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Ocular Pharm Review > MT 1 and 2 > Flashcards

MT 1 and 2 Flashcards

1
Q

If there is no discharge, is there an infection

A

no

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2
Q

What is the significance about Methicillin?

A

resistant to staph aureus and staph epidermidis (MRSA/MRSE)

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3
Q

What drug is often combined with PCNase sensitive formulas?

A

Sulbactam

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4
Q

What drug has an adverse reaction called Red Man Syndrome and why does it occur?

A

Vancomycin

because of IV induced mast cell degranulation

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5
Q

What drug cannot be taken on an empty stomach because of its risk of erosive esophagitis?

A

Doxycycline

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6
Q

What is Fanconi’s Syndrome?

A

Renal toxicity resulting from expired tetracyclines

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7
Q

What drug class should be avoided in pregnant women and young children due to its impairment of bone and tooth development?

A

Tetracyclines

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8
Q

What are the 3 antibiotic drugs that were discussed in class as having a pregnancy rating B?

A

Erythromycin
Azithromycin
Tobramycin

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9
Q

What drug has an adverse reaction called Grey Baby Syndrome and why does it occur?

A

Chloramphenicol because of IV use in newborns with immature liver function

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10
Q

What is the most common site of ocular allergy?

A

Conjunctiva

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11
Q

What are the 4 types of hypersensitivity responses?

A 
ACID
Type 1 - Allergy
Type 2 - Cytotoxic or Antibody mediated
Type 3 - Immune complex 
Type 4 - Delayed
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12
Q

What should you always tell patients that present with ocular allergies?

A

Avoid rubbing eyes = busting open mast cells just going to make matters worse!

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13
Q

Which mast cell stabilizer has the least amount of adverse effects?

A

Nedocromil

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14
Q

What is a distinction between the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system?

A

Ganglia are very close to the target tissue in sympathetic nervous system

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15
Q

Mueller’s muscle retraction - patient comes in with what looks like a ptosis, but other eye is actually the eye that is abnormal

A

due to use of decongestants such as Visine

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16
Q

Phenylephrine causes _____ and Parmyed causes____

A

Bradycardia, Tachycardia

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17
Q

What are the systemic adverse effects of anticholinergics?

A 
ABCDs
anorexia
blur
constipation & confusion
dryness
sedation
status of urine
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18
Q

Patient is taking hydrocodone and you need to use Atropine, what region of the body would you expect the symptoms to have the most effect?

A

Gastrointestinal

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19
Q

How is toxicity related to dose with systemic effects of anesthetics?

A

Toxicity is exponentially related to dose

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20
Q

What contraindication should you be aware of when prescribing Indocyanine Green and Rose Bengal

A

Iodine or shellfish allergy

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21
Q

Why are sulfonamides not very effective in highly mucopurelent environments?

A

Mucopurelent environs have a lot of PABA from decaying bacteria upon lyses. Sulfonamides are PABA analogs which have to compete with the excess PABA that is floating around in the discharge in order to work…

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22
Q

Which antibiotic is not appropriate for an anemic patient because they cause Fe deficiency

A

Fluoroquinolones

23
Q

Which drug reduces metabolism of theophylline (asthma drug); and also cause white corneal precipitates

A

Ciprofloxacin

24
Q

What is the most common toxicity associated with antifungal agents?

A

Hepatotoxicity

25
Q

What drug groups inhibit MMPs

A

Tetracyclines

26
Q

What class of NSAIDs do the topical formulations, diclofenac and ketorolac, belong to

A

Acetic Acid Derivatives

27
Q

What class of NSAIDs do the topical formulations, flurbiprofen and suprofen belong to

A

Propionic Acid Derivations, like ibuprofen

28
Q

Efficacy formula

A

affinity x intrinsic activity

29
Q

Posology

A

science of drug dosing

30
Q

Prophylactic

A

preventative, ie low dose aspirin

31
Q

Basal tear flow

A

0.5 - 2.2 microliters

32
Q

Most common malpractice

A

failure to diagnose

33
Q

Most common preservative

A

Benzalkonium chloride (BAK)

34
Q

Which preservative to use if patient is allergic to Biguanides

A

Benzalkonium chloride (BAK)

35
Q

Red eye drop cap

A

mydriatics and cycloplegics

36
Q

Which filter with fluorescein

A

cobalt blue slit lamp filter

37
Q

Which dye to use to evaluate need for further eyewash following a chemical splash

A

Fluorescein

38
Q

Use for high molecular weight NaFL

A

contact lenses

39
Q

What is Seidel’s sign

A

fluorescein color is disrupted by a clear stream of aqueous humor reaching the surface of the cornea when a penetrating corneal injury has occured

40
Q

How long for fluorescein elimination in the kidneys

A

24-48 hours

41
Q

Quenching order

A

BAK & Benoxinate, Proparacaine, Tetracaine

42
Q

Large diameter nerves are ____ sensitive and recover ____

A

less, quickest

43
Q

Which drug has saturable metabolism

A

Lidocaine

44
Q

Toxicity risk of Lidocaine

A

Seizures

45
Q

Most commonly used topical amide anesthetic in eye care

A

Lidocaine

46
Q

Which anestheticshave hepatic metabolism

A

Lidocaine and Prilocaine

47
Q

Which anesthetic has least surface toxicity

A

Lidocaine

48
Q

Longest acting anesthic

A

Prilocaine

49
Q

Onset and duration of topical esters

A

30 seconds, 15 minutes

50
Q

Which channels topical esters target

A

sodium

51
Q

Which is a contraindication for cocaine

A

hypertension

52
Q

Which drug is contraindicated in young

A

Tetracycline

53
Q

Which drug might you experience photosensitivity

A

Tetracycline

Ocular Pharm Review (1 decks)

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