MSTE PRO MAX Flashcards

1
Q

It include cost estimates for various parts of the project and are used to evaluate the acceptability of bids and the financial feasibility of the project.

A

Estimates

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2
Q

This refers to drawing, usually
accompanied by notes, of various aspects or
components of the design.

A

Plans

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3
Q

It provides the detailed requirements for the materials, equipment and workmanship
to be incorporated into the project.

A

Specifications

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4
Q

Reaction times vary widely. As a result, the usual practice is to use a single, rather conservative value. AASHTO suggests a value of ____ in its Policy on Geometric Design of
Highways and Streets.

A

2.5 sec

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5
Q

It refers to establishment of horizontal and vertical alignments and cross section, based on considerations such as operating characteristics of vehicles, design standards, and drainage.

A

Geometric Design

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6
Q

It is the distance required to see an object 0.15 m high on the roadway.

A

Stopping sight distance

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7
Q

It is the distance required to see an oncoming vehicle of a certain minimum size.

A

Passing sight distance

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8
Q

It is defined as the maximum safe speed that can be maintained over a specified section of highway when conditions are so favorable that the design features of the highway govern.

A

Design Speed

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9
Q

This is a drawing of the facility as it would look to an observer directly above it.

A

Plan View

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10
Q

This drawing has elevation as its vertical axis, and horizontal distance, as measured along the centerline of the facility, as its horizontal axis.

A

Profile

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11
Q

This view has elevation as its vertical axis and horizontal distance, measured perpendicular to the centerline, as its horizontal axis.

A

Geometric Cross Section

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12
Q

This applies to curved facilities, such as highways or railways, only. It consists of a graph with roadway or railway cross- slope versus horizontal distance.

A

Superelevation diagram

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13
Q

The primary consideration in the design of geometric cross sections for highways, runways, and taxiways is

A

drainage

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14
Q

The distance between the rails is what known as

A

standard gage

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15
Q

The calculation of the distance the line needs to traverse in order to gain a certain amount of

A

development

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16
Q

given a maximum grade, is known in railway practice as

A

elevation

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17
Q

Geometric design of transportation facilities must provide for the resolution of traffic conflicts. In general, these may be classified as

A

Merging conflicts - Conflicts occur when vehicles enter a traffic stream

Diverging conflicts - Conflicts occur when vehicles leave the traffic stream

Weaving conflicts - Conflicts occur when vehicles cross paths by first merging and then diverging

Crossing conflicts Conflicts occur when they cross paths directly

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18
Q

There are three basic ways of resolving crossing conflicts.

A

Time sharing solutions - involve assignment of the right-of-way to particular movements for particular times

Space-sharing solutions - convert crossing conflicts into weaving conflicts

Grade-separation solutions - eliminate the crossing conflict by placing the conflicting traffic at different elevations at their point of intersection

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19
Q

Freeway interchanges are classified primarily according to the way in which they handle left- turning traffic.

A

Diamond interchanges - employ diamond ramps, which connect to the cross road by means of an at- grade intersection.

Cloverleaf intersections - employ loop ramps, in which vehicles turn left by turning 270° to the right.

Direct interchanges - employ direct ramps, in which vehicles turn left by means of a left-turning ramp that is grade-separated as it crosses both traffic streams.

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20
Q

It is used to provide access to adjacent property.

A

Frontage roads

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21
Q

It is used to intercept traffic from local streets that do not cross the freeway.

A

Collector-distributor roads

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22
Q

Wherever the existing ground is above the constructed section, the construction is said to involve

A

cut or excavation

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23
Q

Wherever the existing ground is below the constructed section, the construction is said to involve

A

fill or embankment

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24
Q

The points at which the cut or fill slopes intersect the existing ground are referred to as

A

catch points

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25
Q

The points at which the cut or fill slopes intersect the nearly horizontal roadway surface are referred to as

A

hinge points

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26
Q

A graph of cumulative volume of earthwork versus distance in stations from the beginning of the job, in which cut is considered to be positive and fill negative.

A

Mass diagram

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27
Q

The product of a volume of material times the average distance it is hauled is referred to as

A

Haul

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28
Q

The longest distance material should ever be hauled is called the

A

limit of economic haul

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29
Q

It usually consists of asphalt or Portland cement Concrete.

