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Systemic Lab > MT 1 > Flashcards

MT 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Vital Signs

A

Temperature, pulse, respiratory rate, Blood pressure

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2
Q

Normal core temperature

A

97-99.5 (would have to swallow a pill to measure)

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3
Q

Oral and tympanic temperature

A

1 degree lower than core. Quicker to respond to changes

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4
Q

Rectal

A

About equal to core. Slower to répond to changes

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5
Q

Highest temperature in the day

A

4 pm

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6
Q

Lowest temperature in the ay

A

4 am

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7
Q

When is temperature elevated

A

infections, cancer (leukemia lymphoma), immunological diz (SLE, Sarcoid), hyperthyroidism.

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8
Q

When is temperature decreased

A

Exposure, hypothyroidism, addison disease, DM, liver and kidney failure

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9
Q

How long should a patient not have eaten or consumed a beverage before oral temperature

A

30 minutes

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10
Q

How to get temperature with TA when perspiration

A

while still holding button touch the soft depression behind the ear.

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11
Q

Normal pulse

A

60-100

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12
Q

When is pulse increased

A

infections, anxiety, fever, heart or respiratory failure

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13
Q

What is the most commonly assessed artery

A

radial.

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14
Q

How long must you could pulse for

A

30 sec

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15
Q

Will the rate always be the same on both sides?

A

YES

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16
Q

Will the intensity always be the same on both sides?

A

NO! Intensity may be different with blockage

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17
Q

Rating amplitude of pulse

A

4+ Bounding 3+ increased (anxiety, athersclorosis, hyperthyroid) 2+ normal 1+ diminished, barely palpable 0: Absent

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18
Q

Respiratory rate in adults

A

12-18 cpm

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19
Q

Respiratory rate in children

A

May be up to 20 cpm

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20
Q

Respiratory rate in newborn

A

May be up to 44 cpm

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21
Q

Bradypnea

A

Less than 10 cpm

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22
Q

Tachypnea

A

Greater than 20 cpm

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23
Q

When is respiratory rate increased

A

infections, anxiety, fever, heart or respiratory failure

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24
Q

What does deep, rapid breathing cause?

A

hypercapnea

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25
Q

What happens if a BP cuff is too tight?

A

False high reading

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26
Q

Where should you place the BP cuff?

A

So the arrow is at the bradial a.

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27
Q

What does the disappearance of the pulse indicate?

A

systolic BP. Raise cuff 20-30 more

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28
Q

What should not be consumed before BP measurement?

A

caffeine

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29
Q

What is the rate the BP cuff should be decreased

A

2-3 mmhg per sec

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30
Q

Disapearance of first beat

A

systolic

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31
Q

disappearance of second beat

A

diastolic

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32
Q

How long to wait between readings?

A

1 minute

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33
Q

Why do you have to wait?

A

venous congestion can cause low systolic and high diastolic

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34
Q

How to record bp?

A

Systolic/diastolic in mmhg. Arm position and time

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35
Q

Systolic less than 120

A

normal. Recheck in 2 years

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36
Q

Diastolic less than 80

A

Normal. Recheck in 2 years

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37
Q

Systolic 120-139.

A

Prehypertension. Recheck in 1 year. Talk about lifestyle modifications.

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38
Q

diastolic 80-89

A

Prehypertension. Recheck in 1 year. Talk about lifestyle modifications.

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39
Q

Systolic 140-159

A

Hypertension stage 1 (based on average of two or more seated readings taken at two or more visits after an initial screening). Confirm within 2 months

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40
Q

Diastolic 90-99

A

Hypertension stage 1 (based on average of two or more seated readings taken at two or more visits after an initial screening). Confirm within 2 months

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41
Q

Systolic greater than 160 classifications

A

Hypertension stage 2 (based on an average of two or more seated readings taken at two or more visits after an initial screening).

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42
Q

Diastolic greater than 100 classifications

A

Hypertension stage 2 (based on average two or more seated readings taken at two or more visits after an initial screening).

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43
Q

Systolic 160-179 follow up

A

Refer to PCP within 1 month

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44
Q

diastolic 100-109

A

Refer to PCP within 1 month

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45
Q

systolic 180-219

A

Refer to PCP within 1 week

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46
Q

Diastolic 110-119

A

refer to PCP within 1 week

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47
Q

Systolic greater than 220

A

Refer within 24-48 hours if target organ damage absent. Refer within a few hours if target organ damage present

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48
Q

Diastolic greater than 120

A

Refer within 24-48 hours if target organ damage absent. If present refer within a few hours.

