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MSRA Flashcards

1
Q

acute epiglottitis causative bacteria

A

haemophilus influenzae

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2
Q

Croup causative agent

A

parainfluenzae

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3
Q

amiodarone side effects

A

corneal opacities

optic neuritis

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4
Q

paviluzimab used to treat

A

respiratory synctial virus causing bronchiolitis

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5
Q

Barlow and ortolani

A

Barlow bring out (dislocate)

Ortolani originate relocate

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6
Q

hand foot and mouth causative agent

A

coxsackie virus

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7
Q

most common cardiac abnormality in downs syndrome

A

atrioventricular septal defect

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8
Q

Bartters

A

Autosomal recessive, severe hypokalaemia, normotension, polydipsia, polyuria

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9
Q

patau

A 
trisomy 13
cleft lip/palate
Polydactyly
microcephalic
small eyes
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10
Q

Edwards

A

Trisomy 18

micrognathia, low set ears, rocker bottom feet, overlapping fingers

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11
Q

Fragile X

A

macro-orchidism, large ears, long face (XL size), macrocephaly, learning difficulties

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12
Q

Noonan

A

webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature

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13
Q

Prada Willi syndrome

A

hypotonia, hypogonadism, obesity

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14
Q

Williams syndrome

A

.short stature, extroverted, learning difficulties

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15
Q

gross motor milestones

A 
3 - pull to sitting no head lag, held sitting
6 - rolls front to back, held sitting with straight back
7-8 sits without support
9 pulls to standing, crawls
12 cruises, walks with one hand
13-15 walks unsupported (refer at 18)
18 squats
2 runs
3 tricycle
4 hops
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16
Q

speech milestones

A 
9 mama dada
12-15 knows 2-6 words
2 combines 2 words
3 short sentences
4 why when how
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17
Q

what pathogen causes osteomyelitis in sickle cell

A

salmonella

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18
Q

croup cause and treatment

A

parainfluenza, O2, dex, nebulised adrenaline

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19
Q

anorexia blood results

A

most things low, Gs and Cs raised

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20
Q

bloody diarrhoea and fever - antibiotic

A

ciprofloxacin

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21
Q

impaired fasting glucose

Impaired glucose tolerance

A

6.1

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22
Q

diagnosing diabetes

A

fasting glucose >/ 7 or random glucose >/11.1

if asymptomatic then fasting flucose >/7 twice or HBa1c >/48

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23
Q

dresslers syndrome

A

pericarditis following MI

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24
Q

crohns disease management

A

glucocorticoids to induce remision, azathioprine/methotrexate to maintain

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25
Q

amiodarone side effect endocrine

A

can cause hypo and hyperthyroidisim

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26
Q

clinical features, causes and microscopic changes: minimal change nephropathy

A

80% idiopathic, 10-20% nsaids/mono.hodgkins, increased permiability of glomeruli to albumin therefore +++ protein, EM see podocytes

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27
Q

beta blocker overdose

A

atropine, if resistant give glucagon

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28
Q

gingival hyperlasia

A

phenytoin, cyclosporin, CCBs, AML

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29
Q

reiter

reactive

A

reiter - cant see, cant pee, cant climb a tree

reactive - kerattoderma blenorrhagica

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30
Q

homonymous quadrantanopita

A

PITS

Parietal inferior, temporal superior

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31
Q

treatment of trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

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32
Q

BC>AC

A

conductive deafness

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33
Q

rinnes vs webers

A

rinnes on mastoid until cant hear then over meatus. If BC>AC then conductive deafness
Wiines - sensorineural loss localises to unaffected side, conductive loss localises to affective side

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34
Q

rate control

A

beta blockers, CCBs, digoxin

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35
Q

rhythm control

A

amiodarone, flecanide

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36
Q

ascending cholangitis

A

charcots triad: fever, jaundice, RUQ pain

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37
Q 
T4
T10
L1
L4
L5
S1
S23
A 
teat pore
belly button
1nguinal ligament
knees
big toe
small toe
genitalia
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38
Q

rash with infectious mononucleosis

A

amoxicillin

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39
Q

antibiotics causing cholestasis

A

co-amoxiclav and flucloxacillin

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40
Q

<55 yrs or T2DM with HTN

A

ace inhibitor then ace inhibitor or CCB or thiazide diuretic

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41
Q

NSAIDs in heart failure

A

can promote fluid retention

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42
Q

when to add a second drug after metformin and lifestyle changes

A

> 58 HBA1c (target 48)