A

Surface courses

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30
Q

They normally consist of aggregates such as gravel and crushed rock

A

Base courses

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31
Q

They are usually local aggregate materials. They may be consist of either unstabilized compacted

A

Subbases

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32
Q

The characteristics of the subgrade, subbase, and base layers may be expressed in terms of a

A

resilient modulus or a relative bearing capacity

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33
Q

A series of interconnected or interlaced cracks caused by fatigue failure of the asphalt concrete surface under repeated traffic loading.

A

Alligator cracking

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34
Q

Cracks forming large interconnected polygons, usually with sharp corners or angles. These cracks are generally caused by hardening and shrinkage of the asphalt and/or reflection cracking from underlying layers such as cement-treated base.

A

Block cracking

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35
Q

Cracks approximately at right angles to the pavement center- line. These may be caused by shrinkage or differential thermal stress of the asphalt concrete, or may be reflective cracks.

A

Transverse cracking

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36
Q

Cracks approximately parallel to the pavement centerline. These are caused by poorly constructed construction joints and shrinkage of the asphalt concrete surface, they may also be reflective cracks.

A

Longitudinal cracking

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37
Q

Wearing away of the pavement surface caused by the dislodging of aggregate particles and binder. This is usually a result of insufficient asphalt binder in the mix or stripping of asphalt from particles of aggregate.

A

Raveling

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38
Q

Progressive disintegration of the surface between the wheel paths caused by dripping of gasoline or oil from vehicles.

A

Drip track raveling

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39
Q

The exuding of bitumen onto the pavement surface, causing reduction in skid resistance.

A

Bleeding or flushing

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40
Q

Elevation differences between adjacent slabs at transverse joints.

A

Faulting

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41
Q

Local sagging in the pavement caused by differential settlement, consolidation, or movement of the underlying earth mass.

A

Settlement

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42
Q

Localized upward buckling and shattering of the slabs at transverse joints or cracks.

A

Blowups

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43
Q

The breakdown or disintegration of slab edges at joints or cracks, usually resulting in the loss of sound concrete and the progressive widening of the joint or crack.

A

Joint or crack spalling

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44
Q

Abnormal surface wear, usually resulting from poor-quality surface mortar or coarse aggregate.

A

Surface attrition or surface abrasion

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45
Q

Loss of the original surface texture due to traffic action.

A

Surface Polish

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46
Q

The overall track structure typically consists of

A

Subgrade ballast ties rails rail fastening

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47
Q

Used to fasten rails together longitudinally,

A

Joint bars

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48
Q

Steel bars used to maintain gage (that is, horizontal separation between the rails) at critical locations such as curves and switches.

A

Gage bars

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49
Q

Used to resist the longitudinal motion of rails relative to ties.

A

Rail anchors

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50
Q

When such motion takes place along a single linear facility such as a roadway or a railway, it can often be represented by a graph known as

A

Space-time diagram

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51
Q

It may be defined as the difference between the actual travel time on a given segment of a transportation system and some ideal travel time for that segment.

A

Delay

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52
Q

The difference between A(t) and D(t) represents aircraft that have arrived at the runway but have n begun (or completed) their takeoffs. These line aircraft waiting to be served is called a

A

queue

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53
Q

From queuing diagram, it is possible to determine a number of interesting things:

A

I. The number of customers in queue at any given time or queue length

II. The delay to each customer, assuming the order of service is the same as the order of arrival.

III. The summation of delay to all customers.

IV. Given the density of the queue, the physical length of the queue or the amount of space required for its storage

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54
Q

Queueing diagrams have several important properties:

A

I. The slope of D(t) is the departure rate; the slope of A(t) is the arrival rate.

II. The departure rate cannot exceed the service rate or capacity of the server. It may be less

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55
Q

It is nothing more than a column driven into the soil to support a structure by transferring building loads to a deeper and stronger layer of soil or rock

A

Pile

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56
Q

In highway construction, the process of cutting down high spots and filling in low spots of each roadway layer is called?

A

Balancing

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57
Q

Workers in an excavation be protected
from cave-ins by one of the following
methods:

A

-Sloping or benching of the sides of the excavation.
- Supporting the sides of the
excavation by shoring.
-Placing a shield between workers and the sides of the excavation.

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58
Q

________ is the process of densifying cohesionless soils by inserting a vibratory probe into the soil.

A

Vibroflotation

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59
Q

________ or placing additional weight on the soil surface, has long been used to densify cohesive soil.

A

Surcharging

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60
Q

It involves dropping a heavy weight from a crane onto the ground surface to achieve soil densification.

A

Dynamic Compaction

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61
Q

The process of giving natural soils enough abrasive resistance and shear
strength to accommodate traffic or design loads is called?

A

Ground Modification

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62
Q

Compactor production is based on the following data:

A

I. Number of paces required
II. Width compacted per pass
III. Compactor speed
IV. Compacted lift thickness
V. Job Efficiency

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63
Q

________ is an increase in soil density of a cohesive soil resulting from the expulsion of water from the soil’s void
spaces.

A

Consolidation

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64
Q

________ is the process of increasing the density of a soil by mechanically forcing the soil particles closer together, thereby expelling air from the
void spaces in the soil?

A

Compaction

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65
Q

The number of days final curing for a concrete cement pavement is done for:

A

14 days

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66
Q

Most important process to prepare concrete:

A

Batching

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67
Q

How do you test the relative consistency of concrete?

A

Slump test

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68
Q

Rule is the guidelines regarding
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE).

A

Rule 1080

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69
Q

A hazardous physical condition or circumstance which could directly permit the occurrence of an accident.

A

Unsafe Condition

70
Q

It is a violation of an accepted safe procedure which could permit the occurrence of an accident.

A

Unsafe Act

71
Q

This view has elevation as its vertical axis and horizontal distance, measured perpendicular to the centerline, as its horizontal axis.

A

Geometric Cross Section

72
Q

This applies to curved facilities, such as highways or railways only. It consists of a graph with a roadway or railway cross slope versus horizontal distance.

A

Super-elevation Diagram

73
Q

This drawing has elevation as its vertical axis and horizontal distance as measured along the centerline of the facility as its horizontal axis.

74
Q

It is advisable for a site plan to
contain a large-scale map of the overall area and to indicate where the project is located
on the site.

A

Vicinity Map

75
Q

The basic lane width appropriate for national road is _______.

76
Q

A mixture of cementitious materials and water, with or without aggregate, proportioned to produce a creamy consistency.

77
Q

This should be done during the first seven days in order that the expected development of strength will be obtained and
the occurrence of plastic cracks will be prevented or minimized.

78
Q

This represents the travel time required for a unit to haul material to the unloading
site and return

A

Variable time

79
Q

It represents those components of cycle time other than travel time.

A

Fixed time

80
Q

The bucket capacity when the load is struck off flush with the bucket sides.

A

Struck capacity

81
Q

Assumes a level of material flush with the lowest edge of the bucket.

A

. Water line capacity

82
Q

The bucket volume contained within the bucket when following the outline of the
bucket sides is called:

A

Plate line capacity

83
Q

It is a very versatile machine that has the longest reach for digging and dumping of
any member of the crane shovel family.

84
Q

It is capable of spreading,
consolidating, and finishing a concrete slab without the use of conventional forms.

A

slipform paver

85
Q

Complete or partial dismantling of a building or structure by pre-planned and controlled methods or procedures.

A

Demolition

86
Q

It is the process where a load is
prepared for lifting using a lifting machine. The main part of this process is the tying up of the load with sling and other
connecting devices so that the load could be hooked onto a crane.

87
Q

What are the capacity requirement for all scaffoldings?

A

At least 4 times its own weight

88
Q

Any temporary elevated platform used for supporting employees or materials or both in the course of any construction works.

89
Q

According to NSCP, the slope of fill surfaces shall be no steeper than:

90
Q

According to NSCP, the slope of cut surfaces shall be no steeper than:

91
Q

What is the accepted normal limit of peripheral vision?

92
Q

In competitive bidding, when the bids are all opened, the owner will normally award the contract to the lowest _______.

93
Q

Which of the following duties normally NOT be a responsibility of the estimating
department within a general

contractor’s organization?
A. obtaining bid documents
B. securing subcontractor/material
quotations
C. project cost accounting
D. delivering competitive or negotiated proposals

A

C. project cost accounting

94
Q

Which of the following is NOT an objective for traffic barriers?

A. Increasing capacity
B. Separating opposing flow
C. Channeling various modes of traffic flow
D. Work zone safety

A

A. Increasing capacity

95
Q

It is a type of thermoplastic lane
marking designed to aid and provide motorist with visual, audio, and warning on the road.

A

Rumble strips

96
Q

Joints placed in concrete pavements at right angles to the center line of the pavement is called:

A

Transverse Joint

97
Q

Joints placed in concrete pavements, which are usually placed transversely across
the pavement width to provide suitable transition between concrete placed at different times or on different days.

A

Construction Joint

98
Q

Joints placed in concrete pavements, which are usually placed transversely regular intervals across the width of the
pavement to release some of the tensile stresses that are due to a decrease in temperature.

A

Contraction Joint

99
Q

Joints placed in concrete pavements, which are usually placed transversely, at regular intervals, to provide adequate
expansion space for the slab to expand when the pavement is subjected to an increase in temperature

A

Expansion Joint

100
Q

Headways such that the vehicles are just filled at the maximum load point on the route.
A. Policy Headway
B. Space Headway
C. Time Headway
D. Capacity Headway

A

D. Capacity Headway

101
Q

The time spent in decelerating and accelerating the vehicle in opening and closing doors.
A. Clearance Time
B. Dwell Time
C. Influence Time
D. Bebe Time

A

A. Clearance Time

102
Q

It is the difference between the
actual travel time and a given segment of a transportation system and some ideal travel time for that segment.
A. Queue Time
B. Travel Time
C. Delay
D. Service Time

103
Q

There are three basic ways of
resolving crossing conflicts.
I. Time sharing solutions
II. Space sharing solutions
III. Grade separation solutions
IV. Crossing conflict solutions
A. I-III only
B. II and III only
C. II only
D. All of the above

A

A. I-III only

104
Q

The simplest rail capacity problem is that involving rail rapid transit systems. These usually have the following characteristics:
I. One-way operation
II. A common speed profile for all trains. That is, each train traverses each section of track at the same speed as all other trains; consequently, trains do not overtake or pass one another.
III. Common station dwell times. That is, each train spends the same amount of time stopped at each station as all
other trains; dwell times may vary from station to station
IV. A fixed minimum front-to-back time gap between trains.
A. I-III
B.II and IV only
C. III only
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

105
Q

The time required for one complete sequence of signal indication is called ____.
A. indication
B. phase
C. frequency
D. cycle

106
Q

The red, yellow, or green light that is displayed to driven in a given movement is called an:
A. indication
B. through band
C. cycle
D. band width

A

A. indication

107
Q

The time difference between the beginning and end of through band at any point is known as:
A. indication
B. through band
C. cycle
D. band width

A

D. band width

108
Q

The speed at which vehicles are
presumed to travel through
coordinated signal system is known as:
A. Speed of progression
B. Signal Coordination
C. Offset of the cycle
D. Band

A

A. Speed of progression

109
Q

It is the timing of signals in
relationship to one another so that vehicles travelling at a
predetermined speed can pass through the greens of successive signals.
A. Speed of progression
B. Signal Coordination
C. Offset of the cycle
D. Band

A

B. Signal Coordination

110
Q

Construction workers who are working from unguarded surfaced _________ or more
above grade, temporary or permanent floor platform, scaffold or where they are exposed to the possibility of falls hazardous to life or limb, must be provided with safety
harnesses and lifelines.
A. 3 meters
B. 4 meters
C. 5 meters
D. 6 meters

A

D. 6 meters

111
Q

Every construction project shall have a
suitable _________________, which must be in accordance with these rules, and other orders and issuances issued by the
Department of Labor and Employment.
A. Occupation Health and Safety Program
B. Construction Safety and Health Program
C. Workplace Safety and Procedures
D. Basic Occupational Safety and Health

A

B. Construction Safety and Health Program

112
Q

This refers to a method of protecting employees from cave-ins, from material that
could fall or roll from an excavation face or into an excavation, and from the collapse
of adjacent structures.
A. Protective System
B. Personnel Protective System
C. Fall arrest Sytem
D. Support System

A

A. Protective System

113
Q

This refers to structures such as
underpinning, bracing, and shoring that provide support to an adjacent structure or
underground installation or to the sides of an excavation or trench.
A. Protective System
B. Personnel Protective System
C. Fall arrest Sytem
D. Support System

A

D. Support System

114
Q

It is defined as the fraction of time that vehicles are present at a point in space.
A. Occupancy
B. Time Gaps
C. Headways
D. Time points

A

A. Occupancy

115
Q

It is the maximum number of vehicles, passengers, or the like, which can be accommodated by a given facility or system under given conditions at a given level of service.
A. Capacity
B. Service Volume
C. Flow
D. Density

A

B. Service Volume

116
Q

The points at which the cut or fill slopes intersect the existing ground are referred to as _______.
A. Side hill Points
B. Centerline Points
C. Catch Points
D. Hinge Points

A

C. Catch Points

117
Q

A comprehensive list of parts, items, assemblies, subassemblies, intermediate
assemblies, documents, drawings, and other materials required to create a product.
A. Estimates
B. Bill of Materials
C. Bill of Quantities
D. Project Contract

A

B. Bill of Materials

118
Q

A list of materials and services required to perform a project. The list includes materials, labor, and quantities of each.
A. Estimates
B. Bill of Materials
C. Bill of Quantities
D. Project Contract

A

C. Bill of Quantities

119
Q

The amount by which the outer edge of a curve or a railroad is banked above the inner edge to help offset the centripetal force
developed as the vehicle goes around a curve.
A. Superelevation
B. Kerb
C. Grade
D. Slope

A

A. Superelevation

120
Q

The maximum distance that the contractor is expected to transport soil material without receiving additional payment?
A. Freehaul Distance
B. Overhaul Distance
C. Haul Distance
D. Baseline Distance

A

A. Freehaul Distance

121
Q

The maximum time that an activity can be delayed without causing the project to fall
behind schedule.
A. Critical Path
B. Float time (Slack time)
C. Earliest start time
D. Latest start time

A

B. Float time (Slack time)

122
Q

This connects all of a project’s
activities that have a minimum of zero slack time. It is the longest direct path through
the network.
A. Critical Path
B. Float time (Slack time)
C. Earliest start time
D. Latest start time

A

A. Critical Path

123
Q

Progressive disintegration of the surface between the wheel paths caused by
dripping of gasoline or oil from vehicles.
A. Spalling
B. Flushing
C. Bleeding
D. Drip Track Raveling

A

D. Drip Track Raveling

124
Q

The extruding of bitumen onto the pavement surface, causing a reduction in skid resistance. It is generally caused by excessive amounts of asphalt in the mix or low air voids content. It occurs when asphalt fills the voids in the mix during hot weather and then exudes out onto the surface of the pavement.
A. Spalling
B. Raveling
C. Bleeding or Flushing
D. Abrasion

A

C. Bleeding or Flushing

125
Q

Elevation differences between adjacent slabs at transverse joints. It is usually the result of pumping and is a major source
of Portland Concrete pavement structure.
A. Spalling
B. Faulting
C. Bleeding
D. Raveling

A

B. Faulting

126
Q

Localized upward buckling and shattering of the slabs at transverse joint or cracks. They can occur when transverse joints are filled with incompressible solid materials.
A. Blowups
B. Raveling
C. Spalling
D. Faulting

A

A. Blowups

127
Q

A series of interconnected or interlaced cracks caused by fatigue failure of the asphalt concrete surface under repeated traffic loading.
A. Alligator Cracking
B. Block Cracking
C. Transverse Cracking
D. Longitudinal Cracking

A

A. Alligator Cracking

128
Q

Cracks forming large interconnected polygons, usually with sharp corners or
angle. These cracks are generally caused by hardening and shrinkage of the asphalt and or reflection cracking from underlying layers such as cement-treated base.
A. Alligator Cracking
B. Block Cracking
C. Transverse Cracking
D. Longitudinal Cracking

A

B. Block Cracking

129
Q

Generally, the dry materials used in making quality concrete are heavier than water. Thus, shortly after placement, they
have a tendency to settle to the bottom and displace the mixing water to the surface, which is called _____.
A. Bleeding
B. Troweling
C. Screeding
D. Floating

A

A. Bleeding

130
Q

The surface of newly placed concrete is struck off by moving a straightedge back and
forth with a saw-like motion across the top of the forms.
A. Bleeding
B. Troweling
C. Screeding
D. Floating

A

C. Screeding

131
Q

The bringing of a concrete surface to true grade with enough mortar to produce the
desired finish.
A. Placing
B. Leveling
C. Screeding
D. Troweling

A

B. Leveling

132
Q

Immediately following or during edging, pre-molded inserts are placed in concrete slabs to control cracking in the concrete as a result of shrinkage.
A. Placing
B. Leveling
C. Troweling
D. Jointing

A

D. Jointing

133
Q

When a path traveled along the road surface is more than the circumferential movement of the tires due to rotation, what
is the resulting motion of the tires?
A. Slipping
B. Turning
C. Skidding
D. Revolving

A

C. Skidding

134
Q

This occurs when the wheel revolves more than the corresponding longitudinal movement along the road.
A. Slipping
B. Turning
C. Skidding
D. Revolving

A

A. Slipping

135
Q

It is the cross slope provided to raise middle of the road surface in the transverse direction to drain off rain water from road
surface.
A. Camber
B. Kerb
C. Superelevation
D. Gradient

136
Q

It is the dividing line between
carriageway and footpath.
A. Camber
B. Kerb
C. Sidewalk
D. Shoulder

137
Q

Which of the following standard abbreviation of signs is not correct?
A. EX for expressway
B. HWY for highway
C. RD for road
D. AVE for avenue

A

A. EX for expressway

138
Q

Traffic instruction sign should not carry long messages and where possible no more than
___ lines of messages should be used.
A. 6
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

139
Q

Small devices which are fixed to the concrete pavement surface to stimulate or supplement
painted pavement markings
A. Raised pavement markings
B. Zebra
C. Rumble strips
D. Chevron markings

A

A. Raised pavement markings

140
Q

Distance traveled by the vehicle after the application of the brakes until it stop.
A. braking distance
B. lag distance
C. reaction distance
D. stopping distance

A

A. braking distance

141
Q

The structure that protects the harbor from stormy waves and permits calm in the harbor.
A. Dock
B. Wharf
C. Breakwater
D. Jetty

A

C. Breakwater

142
Q

A solid structure, which projects into the sea perpendicular to the shore to berth
vessels is called:
A. Dock
B. Wharf
C. Breakwater
D. Jetty

143
Q

A platform built in the harbor parallel to the shore and backed up by the ground is
called:
A. Dock
B. Wharf
C. Quay
D. Jetty

144
Q

A sheltered place where the ship may receive or discharge cargo. It includes the harbor
with its approach channels and anchorage places.
A. Port
B. Harbor
C. Basin
D. Quay

145
Q

The driver identifies the object and thus understand the stimulus.
A. emotion
B. reaction or volition
C. identification
D. perception

A

C. identification

146
Q

The driver decides what action to take in response to the stimulus.
A. emotion
B. reaction or volition
C. identification
D. perception

A

A. emotion

147
Q

A landing place or platform built parallel to the shore for the berthing of vessels.
A. wharf
B. breakwater
C. jetty
D. pier

148
Q

A platform extending from a shore over water and supported by piles, used to secure, protect, and provide access to ships or boats.
A. wharf
B. quay
C. breakwater
D. pier

149
Q

The correction for the atmospheric refraction is equal to:
A. 1/7 of the correction for curvature of the earth
B. 1/4 of the correction for curvature of the earth
C. 3/4 of the correction for curvature of the earth
D. 6/7 of the correction for curvature of the earth

A

A. 1/7 of the correction for curvature of the earth

150
Q

What is the maximum number of words permitted for a word message on road surface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

151
Q

When an embankment is built, the volume of the compacted earth is generally less than
its volume before excavation from its original location. The difference is usually defined
as:
A. subsidence
B. shrinkage
C. waste
D. borrow

A

B. shrinkage

152
Q

Based on the expression of the technical resolution of the International Water Way
Congress, about how many percent of tide is guaranteed safe for the ships?
A. 98%
B. 75%
C. 95%
D. 80%

153
Q

Which of the following is important to avoid bias in surveying?
A. Taking care to choose individuals who you feel are representative of the population in terms of as many characteristics as you can list.
B. Picking a sampling method in which every possible combination of people has the same chance of being selected.
C. Making sure that every individual in the population of interest is invited to respond.
D. Sending out a large number of surveys so that even if the response rate is low, you
will have sufficient number of responses to do statistical analysis.