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49
Q

Where is there no lymphatics

A

CNS, internal ear, bone and cartilage

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50
Q

Function of lymphatics

A

Drainage of tissue fluid (allows entry of plasma proteins and cellular debris), absorption and transport of fat from GI, Defense mechanism

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51
Q

Where does the lymphatic system drain

A

Venous system

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52
Q

Lymph nodes

A

Located along course of lymphatics. B and T cells reside in the nodes. Foreign proteins are phagocytized. Screen off infections from the rest of the body.

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53
Q

Lymphadenopathy

A

enlarged by hyperplasia, leukocytic infiltration, and edema. Can be tender to palpation

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54
Q

Suggested lymph order

A

OPPSDATSS.

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55
Q

Occipital

A

Drains posterior scalp

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56
Q

Posterior aurical

A

Drains scalp, auricular, external auditory meatus

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57
Q

Posterior Cervical

A

Drains scalp, nasopharynx, skin of neck, occipital and posterior auricle nodes

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58
Q

Superficial Cervical

A

Drains cervicle, cheek, neck

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59
Q

Deep cervical

A

Drains most of head and neck lymph draining.

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60
Q

Anterior Auricular

A

Drains upper and medial 2/3 of lower lids, auricle, external auditory meatus

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61
Q

Tonsilar

A

Drains tonsils and tongue

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62
Q

Submandibular

A

Drains upper lid and cheeks, lateral 1/3 of lower lids, tongue, floor of mouth, soft palate, anterior nasal cavity, sinuses

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63
Q

Submental

A

Tip go tongue, floor of mouth, lower lip, skin of chin

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64
Q

What size lymph nodes are considered abnormal

A

Greater than 1 cm

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65
Q

______ nodes are typically soft

A

inflammed

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66
Q

What do tender nodes suggest

A

inflammation

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67
Q

Nodes from lymphoma are

A

firm and rubbery

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68
Q

Mestatic nodes feel ______

A

hard

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69
Q

______ and _____ nodes that increase in size over time are consistent with malignancy

A

Fixed, matted

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70
Q

Thyroid gland

A

Largest endocrine gland in the body. Butterfly shaped and envelops the upper trachea.

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71
Q

What does thyroid hormone do

A

promotes growth and maturation, carbohydrate metabolism, increases HR and cardiac outputs, involved with thermoregulations

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72
Q

You must make sure you are _____ to the SCM to feel the thyroid

A

medial

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73
Q

How to evaluate the thyroid gland

A

Have patient turn head to relax SCM, displace the larynx with thumb, palpate the thyroid with fingers of the fellow hand.

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74
Q

Normal thyroid feel

A

May not be felt

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75
Q

Goiter

A

spongy or soft. May hear a bruit

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76
Q

Cancer or scarring with thryoid

A

Hard

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77
Q

infections or hemorrhage with thryoid

A

tender

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78
Q

Additional tests if thyroid abnormal

A

Pulse rate, temperature, fine peripheral tumor, abnormal deep tendon reflex, weight change, exophthalmometry.

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79
Q

Indications for examination of throat or nose

A

epiphora, dry eye, ansomia (lack of smell), HA, diplopia, proptosis, pain behind or around eyes, occipital area, bitemporal area, conjunctivitis, immunological conditions (pemphigus, SLE, sjorgrens), infectious disorders (HIV, HSV, syphilis)

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80
Q

Turbinates

A

Filters air, increase area that humidifies air

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81
Q

Where is the opening of the lacrimal duct

A

below the inferior turbinate

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82
Q

Where does sinus drain

A

below the middle turbinate

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83
Q

Inspections of external structures of nose

A

Check for swelling, trauma, congenital abnormalities. Check for symmetry of nares. Check for patency of nares

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84
Q

What to evaluate on nose

A

Look at nasal septum (alignment, perforation, bleeding), nasal mucosa (color, swelling, discharge, masses, or trauma), inferior and middle turbinate (size, color, and presence of masses)

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85
Q

Examination of mouth

A

Look for normal color, symmetry, abnormal growths, or lesions

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86
Q

Inspecting the pharynx

A

Depress middle third of tongue while patient breaths and says ah, evaluate color, symmetry, growths. Evaluate for tonsil enlargement, inflammation, debris, or membranes.

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87
Q

Auricle (pinna)

A

The external ear

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88
Q

External auditory canal

A

Canal to TM. S shaped. About 2.5 cm long. Pull on helix to straighten. Outer 1/3 is cartilage and inner becomes bone and has sebaceous and ceruminous cells and hair.

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89
Q

Middle ear

A

Air filled cavity in temporal bone lined with living cells. TM is the external border. Contains the ossicles (males, incus, stapes). Closed system except connection to nasopharynx by eustachian tube.

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90
Q

How to pull ears in an adult

A

Back up out

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91
Q

How to pull ears in child

A

back down out

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92
Q

Inner ear

A

Cavity with vestibule, semicircle canals, and cochlear. Cochlea transmits sounds to CN VIII. Semiscircular canals involved with vestibular function

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93
Q

Conduction hearing loss

A

Airwaves cannot be transmitted in. Commonly caused by cerium impaction. Also occurs with perforation of TM, infection, or scaring

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94
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss

A

Often a result of trauma from noise insult or temporal bone injury. Also possible with tumor, metabolic disorders (thyroid and DM), medications (aspirin)

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95
Q

Otalgia

A

Ear pain. Most often from acute otis media. May also develop from referred pain from teeth, TMJ, pharynx, cervical pain, inflammation, etc.

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96
Q

Otorrhea

A

Discharge from the ear. Often from infections but blood marks trauma

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97
Q

Tinnitus

A

Ringing in the ears. Can occur due to inner ear disease such as Menier’es disease (also nystagmus), noise trauma, drugs (ASA, systemic amino glycosides)

98
Q

Menier’s disease

A

Tinnitus and nystagmus

99
Q

External examination of the ears

A

Look for deformation, nodules, lesions, signs of inflammation. Palpate for tenderness.

100
Q

Otoscopy of TM

A

Pearly gray appearance, light reflex in antero-inferior of TM (base at the chin), flat to concave with no bulging of the membrane.

101
Q

Menubrium

A

Long arm of malleus

102
Q

Pars plicata

A

Loose

103
Q

Pars tensa

A

tight

104
Q

Umbo

A

end of manubrium

105
Q

Fibrous annulus

A

where canal connects to TM

106
Q

Otis Externa

A

Swimmers ear. Itching in ear canal. Pain with tugging on pinna. Watery to pus discharge. Hearing loss possible with swelling.

107
Q

Acute Otis Media

A

Typically associated with infections. May have concurrent conjunctivitis. Often presents with fever. Deep seated earache. Conductive hearing loss. Buldging TM.

108
Q

Otis Media with Effusion

A

More common in adults with viral URI. Often asymptomatic but hearing loss common. Cracking sound when swallowing. Conductive hearing loss. Decongestants may be useful. Viral so no AB.

109
Q

Wax appearance

A

Golden–>darker

110
Q

Caloric Reflex Test (COWS testing)

A

Not typically done. Put cold in one ear and warm in another and if working will get nystagmus. Vomiting is common.

111
Q

Romberg test

A

Visual system, proprioceptive, and vestibular system of inner ear contribute to our ability to remain still and upright. Have patient stand for 30s. Negative romberg indicates the patient can stand for 30s.

112
Q

What result is normal for a romberg?

A

Negative

113
Q

Frontal lobe Evaluation

A

Appearance, Attention, Attitude, Behavior, Thought process

114
Q

Judgement

A

Ask patient what they would do with a postcard

115
Q

Orientation

A

Ask their name, where they are, and what time it is.

116
Q

Memory

A

Short term. Ask pt. to remember 3 things. have them repeat them back. 5 minutes later ask them again

117
Q

Affect

A

Judge person’s emotional state based on interview

118
Q

Concentration

A

Ask patient to count backward from 100 by 7 or 3 or spell the word world backwards

119
Q

Evaluation of motor function

A

Look at symmetry

120
Q

Muscle Strength

A

have the pt. push against you

121
Q

Muscle Tone

A

Slight residual tone in relaxed muscle. Ask patient to relx and you move the limb.

122
Q

Muscle spasticity

A

Increased tone resulting in resistance to stretching

123
Q

Muscle flaccidity

A

decreased tone (limpness)

124
Q

Sensory Function of pain, crude, temperature

A

Look at pain, crude, temperature. Look at ulnar, radial, median, lateral and medial plantar, and calcaneal

125
Q

Sensory Function transmit of pain, curde, temperature.

A

Fibers enter the spinal cord, synapse with secondary sensory neurons which then cross to the opposite side and travel up the lateral spinothalamic tract to the thalamus.

126
Q

If patient had a lesion on the right lateral spinothalamic tract at T-10 which foot would have loss of sensation?

A

Left foot

127
Q

Vibration Sense

A

One of the first things lost in diabetic neuropathy

128
Q

Where to test proprioception

A

Big and little toe and index and little finger

129
Q

Vibration sense, proprioception, fine touch sensory function transmission

A

Fibers enter the spinal cord, synapse with secondary sensory neurons, stay on the same side, travel up the posterior columns and cross at the medulla to the thalamus

130
Q

If patient had a posterior column lesion on the right side at T-10 which foot would you expect to have loss of vibration sense

A

Right foot

131
Q

What would you expect if a patient had peripheral neuropathy from DM

A

Bilateral loss.

132
Q

Deep Tendon Reflex

A

Check sensory motor pathway in spinal cord. Muscles must be relaxed.

133
Q

Biceps deep tendon reflex

A

C5, C6

134
Q

Triceps deep tendon reflex

A

C6, C7

135
Q

Patellar reflex

A

L2, L3, L4

136
Q

Achilles reflex

A

S1.

137
Q

Jendrassike Maneuvar

A

Can use to help with reflexes.

138
Q

Grading reflexes

A

0-non 1:sluggish 2: active or expected response 3: more brisk than expected, slightly hyperactive 4: Brisk, hyperactive, with intermittent or transient clonus.

139
Q

What causes Decreased reflexes

A

Lower motor lesions (in the two neuron reflex arc).

140
Q

Causes for decreased reflexes

A

Peripheral neuropathy (DM, alcoholism), nerve trauma, hypothyroidism, adies syndrome

141
Q

What causes increased reflexes

A

upper motor lesions (above spinal reflex arc)

142
Q

Causes for increased reflexes

A

brain and spinal cord injury, stroke, hyperthyroidism, MS

143
Q

Glabellar Reflex

A

Ask patient to attempt not to blink while gently tap centrally between eyebrows. May be loss in dementia

144
Q

Myerson Sign

A

When a patient with parkinson cannot stop blinking with glabellar

145
Q

Normal recording for glabellar reflex

A

negative

146
Q

Cerebellum

A

Aids motor cortex in integration of voluntary movement. Processes sensory information from eyes, ears, touch, musculoskeleton. Integrates information from vestibular system to help control posture, balance, gain, and muscle tone.

147
Q

Coordination of Cerebellum Accuracy

A

Have patient perform quickly. Finger to nose with eyes closed each side or have patient hit your finger

148
Q

Coordination of Cerebellum Rapid

A

Palm flips

149
Q

Cerebellum walking functions

A

Walk heel to toe. Exaggerate findings

150
Q

cerebellar gait

A

like drunk

151
Q

sensory ataxia

A

Loss in DM or MS. Wide based, patient watches ground, slaps feet down

152
Q

parkinson gait

A

Short, shuffling, hesitation on start and difficulty of stopping

153
Q

why to do a neurological exam

A

increased ability to dx correct dx, increased ability to refer, cost containment

154
Q

Indications for screening CN

A

HA, change in or loss of consciousness, dizziness, ataxia, VF loss, unexplained VA loss, dysphasia, TIA, change in personality, decreased cognition, weakness or numbness, pain, tremor, gait disorders, unexplained diplopia, nerve or muscle palsies, uveitis, DM

155
Q

Cranial Nerves

A

n. that branch from brain or brainstem

156
Q

CN I

A

Olfactory. Have patient close eyes. Occlude one nose and have ID smell.

157
Q

Causes for poor CN I function

A

rhinitis due to allergy, common cold, trauma to nose, trauma to frontal lobe, frontal lobe lesions, may be early signs of alzehimers

158
Q

CN V (motor portion)

A

Have patient clench jaw. Try to pull down. palpate muscle for even tone.

159
Q

CN V sensory

A

Opthlamic, Maxillary, Mandibular

160
Q

Opthalmic of CN V

A

upper lids, forhead, cornea, top of nose.

161
Q

Maxillary of CN V

A

lateral surface of nose, cheek area, lower lids

162
Q

Mandibular of CN V

A

Lower jaw, side of face

163
Q

Sensory evaluation of CN V

A

Touch, pain, crude.

164
Q

Cause of poor sensory function of CN V

A

HS, HZ, cavernous sinus lesion. Will have decreased sensation and strength on the side.

165
Q

VII Motor

A

Facial N. Have patient do what you do. Wrinkle, smile, frown, raise brows, purse lips. Test orbicularis by trying to hold shut.

166
Q

Do we test sensory function of facial n.

A

NO

167
Q

Poor CN VII

A

Paralysis and decreased muscle strength on the affected side. Common cause bell’s palsy and acoustic neuroma

168
Q

VIII

A

Controls hearing and equilibrium. Equilibrium tested by caloric test. Can use finger or running fork to compare hearing ability on each side.

169
Q

Weber Test

A

Tests by hearing by bond conduction. Place the base of the fork on top of the skull. Ask patient to vocalize the sound. Conduction loss: heard better on side with conduction loss Neurological loss: heard better on good side

170
Q

Rinne Test

A

Bone conduction should be equal. Air conduction should be better than bone conduction. Should be equal in the air. If bone conduction is not equal, nerve damage on shorter side.

171
Q

If air conduction > bone

A

Something blocking the sound waves. Cerumen, perforation in TM, fluid behind TM

172
Q

IX: glossopharyngeal and X: Vagus Sensory

A

Sensory and motor for both. Check gag reflex by touching posterior 3 of tongue, soft palate or posterior pharyngeal wall with a cotton swab.

173
Q

What to ask about with IX and X

A

Difficulty swallowing and change in voice.

174
Q

IX and X Motor

A

Use tongue blade and say ah. Look at elevation of soft palate. Expect symmetry. Uvula deviates toward normal side!

175
Q

What could cause lack of symmetry with uvula?

A

Deviates to normal side. Space occupying lesions, vertebral artery aneurysms

176
Q

XI

A

Accessory. Motor to SCM and trapezius. have patient turn upright head each direction against your hand. Have patient raise shoulders

177
Q

XII

A

hypoglosal. Motor to tongue. Ask pt to stick tongue out. Deviates to affected side. Also have pt. push tongue against your hand. Decreased strength on affected side.

178
Q

Diastole

A

No pulse. Ventricles relax and begin to fill. Atria contract complete filling

179
Q

Systole

A

Ventricles contract.

180
Q

S1

A

occurs during systole. M and T valves close. Ejects blood into aorta and pulmonary artery. Associated with pulse

181
Q

S2

A

Low ventricular pressure allows A and P valves to close. Dub.

182
Q

Signs for cardiac exam

A

chest pain from ischemia, irregular rhythm or rate, SOB, orthopnea, fatigue, edema, nocturia.

183
Q

Heart Auscultation

A

Listen over valvular areas of heart. Listen to aortic and mitral (left side of heart). Have pt. lean forward to hear better

184
Q

Aortic Asuclation

A

Outflow sound. 2nd intercostal side adjacent to sternum on the right side. 4 finger down from color bone and close to breast bone.

185
Q

Mitral Asuclation

A

5th intercostal space. 4 finger up from breast bone and five fingers over from breast bone. Not on rib.

186
Q

S3

A

Early diastole. Lub-dupa

187
Q

S4

A

Lat diastolic. ta-lup-dup. Always pathological

188
Q

S2 splitting

A

May be heart on deep inspiration of young patients

189
Q

Stenoses

A

Passage through leaflets is narrowed. Murmurs heard as blood rushes through the open valve. Aortic/pulmonic: systolic murmur. Mitral/Tricupsid: diastolic murmur.

190
Q

Regurgitation

A

Incomplete valve closure causes blood to fall backward. Mitral/Tricuspid: systolic murmur. Aortic/pulmonic: diastolic

191
Q

Most common cause of vascular disease

A

Atherosclerosis

192
Q

Symptoms of vascular disease

A

TIA (cerebrovascular dz), Angina pectoris (chest pain), Calf pain and weakness with walking, paresthesias, pallor (peripheral valve disease)

193
Q

5 P sign of vascular disease

A

Pain, Pallor, paresthsia), paralysis , pulseslessness.