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43
Q

when to use glp1

A

triple therapy failed, and BMI >=35 or BMI =<35 but insulin not possible

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44
Q

premature menopause

A

menopause in a women <45

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45
Q

transient idiopathic osteoporosis

A

groin pain, reduced RoM in hip, ESR elevated, sometimes in 3rd trimester of pregnancy

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46
Q

Premature ovarian failure hormones

A

high gonadotrophins

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47
Q

hypertension in pregnancy

A

> 140/>90 or increase in booking readings of >30/>15

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48
Q

First line for eclamptic seizures

A

magnesium sulphate

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49
Q

dating scan
nuchal scan
Anomaly scan

A 
8 weeks (earliest)
(chromosomal) 11 weeks (earliest)
18 weeks (earliest)
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50
Q

COCP cancer risk

A

increases risk of cervix and breast, decreases risk of ovarian and endometrial

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51
Q

UPSIs

A

levonogestrel for up to 3 days post
ellaone for 5 but cant have ovulated
IUDs up to 5 days after

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52
Q

hutchinsons sign

A

rash on the tip or side of the nose - strong risk racftor for herpes zoster ophthalmicus

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53
Q

central retinal vein occlusion

A

more common than arterial, increases with age, caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, HTN. Severe retinal haemorrhages seen on fundoscopy

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54
Q

central retinal artery occlusion

A

due to thromboembolism or arteritis, cherry red spot on pale retina

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55
Q

symptoms of optic neuritis

A

visual loss, eye pain, red desaturation

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56
Q

holmes adie pupil

A

benign condition, dilated

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57
Q

hordelium externon

A

infection of the glands of the eyelid

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58
Q

hutchinsons pupil

A

inlaterally dilated pupil secondary to complression of the occulomotor nerve of the same side

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59
Q

argyll tobertson pupilS

A

bilaterally small pupils that accomodate but dont react to light. neurosphilis and DM

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60
Q

risk factors for open angle glaucoma

A

raised IOP without vitreous outflow; hypermetropia, mydriasis, lens growth secondaryt o age

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61
Q

presentation of acute open angle glaucoma

A

eye pain, reduced vision, worse with mydriasis, hard red eye, halos. treat with acetazolamide and pilocarpine

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62
Q

when to stop COCP before surgery and what to switch to

A

4 weeks before and POP

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63
Q

when to do cephalic version for breech presentation

A

36 weeks

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64
Q

how long before urea breath test to stop:

a. PPIs
b. antibiotics

A

a. 2 weeks

b. 4 weeks

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65
Q

mechanism of action of finasteride

A

5 alpha reductase inhibitor

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66
Q

diagnosing PMR

A

rapid onset morning stiffness in proximal limbs can also have depression, low grade fever, night sweats and raised ESR

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67
Q

prevalence of thrombophilias

A

Factor V Leiden (heterozygous) 5%
Factor V Leiden (homozygous) 0.05%
Prothrombin gene mutation (heterozygous) 1.5%
Protein C deficiency 0.3%

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68
Q

sore throat, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy

A

infectious mononucleosis

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69
Q

treatment of lyme in pregnancy

A

doxycycline contraindicated so use amoxicillin

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70
Q

first line for generalised seizures

A

sodium valproate, 2nd line lamotrigine

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71
Q

first line for focal seizures

A

carbamazepine/lamotrigine

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72
Q

which drug causes corneal opacities

A

amiodarone

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73
Q

first line for investigation of prostate Ca

A

multiparametric mri

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74
Q

Venous thromoboembolism - length of warfarin treatment

A

provoked (e.g. recent surgery): 3 months

unprovoked: 6 months

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75
Q

treatment of acute menieres attack

A

betahistine

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76
Q

Vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma) classic symptoms

A

hearing loss, tinnitus, absent corneal reflex, vertigo

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77
Q

seborrhoeic dermatitis

A

caused by fungus, first line is ketoconazole

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78
Q

paediatric meningitis doses of benpen <1, 1-10, >10

A

300mg, 600mg, 1200mg

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79
Q

distinguishing between episcleritis and scleritis

A

phenylephrine drops which blanch episcleritis (as blanch episcleral vessels but not scleral)