A

A. Taking care to choose individuals who you feel are representative of the population in terms of as many characteristics as you can list.

154
Q

Arrange the following in chronological order:
I. Broom Finishing
II. Screeding
III. Bleeding
IV. Leveling
V. Jointing
VI. Edging
VII. Floating
VIII. Troweling
A. I,II,III,IV,V,VI,VII,VIII
B. III,II,IV,VI,V,VII,VIII,I
C. VIII, VII,VI,V,IV,III,II,I
D. II,IV,V,VIII,I,III,VI,VII

A

B. III,II,IV,VI,V,VII,VIII,I

155
Q

Is done on slabs that are to be left exposed or to receive thin finishes, such as resilient flooring, carpet, tile or paint
A. Floating
B. Screeding
C. Finishing
D. Troweling

A

D. Troweling

156
Q

The surface of newly placed concrete is struck off by moving a straightedge back and forth with a sawlike motion across the top of the forms and screeds.
A. Floating
B. Screeding
C. Leveling
D. Troweling

A

B. Screeding

157
Q

Bringing of a concrete surface to true grade with enough mortar to produce the desired finish.
A. Floating
B. Screeding
C. Leveling
D. Troweling

A

C. Leveling

158
Q

Appearance of powdery material on the surface of newly hardened concrete slab.
A. Scaling
B. Crazing
C. Dusting
D. Spalling

A

C. Dusting

159
Q

It is the occurrence of numerous fine hair cracks in the surface of a newly hardened slab to surface shrinkage.
A. Scaling
B. Crazing
C. Dusting
D. Spalling

A

B. Crazing

160
Q

It is the breaking away of hardened concrete surface of a slab to a depth of about 1.6 to 4.8 mm. It is usually
occurs at an early age of slab.
A. Scaling
B. Crazing
C. Dusting
D. Spalling

A

A. Scaling

161
Q

The process of bringing each roadway layer to its final grade
A. Ground Modification
B. Trimming
C. Grading
D. Earthworks

A

B. Trimming

162
Q

The PERT/Cost control report
I. Requires a budget for each
activity
II. Requires a report on the
percentage of completion of each activity
III. Calculate overruns
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

163
Q

The PERT/COST model assumes that
I. Each activity achieves its
optimistic time
II. The costs are uniformly
distributed over the life of the
activity
III. Activity times are statistically
independent.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. None of the above

A

B. II only

164
Q

Fundamental ideas in the LP network models are activity time equals normal time + crash time
I. Earliest start time for an
activity leaving a node equals
the Max of the earliest finish
times for activities leaving
that node
II. Earliest finish time equals
latest finish time minus
activity time.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

165
Q

The marginal cost of crashing a
network could change when:
A. The activity being crashed
reaches its crash time
B. The activity being crashed
reaches a point where another path
is also critical
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

A

C. Both a and b

166
Q

The CPM time-cost trade off function
A. The cost normal time is 0
B. Within the range of feasible
times, the activity cost
increases linearly as time
increases.
C. Cost decreases linearly as time increases
D. None of the above

A

C. Cost decreases linearly as time increases

167
Q

The calculation of the probability that the critical path will be completed by time T
I. Assumes that activity times are statistically independent.
II. Assumes that total time of the critical path has approximately a beta distribution
III. Requires knowledge of the
standard deviation for all
activities in the network
A. II only
B. I only
C. II only
D. All of the above

168
Q

Estimates expected activity times in a PERT network.
I. Make use of three estimates
II. Puts the greatest weight on the most likely time estimate
III. Is motivated by the beta
distribution
A. III only
B. I only
C. II only
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

169
Q

It is the basic unit of travel
behavior. It also involves movement from a single origin to a single destination and are described in terms of origins, destinations, purposes,
time of occurrence, travel modes and routes.
A. Trip
B. Choice
C. Modality
D. Mode