Hemolytic anemia = decreased survival
67
Q

Coomb’s test is an autoimmune test to see if there is:

A

immunoglobulin on blood cells

68
Q

Young healthy subjects can tolerate rapid blood loss of ____ml (__% of total).

Interstitial fluid will redistribute within ___

Rapid blood loss of ____ml produces shock

A

500-1000ml (15-20%)

24 hrs

2000ml

69
Q

The loss of RBC stimulates increased production, mediated by ____, resulting in an increase in the ____ count in the peripheral blood

A

mediated by erythropoietin

increase in the reticulocyte count

70
Q

Chronic blood loss causes anemia when:

A

loss exceeds regeneration OR when iron reserves are depleted

71
Q

Which are usually inherited? Which are normally acquired (intrinsic/extrinsic hemolytic anemia)

A 
Intrinsic = inherited
Extrinsic = acquired
72
Q

What is the most common cause of anemia in the world?
RBCs appearance:
Important to recognize anemia may be a sign of a more serious disorder associated w/ chronic blood loss (ie _____)

A

iron deficiency

  • pale and white
  • cancer
73
Q

Megaloblastic anemia is deficiency of:
They are both involved w/ synthesis of:
End result is abnormally ___RBC precursor, _____ production of MATURE RBCs, and abnormally large ____cells.

A

B12 and folate

  • thymidine
  • abnormally large RBC precursor (megaloblast),
  • decreased production of MATURE RBCs
  • also large white cells
74
Q

Where is B12 found?
Body stores? (large or small)

Folate is found?
Body stores?

A

B12: animal foods
Stores: large

Folate: vegetables
Stores: small

75
Q

Hemostasis definition:

3 major components of hemostasis

A

ability to maintain blood in a fluid state AND prevent loss from sites of damage (hence “stasis”… equilibrium)

-vascular wall, platelets, coagulation proteins

76
Q

Primary hemostasis is ___driven

Secondary hemostasis is ___driven

A 
Primary = platelet
Secondary = coagulation (thrombin/fibrin)
77
Q

During primary hemostasis, platelet adhesion involves activation of:
What’s the surface it adheres to?
What mediates the adherence of platelets?

A
  • surface membrane receptor (glycoprotein Ib)
  • subendothelial matrix (collagen)
  • vWF mediates adherence
78
Q

Activation of primary hemostasis….
Secretion:
Activation of:
Shape change:

A

Secretes: alpha granules

  • activation of GP IIb/IIIa receptor
  • from discoid to spherical
79
Q

Aggregation of primary hemostasis…
dependent on:
Platelet-platelt binding mediated by:

A

calcium

-fibrinogen

80
Q

What does thrombin do (secondary hemostasis).

What does it do to the clot?

A

Converts fibrinogen to fibrin

-Adds stability to the clot

81
Q

Which pathway is more important in secondary hemostasis?

It’s activated by:

A

EXTRINSIC

-tissue factor

82
Q

Antithrombins def:

A

inhibit activity of thrombin and other serine proteases

83
Q

What is the protein C system?
What’s the major effector enzyme, what’s the major cofactor?

Deficiencies in this system would cause:
What does Factor V Ledin mutation promote?

A 
REGULATES hemostasis (they slow down hemostasis)
-Protein C is the major effector enzyme, protein s is a major cofactor

Hypercoagulability
-Coagulation

84
Q

Summary of REGULATION of coagulation…
Antithrombin inhibits:
Protein c inhibits:
Plasmin breaks down:

A

Antithrombin inhbits serine proteases
Protein C inhibits cofactors
Plasmin breaks down fibrin clot

85
Q

Screening tests to evaluate hemostasis…
Prothrombin Time def:
***Used to initiate ____ coagulation cascade

A

time needed for plasma to form a clot in the presence of added tissue thromboplastin
EXTRINSIC

86
Q

Screening tests to evaluate hemostasis…
Partial Thromboplastin Time
Measurement of ____ pathway

A

time needed for plasma to form a clot in the presence of added ground glass or kaolin (to activate factor XII)
INTRINSIC

87
Q

When either the PT or PTT is prolonged, a ______ with 1:1 ratio of normal plasma:patient plasma is performed.

If mixing study corrects clotting time, px has ____ of factors.

If the mixing times does NOT correct the clotting time, an ____is present (either ____ or _____type)

A

mixed study

deficiency of factors

inhibitor (factor-specific or lupus anticoagulant type)

88
Q

If bleeding disorder screening laboratory tests are normal, disorder of the ____ system may be suspected

A

regulatory

89
Q

Disorders of Primary or Secondary hemostasis
Which causes more superficial bleeding (i.e. mucosa)?
Which causes deeper bleeding (i.e. joints)?

A 
Primary = superficial
Secondary = deeper
90
Q

vWF functions both as the carrier molecule for ______ and as the “glue” between damaged endothelium and platelets (primary hemostasis)

A

Factor VIII

91
Q

How is Hemophilia B different than A?

How is vWF disease different than Hemo A

A

Decreased production of Factor IX (instead of VIII in A)

vWF has mucocutaneous bleeding

92
Q

Autosomal dominant vs recessive polycystic kidney disease….

  • In adults:
  • Kids:
  • Which is more common (1:500-1000):
  • Gradual onset:
  • ***Creates cysts in Circle of Willis (intracranial):
  • Has the gene mutation that includes liver (pkHd1..H is hepatic):
  • Causes very large kidneys:
  • Cysts arise from collecting tubules
A
  • Adults = dominant
  • Kids = recessive
  • More common = dominant
  • Gradual = dominant (hence adults)
  • **Intracranial cysts = dominant
  • PKHD1 = recessive
  • Large kidneys = dominant
  • Collecting Tubules = recessive
93
Q

What are the 2 mechanisms of Glomerular Injury:

A
  1. Immune complex deposits in Glomerular Basement Membrane (GBM)
  2. Epithelial and endothelial injury
94
Q

For evaluation of kidney biopsies, you use EM (electron microscopy) to identify:

A

More specific location of beasement membrane

95
Q

3 things that kidney disease will affect:

A

Glomeruli
Renal Veins
Renal Pelvis

96
Q

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (TTP) AND Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome (HUS) are related to activation, aggregation, and consumption of:

Which one affects kidney?
Which one affects more organs?

A

platalets

TTP= all organs (including CNS)
HUS= just kidney
97
Q

WHo is at high risk for kidney stones because of high cell turnover?

A

Ppl with Leukemia

98
Q

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa on the _____ binds ___

A

on the PLATELETS binds FIBRINOGEN

99
Q

Heparin works the same way as ____. Which works by stopping:

A

antithrombin

stopping thrombin from making fibrin (inhibit serine proteases)

Path (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions