MSRA pt 5 Flashcards

1
Q

When should a new-born examination be carried out?

A

Carry out a complete examination of the baby within 72 hours of the birth and at 6 to 8 weeks after the birth

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2
Q

What is failure to thrive?

A

Failure to thrive is best described as failure to advance along a centile on a growth chart. Thus, a child whose weight is on the 3rd centile, and always has been, is not failing to thrive, whereas the child who is now on the 3rd centile, after having been on the 50th, is failing to thrive.

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3
Q

What is the significance of neonatal pale stool?

A

Acholic stools in the neonatal period are pale, clay coloured, and are an important indicator of an obstructed biliary tree. The most important aetiology of this is biliary atresia, in that early intervention can improve prognosis, but acholic stools may result from a variety of other causes of neonatal liver dysfunction.

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4
Q

List the pathological causes of neonatal jaundice

A

Blood group incompatibility (most commonly Rhesus or ABO incompatibility).
Other causes of haemolysis.
Sepsis.
Bruising.
Metabolic disorders (for example galactosaemia, hereditary fructose intolerance, alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, hypothyroidism).
Gilbert’s syndrome and Crigler-Najjar syndrome — rare causes of neonatal jaundice that are caused by liver enzyme problems. For more information, see the CKS topic on Gilbert’s syndrome.
Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase deficiency — a familial enzyme deficiency more common in Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, South East Asian, and African populations.
Congenital obstruction and malformations of the biliary system, such as biliary atresia — cause obstructive jaundice with conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.

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5
Q

When do you urgently refer neonatal jaundice?

A

If there is jaundice with features of bilirubin encephalopathy (for example atypical sleepiness, poor feeding, irritability, vomiting, hypotonia followed by hypertonia).
If jaundice first appears at less than 24 hours of age.
Jaundice first appears at more than 7 days of age.
The neonate is unwell (for example, lethargy, fever, vomiting, irritability).
Gestational age is of less than 35 weeks.
Prolonged jaundice is suspected — that is a gestational age of less than 37 weeks with more than 21 days of jaundice; or a gestational age of 37 weeks or more with more than 14 days of jaundice.
There are feeding problems and/or concerns about weight, particularly in breastfed infants.
Pale stools and dark urine are noted.

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6
Q

What does an absent moro reflex signify?

A

An absent moro reflex at birth implies brain dysfunction. Persistence of a moro reflex suggests a brain lesion.

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7
Q

Are B symptoms a good or bad marker of lymphoma?

A

Bad
fever
drenching night sweats
weight loss:
more than 10% of body mass in previous 6 months

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8
Q

If in doubt of transient synovitis what do you do and why?

A

It is a diagnosis of exclusion, refer to hospital if suspicious

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9
Q

How do you diagnose Cow’s milk protein allergy

A

Diagnosis is often clinical (e.g. improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination). Investigations include:
skin prick/patch testing
total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein

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10
Q

How do you manage cow protein milk allergy in infants

A

continue breastfeeding
eliminate cow’s milk protein from maternal diet. Consider prescribing calcium supplements for breastfeeding mothers whose babies have, or are suspected to have, CMPI, to prevent deficiency whilst they exclude dairy from their diet
use eHF milk when breastfeeding stops, until 12 months of age and at least for 6 months

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11
Q

What are the 5 specific causes for duputyns contracture in addition to idiopathic causes.

A

manual labour
phenytoin treatment
alcoholic liver disease
diabetes mellitus
trauma to the hand

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12
Q

When do you use the CHA2DS2-VASc score?

A

use the CHA2DS2-VASc stroke risk score to assess stroke risk in people with any of the following:
symptomatic or asymptomatic paroxysmal, persistent or permanent atrial fibrillation
atrial flutter
a continuing risk of arrhythmia recurrence after cardioversion back to sinus rhythm

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13
Q

What is the CHA2DS2-VASc score and what are it parameters?

