MT1

Question 1

MRSA is gram (+) or (-)

Answer 1

gram (+)

methicillin resistant staph aureus

Question 2

Can you use gram stain for Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Answer 2

No!

Question 3

Which Gram (+) cocci are in clusters like grapes? Staph or Strep?

Answer 3

Staph (aureus, epidermidis, saprophyticus)

Question 4

HNPEK stands for what? Gram (+) or (-)?

Answer 4

Haemophilus, Neisseria, Proteus, E coli, Klebsiella; Gram (-)

Question 5

CPES stands for? Gram (+) or (-)?

Answer 5

Citrobacter, Providencia, Enterobacter, Serratia; Gram (-)

Question 6

Bacteroides (fragilis), Prevotella, Fusobacterium are what class?

Answer 6

Anaerobic Gram (-) Rods

Question 7

Peptostreptococci is what class?

Answer 7

Anaerobic Gram (+) cocci - variable hemolysis

Question 8

Purple cocci in chains or pairs represents what? Staph or Strep?

Answer 8

Streptococci

Question 9

Viridans streptococci is normal flora in where?

Answer 9

Oropharynx

Question 10

Strep pyogenes is normal flora where and gram (+) or (-) and what group?

Answer 10

Skin; gram (+); group A

Question 11

Group D of streptococci is what?

Answer 11

Enterococci (Faecium, Faecalis), Strep bovis

Question 12

Which bugs can cause upper respiratory infections? (5)

Answer 12

Strep pneumoniae, Neisseria meninigitidis, Moraxella catarrhalis, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Bordetella pertussis

Question 13

Leading cause of otitis media in children? What is its structure & color?

Answer 13

Moraxella catarrhalis; Red/pink diplococci

Question 14

Purplish rash matched with smear + blood culture + CSF indicates what?

Answer 14

N. meningitis

Question 15

Enterobacteriaceae are considered gram what and what kind of anaerobes?

Answer 15

Gram (-) Rods + Facultative anaerobes

Question 16

Name the bugs in Enterobacteriaceae (8) and where they are found

Answer 16

E coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Enterobacter, Serratia, Shigella, Salmonella, Yersinia; colon

Question 17

Which two Enterobacteriaceae produce exotoxins to cause diarrhea?

Answer 17

E coli and Vibrio

Question 18

Which organisms (3) cause atypical pneumonia?

Answer 18

Legionella pneumophila & Mycoplasma pneumoniae & Chlamydiae pneumoniae

Question 19

What are spore forming? (Name gram -/+) (4)

Answer 19

Gram (+) Rods: Bacillus cereus, Clostridium perfringenes, C tetani, C difficile

Question 20

Which G(+) Rods are not spore forming?

Answer 20

Listeria Monocytogenes (unpasteurized milk) +Propionibacterium acnes (acne)

Question 21

What causes food poisoning?

Answer 21

Bacillius cereus + Clostridium perfringens (gas gangrene)

Question 22

Obligate intracellular parasite with no peptidoglycan describes?

Answer 22

Chlamydiae

Question 23

Wall less bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia is?

Answer 23

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Question 24

Mycobacteria can be determined through gram stain. T/F?

Answer 24

False

Question 25

E coli can cause what 3 issues?

Answer 25

UTI, gram neg bacteremia, traveler's diarrhea

Question 26

E coli O157:H7 strain comes from uncooked hamburgers and it is the most severe intestinal tract infection, such hemolytic anemia. T/F

Answer 26

False; hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

Question 27

Which gram negative rods are considered opportunists, where they can cause pneumonia, UTI, bacteremia?

Answer 27

Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia

Question 28

When a pt has kidney stones + UTIs, what do you consider?

Answer 28

Proteus; due to urease

Question 29

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is limited to what treatment?

Answer 29

Penicillins, Aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones

Question 30

What kind of acute infections can Pseudomonas cause?

Answer 30

Ventilator associated pneumonia -- invasive, cytotoxic

Question 31

What is the leading cause of hospital acquired pneumonia (HAP)?

Answer 31

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 32

What bacteria is resistant to almost all antibiotics?

Answer 32

Acinetobacter sp. (baumannii)

Question 33

What can cause typhoid fever? Gram +/-

Answer 33

Salmonella typhi; GNR

Question 34

Salmonella typhimurium is a common cause of what?

Answer 34

Enterocolitis

Question 35

What bacteria only needs less than 100 organisms for an infectious dose? Gram +/-

Answer 35

Shigella (sonnei, flexneri); GNR

Question 36

Shigella sonnei is the 3rd most common cause of what?

Answer 36

Bacterial gastroenteritis - incub period 1-4 days, begins with fever + abd cramps, following by diarrhea (watery, then blood & mucus), resolved in 2-3 days

Question 37

What bacteria comes from improperly cooked poultry?

Answer 37

Campylobacter (GNR)

Question 38

Campylobacter Enterocolitis occurs often in which patient population? What are the symptoms?

Answer 38

College students; watery, foul-smelling diarrhea followed by bloody stool, fever, severe abd pain

Question 39

Absence of PMNs mean what about toxins?

Answer 39

Toxin mediated (Vibrio, E coli, Clostridium perfringens)

Question 40

``` Which of the following are transmitted via airborne droplets? A. Neisseria Meningitidis B. Bordetella pertussis C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Chlamydiae pneumoniae ```

Answer 40

A&B. Neisseria Meningitidis & Bordetella pertussis | C & D. Mycoplasma pneumonia & Chlamydiae pneumoniae - respiratory droplets

Question 41

``` Which of the following is trasmitted fecal-oral route? Select all that apply A. Clostridium B. Shigella C. Campylobacter D. Salmonella ```

Answer 41

Except D (ingestion of food and water)

Question 42

Which bacterias cause UTI?

Answer 42

Morganella, Enterococcus, Staph saprophyticus CPES, PEK

Question 43

Which gram negative bacteria have coccobacilli morphology? (3)

Answer 43

Bordetella, Haemophilea, Acinteobacter

Question 44

What are the 3 gram negative bacteria that have diplococci morphology?

Answer 44

Neissera (meningitis, gnorrhea), Moraxella

Question 45

Cefazolin and Keflex are which generation of CEPHs and what is their alt name & ROA?

Answer 45

1st gen; Ancef (IV) & Cephalexin (PO)

Question 46

What IS the second generation PO CEPH?

Answer 46

Cefuroxime (2A)

Question 47

Cefoxitin and Cefotetan are what generation, ROA, and brand name?

Answer 47

Mefoxin, Cefotan; 2nd gen (2B), IV

Question 48

Cefixime (Suprax), Cefpodoxime (Vantin), and Cefdinir (Omnicef) are what generation and what ROA?

Answer 48

3rd generation (3A); PO

Question 49

What generation do you add CAPES? Name the drugs in this class

Answer 49

3rd Generation (3A); IV ONLY; Cetriaxone (Rocephin) & Cefotaxime (Claforan)

Question 50

Fortaz is what generation and adds which gram negative to HNPEK and CAPES?

Answer 50

Ceftazidime (IV); Pseudomonas

Question 51

4th generation CEPH is what?

Answer 51

Cefepime IV (Maxipime)