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Infectious Diseases > MT1 > Flashcards

MT1 Flashcards

Bugs, Microbio, Beta Lactams, (Lipo) Glycopeptides, Bacitracin, Polymixin, AMG, FQs, Sulfonamides, Metronidazole, Daptomycin

1
Q

MRSA is gram (+) or (-)

A

gram (+)

methicillin resistant staph aureus

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2
Q

Can you use gram stain for Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

No!

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3
Q

Which Gram (+) cocci are in clusters like grapes? Staph or Strep?

A

Staph (aureus, epidermidis, saprophyticus)

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4
Q

HNPEK stands for what? Gram (+) or (-)?

A

Haemophilus, Neisseria, Proteus, E coli, Klebsiella; Gram (-)

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5
Q

CPES stands for? Gram (+) or (-)?

A

Citrobacter, Providencia, Enterobacter, Serratia; Gram (-)

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6
Q

Bacteroides (fragilis), Prevotella, Fusobacterium are what class?

A

Anaerobic Gram (-) Rods

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7
Q

Peptostreptococci is what class?

A

Anaerobic Gram (+) cocci - variable hemolysis

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8
Q

Purple cocci in chains or pairs represents what? Staph or Strep?

A

Streptococci

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9
Q

Viridans streptococci is normal flora in where?

A

Oropharynx

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10
Q

Strep pyogenes is normal flora where and gram (+) or (-) and what group?

A

Skin; gram (+); group A

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11
Q

Group D of streptococci is what?

A

Enterococci (Faecium, Faecalis), Strep bovis

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12
Q

Which bugs can cause upper respiratory infections? (5)

A

Strep pneumoniae, Neisseria meninigitidis, Moraxella catarrhalis, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Bordetella pertussis

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13
Q

Leading cause of otitis media in children? What is its structure & color?

A

Moraxella catarrhalis; Red/pink diplococci

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14
Q

Purplish rash matched with smear + blood culture + CSF indicates what?

A

N. meningitis

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15
Q

Enterobacteriaceae are considered gram what and what kind of anaerobes?

A

Gram (-) Rods + Facultative anaerobes

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16
Q

Name the bugs in Enterobacteriaceae (8) and where they are found

A

E coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Enterobacter, Serratia, Shigella, Salmonella, Yersinia; colon

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17
Q

Which two Enterobacteriaceae produce exotoxins to cause diarrhea?

A

E coli and Vibrio

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18
Q

Which organisms (3) cause atypical pneumonia?

A

Legionella pneumophila & Mycoplasma pneumoniae & Chlamydiae pneumoniae

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19
Q

What are spore forming? (Name gram -/+) (4)

A

Gram (+) Rods: Bacillus cereus, Clostridium perfringenes, C tetani, C difficile

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20
Q

Which G(+) Rods are not spore forming?

A

Listeria Monocytogenes (unpasteurized milk) +Propionibacterium acnes (acne)

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21
Q

What causes food poisoning?

A

Bacillius cereus + Clostridium perfringens (gas gangrene)

22
Q

Obligate intracellular parasite with no peptidoglycan describes?

A

Chlamydiae

23
Q

Wall less bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia is?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

24
Q

Mycobacteria can be determined through gram stain. T/F?

A

False

25
Q

E coli can cause what 3 issues?

A

UTI, gram neg bacteremia, traveler’s diarrhea

26
Q

E coli O157:H7 strain comes from uncooked hamburgers and it is the most severe intestinal tract infection, such hemolytic anemia. T/F

A

False; hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

27
Q

Which gram negative rods are considered opportunists, where they can cause pneumonia, UTI, bacteremia?

A

Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia

28
Q

When a pt has kidney stones + UTIs, what do you consider?

A

Proteus; due to urease

29
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is limited to what treatment?

A

Penicillins, Aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones

30
Q

What kind of acute infections can Pseudomonas cause?

A

Ventilator associated pneumonia – invasive, cytotoxic

31
Q

What is the leading cause of hospital acquired pneumonia (HAP)?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

32
Q

What bacteria is resistant to almost all antibiotics?

A

Acinetobacter sp. (baumannii)

33
Q

What can cause typhoid fever? Gram +/-

A

Salmonella typhi; GNR

34
Q

Salmonella typhimurium is a common cause of what?

A

Enterocolitis

35
Q

What bacteria only needs less than 100 organisms for an infectious dose? Gram +/-

A

Shigella (sonnei, flexneri); GNR

36
Q

Shigella sonnei is the 3rd most common cause of what?

A

Bacterial gastroenteritis - incub period 1-4 days, begins with fever + abd cramps, following by diarrhea (watery, then blood & mucus), resolved in 2-3 days

37
Q

What bacteria comes from improperly cooked poultry?

A

Campylobacter (GNR)

38
Q

Campylobacter Enterocolitis occurs often in which patient population? What are the symptoms?

A

College students; watery, foul-smelling diarrhea followed by bloody stool, fever, severe abd pain

39
Q

Absence of PMNs mean what about toxins?

A

Toxin mediated (Vibrio, E coli, Clostridium perfringens)

40
Q 
Which of the following are transmitted via airborne droplets?
A. Neisseria Meningitidis 
B. Bordetella pertussis
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Chlamydiae pneumoniae
A

A&B. Neisseria Meningitidis & Bordetella pertussis

C & D. Mycoplasma pneumonia & Chlamydiae pneumoniae - respiratory droplets

41
Q 
Which of the following is trasmitted fecal-oral route? Select all that apply
A. Clostridium 
B. Shigella
C. Campylobacter
D. Salmonella
A

Except D (ingestion of food and water)

42
Q

Which bacterias cause UTI?

A

Morganella, Enterococcus, Staph saprophyticus

CPES, PEK

43
Q

Which gram negative bacteria have coccobacilli morphology? (3)

A

Bordetella, Haemophilea, Acinteobacter

44
Q

What are the 3 gram negative bacteria that have diplococci morphology?

A

Neissera (meningitis, gnorrhea), Moraxella

45
Q

Cefazolin and Keflex are which generation of CEPHs and what is their alt name & ROA?

A

1st gen; Ancef (IV) & Cephalexin (PO)

46
Q

What IS the second generation PO CEPH?

A

Cefuroxime (2A)

47
Q

Cefoxitin and Cefotetan are what generation, ROA, and brand name?

A

Mefoxin, Cefotan; 2nd gen (2B), IV

48
Q

Cefixime (Suprax), Cefpodoxime (Vantin), and Cefdinir (Omnicef) are what generation and what ROA?

A

3rd generation (3A); PO

49
Q

What generation do you add CAPES? Name the drugs in this class

A

3rd Generation (3A); IV ONLY; Cetriaxone (Rocephin) & Cefotaxime (Claforan)

50
Q

Fortaz is what generation and adds which gram negative to HNPEK and CAPES?

A

Ceftazidime (IV); Pseudomonas

51
Q

4th generation CEPH is what?

A

Cefepime IV (Maxipime)

Infectious Diseases (1 decks)

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