A

Congestive Heart Failure 1
Hypertension 1
Age >75 years 2
Age between 65 and 74 years 1
Stroke/TIA/TE 2

Vascular disease (previous MI, peripheral arterial disease or aortic plaque) 1
Diabetes mellitus 1
Female 1

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14
Q

When would you refer suspected ankylosing spondyloarthritis?

A

if a person has low back pain that started before the age of 45 years and has lasted for longer than 3 months, refer the person to a rheumatologist for a spondyloarthritis assessment if 4 or more of the following additional criteria are also present:
low back pain that started before the age of 35 years (this further increases the likelihood that back pain is due to spondyloarthritis compared with low back pain that started between 35 and 44 years)
waking during the second half of the night because of symptoms
buttock pain
improvement with movement
improvement within 48 hours of taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
a first-degree relative with spondyloarthritis
current or past arthritis
current or past enthesitis
current or past psoriasis.

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15
Q

When would you test for HLA-B27 in suspected ankylosing spondyloarthritis

A

If exactly 3 of the additional criteria are present, perform an HLA-B27 test.

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16
Q

What are the SE of NRT?

A

nausea & vomiting, headaches and flu-like symptoms

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17
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of haemachromatosis and what is the management and monitoring of the condition

A

Haemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disorder of iron absorption and metabolism resulting in iron accumulation. Monitoring the response Is with ferritin and transferrin saturation.
Venesection is the first-line treatment
monitoring adequacy of venesection: transferrin saturation should be kept below 50% and the serum ferritin concentration below 50 ug/l
desferrioxamine may be used second-line

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18
Q

What are the features of lichen planus?

A

Lichen plants- automimmune MHC I mediated
Purple, planar, pruritic, papule >5cm, plaque <5cm, polygonal - contains white reticular called wicked striae

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19
Q

What is the test used to investigate hyperaldosteronism and what is a positive result

A

plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is the first-line investigation in suspected primary hyperaldosteronism
should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels (negative feedback due to sodium retention from aldosterone)

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20
Q

What are the features of mania and how is it managed?

A

Lasts for at least 7 days - Causes severe functional impairment in social and work setting
May require hospitalization due to risk of harm to self or others
May present with psychotic symptoms
Insight is often lost and for this reason manic patients represent a significant proportion of compulsory admissions to hospital.

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21
Q

What is the characterisation of hypomania?

A

Hypomania, as defined by DSM-IV, is characterised by milder elevation of mood and overactivity (lasting at least 4 days) without psychotic features or significant functional impairment.

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22
Q

What are the features of SUFE

A

Features
knee or distal thigh pain is common
loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion

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23
Q

Does perthes disease present in childhood or adolescence?

A

Childhood

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24
Q

How is gestational HTN managed?

A

Gestational HTN
Admit if BP over 160/110
Treat BP if over 140/90
Aim for a BP Under 135/85
Measure BP and urine for protein every 2weeks
Measure FBC for platelets, LFT for hepatitis and U&E for renal function weekly
Foetal heart auscultation and foetal US assessment every 2-4 weeks

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25
What is the anti-HTN choices for gestational HTN?
oral labetalol is the first line treatment of choice only offer women with gestational hypertension antihypertensive treatment other than labetalol after considering side-effect profiles for the woman, fetus and newborn baby. Alternatives include methyldopa and nifedipine
26
What is the criteria for a diagnosis of pre-eclampsia?
new onset of hypertension (over 140 mmHg systolic or over 90 mmHg diastolic) after 20 weeks of pregnancy and the coexistence of 1 or more of the following new-onset conditions: proteinuria (urine protein:creatinine ratio of 30mg/mmol or more or albumin:creatinine ratio of 8mg/mmol or more, or at least 1 g/litre [2+] on dipstick testing) or other maternal organ dysfunction: renal insufficiency (creatinine 90 micromol/litre or more, 1.02 mg/100 ml or more) liver involvement (elevated transaminases [alanine aminotransferase or aspartate aminotransferase over 40 IU/litre] with or without right upper quadrant or epigastric abdominal pain) neurological complications such as eclampsia, altered mental status, blindness, stroke, clonus, severe headaches or persistent visual scotomata haematological complications such as thrombocytopenia (platelet count below 150,000/microlitre), disseminated intravascular coagulation or haemolysis uteroplacental dysfunction such as fetal growth restriction, abnormal umbilical artery doppler waveform analysis, or stillbirth
27
When do women at high risk for pre-eclampsia start aspirin and what are the 5 high risk factors?
Advise pregnant women at high risk of pre-eclampsia to take 75-150 mg of aspirin [*] daily from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. hypertensive disease during a previous pregnancy chronic kidney disease autoimmune disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus or antiphospholipid syndrome type 1 or type 2 diabetes chronic hypertension
28
what are the 6 moderate risk factors for pre-eclampsia and when would you give aspirin?
2 or more first pregnancy age 40 years or older pregnancy interval of more than 10 years body mass index (BMI) of 35 kg/m2 or more at first visit family history of pre-eclampsia multi-fetal pregnancy
29
When do you admit pre-eclampsia?
Pre-eclampsia Admit if sys BP over 160 or Rise in Cr greater than 90 ALT is 70 or greater than twice the upper limit PLT less than 15 Signs of impending eclampsia Signs of impending pulmonary oedema Signs of severe pre-eclampsia Foetal compromise
30
What do you do if urine dip comes back 1+ or more send urine for pregnancy?
Proteinuria and pregnancy If urine dip comes back 1+ or more send urine for A:Cr or P:Cr ratios A P:Cr is 30 or more that is significant A A:Cr of 8 or more is significant If below then repeat
31
How do you manage pre-eclampsia?
Manage BP as normal Feotal US every 2weeks BP check every 2days Plan for an early birth if: BP not controlled on 3 agents Worsening liver function, renal function, haemolysis, plt count dropping Neurological Signs Abruption reversed end-diastolic flow in the umbilical artery If Under 34 weeks give Mg Sulphate And Steroids If 34-36 weeks consider Risk factors and consider steroids If 37 weeks plan for birth for in 48hrs
32
What is the treatment for eclampsia (seizure in pre-eclampsia) or severe pre-eclampsia
MG sulphate
33
If a pregnant patient has any of the following below what do you suspect? ongoing or recurring severe headaches visual scotomata nausea or vomiting epigastric pain oliguria and severe hypertension progressive deterioration in laboratory blood tests (such as rising creatinine or liver transaminases, or falling platelet count).
Eclampsia
34
What treatment do you give pregnant women with a HSV infection?
HSV in pregnancy need aciclovir till delivery and C section to prevent neonatal HSV
35
How many days does a child with Mumps need excluding from school for?
5days from the onset of swollen glands
36
What are small umbilical hernias at birth and how are they managed?
Small umbilical hernias are common in babies and tend to resolve by 12 months of age. Parents should be reassured no treatment is usually required but to be aware of the signs of obstruction or strangulation such as vomiting, pain and being unable to push the hernia in - this is rare in infants. Advise the parents to present the child at around 2 years of age if the hernia is still present to arrange referral to a surgeon.
37
What is the treatment and course of treatment for mild to moderate acne?
A combination of cream for 12weeks (retinoid and a either benzoperoxide or clindamycin
38
CREST - is a localised form of systemic sclerosis associated with a better prognosis. It comprises:
Calcinosis - palpable nodules in the hands due to calcific deposits in the subcutaneous tissue Raynaud's phenomenon - ischaemia resulting in atrophy of the finger pulps oEsophageal dysmotility - if absent, then CRST syndrome Sclerodactyly - tightening of the skin of the fingers resulting in tapering Telangiectasia - multiple, large and on the fingers
39
What is the anti-plt treatment for an ischaemic stroke?
Aspirin 300 mg daily for 2 weeks should be given immediately after an ischaemic stroke is confirmed by brain imaging. Following this, clopidogrel 75 mg daily should be given long-term -if it can be tolerated and is not contraindicated.
40
What blood levels rise id medullary thyroid cancer?
Medullary thyroid cancer will cause a rise in calcitonin levels. 
41
What is the treatment for PMS?
COCP
42
What is the commonest form of a stroke and how does it present?
Lacunar infarct Hemiparesis and hemisensory loss are common findings. A risk factor is hypertension. The patient would report a change in temperature sensation, touch and taste, as well as a sign of ataxia. 
43
What is the commonest extra-intestinal manifestation of Crohn's disease?
Arthritis
44
Which bacteria causes Pseudomembranous colitis
Clostridioides difficile infection
45
What is bile salt malabsorption and when is it seen?
Bile salt malabsorption is a cause for water diarrhoea accompanied with bloating, steaotorrhoea and is seen in those with ileal disease or ilease resection
46
What are the effects of poor bowel function and COCP function.
The efficacy of oral contraception may be reduced in women with malabsorption, small bowel disease, or a history of small bowel resection. Oral methods are unaffected by colectomy and ileostomy.
47
When should statins be stopped before conception?
Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects
48
What is dactylitis a presentation of?
Sickle cell, reactive arthritis and psoriasis arthritis
49
When is chicken pox prophylaxis given in pregnant women?
7-14 days, check immunity first.
50
How is Hashimoto's thyroiditis diagnosed and what are its progressive features?
Hashimoto's thyroiditis initially will present with elevated TSH and normal T4. As Hashimoto's progresses and results in hypothyroidism, both TSH levels will be high and free T4 levels will be low, reflecting an underactive thyroid gland. Anti-thyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO) antibodies are usually present in Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which helps distinguish it from other forms of thyroiditis.
51
What is dequervians thyroiditis?
Subacute thyroiditis (De Quervian's thyroiditis) is the post viral infection inflammation of the thyroid gland. It will initially present as an acute hyperthyroid phasewith a tender goitre and a raised ESR and progress to euthyroid and then hypthyroid state many weeks later
52
What is the treatment for dequervian's thyroiditis?
NSAIDs
53
What are all the causes for hypothyroidism
Other causes for hypothyroidism are: Hashimotos thyroiditis, Iodine deficiency, Lithium, Postpartum thyroiditis, de Quervain's, Amiodarone
54
What are the CI for HRT
CI for HRT are current or past breast cancer, oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosied vaginal bleeding, untreased endometrial hyperplasia
55
Do pleural plaques require any surveillance?
No, they are not pre malginant
56
What causes hand foot and mouth disease and how long does it last for?
Hand foot and mouth disease is caused by coxsackie A virus - tender macules with a vesicular rash. Fades away after 4days
57
What is the suggested treatment for premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Nice guidelines suggests SSRI for premenstrual dysphoric disorder symptoms
58
When is anti D given in rhesus -ve mothers?
NICE (2008) advise giving anti-D to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks
59
Can you give triptans with an SSIR?
Triptans should be avoided in patients taking a SSRI
60
What is the treatment for actinic keratosis?
Fluorouracil is cytotoxic antimetabolite for the actinic keratosis
61
What do you give to treat Campylobacter diarrhoea
Campylobacter infection is often self-limiting but if severe then treatment with clarithromycin may be indicated
62
What is the side effect of TCA to the eye?
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) like imipramine have strong anticholinergic effects due to their antagonism of muscarinic receptors. Blurred vision comes from the paralysis of the accomodation in the eye
62
What investigation do you order if you see clubbing?
NICE guidelines for suspected lung cancers: chest X-ray for finger clubbing if > 40 years
63
What treatment is given to Torsades de points?
IV Mg
64
What is the commonest side effect of tamoxifen?
The most common side effects of tamoxifen are related to the systemic blockade of oestrogen receptors, causing similar symptoms to menopause. The most common of these is hot flushes which occur in more than 1 in 10 patients taking tamoxifen.
65
What happens to the kidney is diabetic nephropathy and in chronic kidney disease?
Chronic diabetic nephropathy will have large/normal sized kidneys on ultrasound whereas most patients with chronic kidney disease have bilateral small kidneys
66
When do individuals with T1DM get offered primary prevention statins?
Individuals with type 1 diabetes who do not have established cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk factors should be offered atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention of CVD if they are: over 40, had the disease for 10years, have nephropathy, have other factors like obestity and hypertension.
67
What can Buproprion cause?
Buproprion causes seizures
68
At what gestation should babies receive their first vaccinations?
Babies who were born prior to 28 weeks gestation should receive their first set of immunisations at hospital due to risk of apnoea.
69
When is contraception required after giving birth?
21days
70
What kind of goitre does Grave's disease cause?
Non-tender
71
What is the specific test for graves disease?
Specific tests for Graves' disease: TSH receptor antibodies (TRAbs): present in Graves' disease. This test has a sensitivity of over 97% and specificity of over 98%.
72
How do you test for Graves disease?
NICE 2019 guidelines state that step 1 is to test for thyroid dysfunction. Then, if hyperthyroidism is confirmed, step 2 comprises further testing for Graves' disease.
73
What imaging do you request for goitres in hyperthyroidism?
NICE suggests that once hyperthyroidism is confirmed, imaging is only considered if a discrete thyroid nodule is palpated. Imaging options include: Ultrasound scan: assesses the size, vascularity and presence of nodules. In Graves', an enlarged, hypervascular thyroid is seen, with nodules in around 15% of Graves' patients. Radioactive iodine scan: uneven uptake indicates the presence of a nodule, diffuse and high uptake suggests Graves', low uptake suggests thyroiditis.
74
How would you diagnose de quervains thyroiditis?
Initial transient hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism, usually resolving in a few months. Similarities: hyperthyroidism. Differences: systemic febrile illness, painful thyroid, raised C-reactive protein, absence of thyroid receptor antibodies.
75
When do you stop taking the COCP/HRT before surgery?
Advise women to stop taking their COCP/HRT 4 weeks before surgery
76
When would you consider a OGD in GORD?
Indications for upper GI endoscopy: age > 55 years symptoms > 4 weeks or persistent symptoms despite treatment dysphagia relapsing symptoms weight loss
77
What is the treatment for suspected syphilis?
Intramuscular benzathine penicillin is the first-line management for syphilis. This disease is characterized by painless ulcers at the site of sexual contac. This patient is presenting with a painful lesion.
78
What is the treatment for genital warts and how does it present?
Topical podophyllum is a typical treatment for genital warts. This would present as small fleshy protuberances that are slightly pigmented and may bleed or itch.
79
What is the treatment and presentation of gonorrhoea and chlamydia?
Intramuscular ceftriaxone is the first-line treatment for gonorrhoea. The patient would present with urethral discharge. A seven-day course of oral doxycycline is the treatment for Chlamydia. This infection is asymptomatic in 50% of male patients. When symptomatic it presents with urethral discharge and dysuria rather than painful ulcers.
80
What is in the diptheria vaccination?
The Diphtheria vaccine does not contain whole organisms at all - dead or alive - but instead includes toxoids which are toxins produced by the bacteria (Corynebacterium diphtheriae) that have been made harmless.
81
What is the MY BOOTIi pneumonic for live attenuated viruses?
MY BOOTIi MMR Yellow fever BCG Oral polio Oral rotavirus Typhoid Intranasal influenza
82
what is the test used to screen for Down's syndrome and when is it performed? If it is too late, what other test is recomended?
The combined test which includes the nuchal scan is done at 11-13+6 weeks. From 14 weeks + 2 days to 20 weeks + 0 days, the quadruple test (maternal serum - hCG, AFP, uE3, inhibin A)) for those presenting later is the recommended screening strategy
83
Which test has replace the triple test to screen for down syndrome?
combined test
84
What does the combined test involve
Serum HCG, PAPPH and nuchal transleucency
85
What are Anti-centromere antibodies found in
Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis (CREST Syndrome)
86
What are Anti-Scl70 antibody found in
Diffuse systemic sclerosis (Scleroderma)
87
What are Anti-Jo antibodies found in
-myositis e.g. Polymyositis, dermatomyositis
88
What are Anti-mitochondrial antibodies found in
Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)
89
What are Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) found in
Small vessel vasculitis
90
What are Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) found in
Autoimmune conditions e.g. SLE, RA, Sjogrens
91
What are Anti-Ro antibodies found in
SLE or Sjogrens
92
What are Anti-histone antibodies found in
Drug-induced lupus
93
What is the protein concentration in ascities in g/L when prophlyactic antibiotics should be given?
Patients with ascites (and protein concentration <= 15 g/L) should be given oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin as prophylaxis against spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
94
When should bisphosphonates be reviewed, how should they be reviewed if the patient is not high risk?
After a five year period for oral bisphosphonates (three years for IV zoledronate), treatment should be re-assessed for ongoing treatment, with an updated FRAX score and DEXA scan. In the case of this patient, she has no risk factors which put her into the high risk group, but we do not have a recent DEXA scan. The best option would therefore be to re-scan her now, and consider a two year break if her T score is >-2.5
95
what makes a patient high risk for fragility fractures and how long should bisphosphonates be continued for?
Age >75 Glucocorticoid therapy Previous hip/vertebral fractures Further fractures on treatment High risk on FRAX scoring T score <-2.5 after treatment Should be continued indefinitely
96
Which medication sensitivity is associated with nasal polyps?
Aspirin. Nasal polyps are a common finding in patients with aspirin sensitivity. This causes bronchoconstriction and inflammation in sensitive individuals.
97
Which anti-HTN is used in pre-eclampsia, HTN in pregnancy in pregnancy women with asthma?
Nifedipine
98
What treatment do you give in a patent ductus arteriosus in a newborn?
Indomethacin or ibuprofen is used in patent ductus arteriosus to promote duct closure
99
What are the examples of SNR?
Duloxetine and venlaflaxine and Reboxetine
100
Which antidepressants should not be offered if on warfarin and which alternatives are appropriate?
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), SSRIs, or SNRIs. Mirtazepine, Reboxetine and Trazadone (SARI)
101
Which heart medication should not be co-prescribed with any anti-dementia acetylcholine esterase inhibitor medications (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine)
Rate limiting calcium channel blockers and beta blockers
102
Which anti-depressants do you not prescribe for patients on NSAIDS?
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) or a serotonin noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) due to increased risk of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. If no suitable alternative can be found, offer gastroprotection. Mirtazapine, reboxetine, or trazodone,
103
Which anti-depressants do you not prescribe for patients on Asprin?
SSRIs (use with caution) and SNRIs. If no suitable alternative can be found, offer gastroprotection. Mirtazapine is the best
104
Hypotension, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds what do these signs mean?
Cardiac tamponade
105
When should amiodrarone be given in VF/VT arrest?
After the 3rd shock
106
What does furoemide do to calcium?
Hypocalcaemia
107
What is the management for INR > 8.0 (no bleeding)
Stop warfarin, give oral vitamin K 1-5mg, repeat dose of vitamin K if INR high after 24 hours, restart when INR < 5.0
108
How is Duct papilloma differentiated from Mammary duct ectasia
Both have discharge, Duct papilloma is watery and bloody with no tender lumps Duct ectasia is more green/white with a tender lump around the areola
109
When is Clopidogrel prescribed?
TIA/Stroke, PAD
110
When is Aspirin (lifelong) & ticagrelor (12 months)
acute coronary syndrome
111
Which condition causes bronzing of the skin?
Haemochromatosis
112
TSH: Low, T4: Low?
Sick euthyroid
113
Is oestoarthritis unilateral or bilateral?
Unilateral
114
p450 sickface inhibitors
sulfonylurea, isoniazide, cimetedine, ketoconazole, fluconazole, alcohol binging, ciprofloxacin, erythromycin, sodium valproate
115
p450 crap gps inducers
carbamazepine, rifampicin, alcohol chronic use, phenytoin, griseofulvin, phenobarbitol, sulfonylurea
116
a history of sinusitis presents with haemoptysis and renal impairment. A renal biopsy shows crescentic glomerulonephritis
Churg is more lungs and oesinophiles GPA is more renal
117
what else if p-anca associated with?
UC and PSC
118
What is Potts disease?
Pott's disease (spinal tuberculosis) is a bacterial infection that affects the bones in your spine (vertebrae). IW
119
What are at high risk of strangulation, indirect, direct or femoral hernias?
Femoral
120
How do you investigate infertility?
Women investigation for infertility - - Check mid luteal phase progesterone at 21 or 28 - Screen for chlamydia - Consider other tests – prolactin, thyroid, gonadotrophins Men investigations for infertility - Semen analysis - Screen for chlamydia
121
What are the CT head in one hour rules?
* GCS < 13 on initial assessment * GCS < 15 at 2 hours post-injury * suspected open or depressed skull fracture * any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, 'panda' eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle's sign). * post-traumatic seizure. * focal neurological deficit. * more than 1 episode of vomiting
122
How do you replace B12 if they are symptomatic for subacute combine degeneration of the spinal cord
If there are neurological involvement and B12 def then it is urgent referral with hydoxocobalamine 1mg IM every other day
123
Refer to gastro if Fe def anaemia and:
- Men and post menopause women if no overt signs of bleeding - All people aged over 50 - FH of colorectal cancer - Pre menopause women and have colon symptoms, FH, persistent Fe def despite treatment
124
What are Seborrhoeic keratosis
Non-cancerous benign moley, bumpy growths. Seborrhoeic keratoses are benign epidermal growths that appear as waxy, brownish-black 'stuck-on' plaques. They commonly occur on the trunk and face but have a different appearance than the erythematous, rough lesions described in this case.
125
what are the antibodies in T1DM
anti-GAD anti-Islet cells insulin autoantibody
126
When is a PPI or H2RA prescribe in children
Consider a 4 week trial of a PPI or H2RA for those who are unable to tell you about their symptoms (for example, infants and young children, and those with an associated with expressive communication difficulties) who have overt regurgitation with 1 or more of the following: * unexplained feeding difficulties (for example, refusing feeds, gagging or choking) * distressed behaviour * faltering growth.
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What would cause chronic diarrhoea in a infant?
Cows milk protein allergy
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What would cause new onset vomiting or regurgitation in a neonate at 6months?
UTI
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When do you refer shingles
o Immunocopromised, young, CNS symptoms, haemorrhagic or nectoric reactions (vasculitis induced shingles), mucosal involvement, head and neck involvement in elderly, any nose or eye involvement, Hutchinson’s sign (nasocillary nerve involvement) – may need IV antivirals
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When do you give aciclovir for Shingles within 72hours
People who are immunocompromised (if the level of immunocompromise is not severe, the rash is localized, there is no eye involvement, the person is not systemically unwell, and they can be closely followed up People aged 50 years and over. People with non-truncal involvement (excluding the head and neck, where admission or specialist advice is indicated). People with moderate or severe pain or moderate or severe rash. People with predisposing skin conditions.
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How is the Shingles pain managed?
Mild to moderate pain, offer paracetamol or a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), such as ibuprofen alone or in combination with a weak opioid (such as codeine). Moderate to severe pain, offer a choice of amitriptyline (off-label use), duloxetine (off-label use), gabapentin, or pregabalin.
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How is acne rosacea managed?
- First line therapy o Mild-Mod – Brimonidine 0.5% PRN o Mild-Mod – For papules, Ivermectin – o Mod – Sev – Oral doxycycline and Ivermectin o If phytamous then oral doxy
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