80
Q

sickle cell disease genicity

A

autosomal recessive

81
Q

dry cough reticulo-nodular shadowing and erythema multiforme

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

82
Q

antibiotic prophylaxis for contacts of meningococcal menigitis

A

Oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin is used as prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis

83
Q

acute and prophylactic management of migraines

A

Migraine

acute: triptan + NSAID or triptan + paracetamol
prophylaxis: topiramate or propranolol

84
Q

EBV is associated with which cancers

A

hodgkins, nasopharyngeal, burkitts

85
Q

HELLP syndrome stands for

A

Haemolysis
Elevated liver proteins
low platelets

86
Q

solphonylurea: MOA, name one, common side effects

A

causes insulin secretion and hypoglycaemic effects, gliclazide, weight gain

87
Q

management of whooping cough (pertussis)

A

azithromycin or clarithromycin if the onset of cough is within the previous 21 days

88
Q

rigns and furrows on ogd

A

eosinophilic oesophagitis

89
Q

which vitamin in high doses can be teratogenic in pregnancy

A

vitamin A

90
Q

increasing fertility inPCOS

A

clomifene and metformin

91
Q

linked to cleft palate/lip in pregnancy - medication

A

topiramate

92
Q

prophylaxis for contacts of meningococcal menigitis

A

ciprophylaxis

93
Q

treatment of acne rosacea

A

topical metronidazole

94
Q

LRTI in cystic fibrosis

A

pseudomonas causing fluid level and bronchiectasis

95
Q

criteria for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

5% pre-pregnancy weight loss
dehydration
electrolyte imbalance

96
Q

CHA2DS2VaS

A 
C	Congestive heart failure	1
H	Hypertension (or treated hypertension)	1
A2	Age >= 75 years	2
Age 65-74 years	1
D	Diabetes	1
S2	Prior Stroke or TIA	2
V	Vascular disease (including ischaemic heart disease and peripheral arterial disease)	1
S	Sex (female)	1
97
Q

management of AAOG

A

pilocarpine (sympathomimetic), timolol (reduce aquous humour production), IV acetazolamide
Laser iridotomy

98
Q

first line in BPH

A

alpha 1 antagonists such as tamsulosin - reduce smooth muscle tone

99
Q

antibiotic to avoid in UTI with CKD

A

NITRO: In order to be effective at treating urinary tract infections, nitrofurantoin needs to be concentrated in the urine and an adequate glomerular filtration is required for this to occur. An eGFR of less than 40-60ml/min means that the drug is wholly ineffective as a bactericidal agent and is not recommended in patients with CKD stage 3 or worse due to the likelihood of treatment failure. Coupled with this is the risk of drug toxicity in the patient. Without adequate renal filtration, the drug is likely to accumulate

100
Q

pain over tibial tuberosity in child

A

osgood schlatter - tibial apophysitis

101
Q

when to use spironolactone

A

ascites: patients with cirrhosis develop a secondary hyperaldosteronism. Relatively large doses such as 100 or 200mg are often used
hypertension: used in some patients as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment
heart failure (see RALES study below)
nephrotic syndrome
Conn’s syndrome

102
Q

heart failure with AF: medication

A

digoxin

103
Q

holmes addie pupil

A

unilateral in 80%, benign, associated with absent knee and ankle reflexes. very slowly reactive to light and accomodation, dilated pupil