194
Q

Auscultation of carotids

A

Listen for bruits in three spots on carotid. High on the neck. Hold breath

195
Q

When do you hear bruit on carotid due to stenosis

A

Heard from 50-90

196
Q

What may you hear with auscultation of carotid with young and thin

A

nothing or heart beat

197
Q

Palpation of carotid

A

One at a time after asuclation. Low.

198
Q

Dorsalis Pedis

A

Slightly lateral to highest cuneiform born. Dorsiflexion increases ease.

199
Q

Posterior tibial pulses

A

Posterior and slightly superior to medial malleous. Plantar flexion increases ease.

200
Q

Beta Blockers

A

Can cause bronchospasm. 8-13% decrease in lung function with topical timolol. Can be fatal in first 24 hours.

201
Q

ASA and Asprin

A

Can cause asthma attack

202
Q

Antihistamine

A

Can cause change in pulmonary secretions

203
Q

Narcotics

A

Decrease respiratory rate

204
Q

Asking about pulmonary dz

A

Coughing, SOB, Chest pain (more normally heart dz), use of oxygen, any lung problems (TB, Asthma, Allergies), Smoker, environment, exercise tolerance

205
Q

Observation of patient

A

See if breathing labored. Look if sit upright or tripod (emphysema). pursing lips, appearance of upper body.

206
Q

If just nail beads blue

A

heart problem

207
Q

If nail and lips blue

A

both lungs and heart

208
Q

Breathing with auscultation of lungs

A

have patient breath deep through mouth

209
Q

lower lung spot on posterior

A

pt finds bottom of breast and traces back

210
Q

middle lung spot on posterior

A

feel L of scapula and put in there. Have pt hung

211
Q

Top lung spot on posterior

A

Draw line from shoulders and lower

212
Q

Lower anterior lung spot

A

Breast and over

213
Q

Side anterior lung spot

A

Slide over from breast and below arm

214
Q

Middle anterior lung spot

A

Hand width up from breast and half over

215
Q

Top anterior lung spot

A

4 down color bone and midline

216
Q

Normal breath sounds on back

A

Bronchovesicular over main bronchi, vesicular. Heard with inspiration

217
Q

Rhonchi

A

Dry, low snore like. Due to partial obstruction. Often be secretions. Heard more on expiration. Can be cleared by cough

218
Q

Wheeze

A

Musical squeak or whistling. Due to air being forced. Heard on inspiration but louder on expiration

219
Q

Rub

A

Rubbing sound which can sound mechanical. Inflammation causes rubbing go pleural sac against chest wall. Inspiration and/or expiration

220
Q

Crackles (rales)

A

Bubbly, cracking noise, often discrete rather than continuous. Fine (high pitched) or course not cleared by cough. From filled spaces as can occur with pulmonary edema, CHF, pneumonia. Inspiration more common.

221
Q

Forced Expiratory Flow rate

A

NOT lung volume but force. Must stand. Record highest from 3.

222
Q

High FER

A

> expected

223
Q

Normal

A

80-expected

224
Q

Low

A
225
Q

When is FER reduced

A

Smoking, bronchitis, COPD, emphysema, asthma

226
Q

When to caution BB

A

When less than 80

227
Q

when no BB

A

when less than 50

228
Q

Standard precautions

A

Assume all patients have BB pathogens. Protect from all fluids except sweat. No mucous membranes and non-intact skins.

229
Q

Personal hygeine

A

no dry or cracking skin

230
Q

Sharps

A

needles, scaples, lancets, glass lids, tubes. Dispose whtn 3/4 full

231
Q

Biohazard

A

gloves, depressors, bandages, plastic thermometer covers, dispose of when 3/4 full

232
Q

When to do in office glaucometry

A

DM patient that don’t know HBA1c or last measurement. Any patient with any symptoms suggesting Dm.

233
Q

Systemic Symptoms of DM

A

increased thirst, increased urine, recent weight change

234
Q

Visual symptoms of DM

A

change in RE, retinal vascular changes, transient blurring

235
Q

Should you ever use the sampler

A

NO

236
Q

When to test with control solution

A

New strips, once a week, weird readings, drop glaucometer.

237
Q

Squeezing finger

A

Not to hard so you don’t get interstitial fluid

238
Q

What can lower blood sugar values

A

Dehydration

239
Q

What to do when get values suggesting DM

A

Send for plasma glucose

240
Q

When to refer

A

greater than 140

241
Q

plasma fasting glucose

A

126

Systemic Lab (3 decks)

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