104
Q

antidepressant after MI

A

sertraline

105
Q

hyperkalaemia on ECG

A

tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern and asystole

106
Q

antidepressant to avoid if warfarin coprescribed

A

citalopram as risk of bleeding

107
Q

HBA1c diagnostic for DM

A

48mmol

108
Q

best antiemetic in parkinsons

A

domperidone (does not cross BBB)

109
Q

tetanus wound management

A

classify, not likely to have tetanus, tetanus prone, high risk. If not likely and vaccine in <10 yrs previous then nothing. If vaccine in <10yrs and tetanus prone or high risk then give vaccine, if vaccine >10yrs give vaccine, if other vaccine and immunoglobulin

110
Q

lump between sternocleidomastoid and pharynx following URTI

A

branchial cyst - An oval, mobile cystic mass that develops between the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the pharynx
Develop due to failure of obliteration of the second branchial cleft in embryonic development
Usually present in early adulthood

111
Q

acute management of menieres

A

betahistine

112
Q

MI - when to thrombolyse and when to PCI

A

primary coronary intervention should be offered if the presentation is within 12 hours of onset of symptoms AND PCI can be delivered within 120 minutes of the time when thrombolysis could have been given (i.e. consider thrombolysis if there is a significant delay in being able to provide PCI)
if patients present after 12 hours and still have evidence of ongoing ischaemia then PCI should still be considered
should be offered within 12 hours of onset of symptoms if primary PCI cannot be delivered within 120 minutes of the time when thrombolysis could have been given
If patients have persistent myocardial ischaemia following thrombolysis then PCI should be considered.

113
Q

when to place a chest drain

A

Patients with frankly purulent or turbid/cloudy pleural fluid on sampling should receive prompt pleural space chest tube drainage.
The presence of organisms identified by Gram stain and/or culture from a non-purulent pleural fluid sample indicates that pleural infection is established and should lead to prompt chest tube drainage.
Pleural fluid pH < 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection indicates a need for chest tube drainage.

114
Q

hoffmans sign

A

used to determine if UMN lesion present

115
Q

primary biliary cholangitis

A

Primary biliary cholangitis - the M rule
IgM
anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype
Middle aged females

first line is ursodeoxycholic acid

116
Q

ecg changes of hyperkalaemia

A

tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern and asystole

117
Q

huntingtons genetics

A

chromosome 4, autosomal dominant, genetic anticipation

118
Q

monitoring of bloods with statins

A

LFTs at baseline, 3 and 12 months

119
Q

drugs for epilepsy

A

Generalised seizures:
First line is sodium valproate
Second line lamotrigine/carbamazepine
Focal seizures:
First line is carbamazepine or lamotrigine
second line levetiracetam/sodium valproate

Exceptions
Second line for absence is ethosuximide
second line for myoclonic is clonazepam or lamotrigine

120
Q

common features in motor neurone disease

A

There are a number of clues which point towards a diagnosis of motor neuron disease:
fasciculations
the absence of sensory signs/symptoms*
the mixture of lower motor neuron and upper motor neuron signs
wasting of the small hand muscles/tibialis anterior is common

121
Q

migraine prophylaxis

A

NICE advise either topiramate or propranolol ‘according to the person’s preference, comorbidities and risk of adverse events’. Propranolol should be used in preference to topiramate in women of child bearing age as it may be teratogenic and it can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives

122
Q

AF and heart failure medication

A

digoxin

123
Q

uti near term

A

cefalexin; avoid nitro near term as may get fetal haemolysis

124
Q

prophylaxis for contacts of menigitis

A

ciprophylaxis

125
Q

heart stuff and driving

A

CABG - 4 weeks off
ACS - 4 weeks off
post angioplasty - 1 week off

126
Q

statins with which antibiotics can cause CK rise

A

macrolides

127
Q

how much of a creatinine rise is needed to stop a new prescription of ACEi

A

> 30%

128
Q

driving following stroke/TIA

A

4 weeks off, can restart if no residual symptoms,

129
Q

most common cause of diarrhoea in HIV patient

A

cryptosporidium

130
Q

causes of massive splenomegaly

A 
myelofibrosis
chronic myeloid leukaemia
visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar)
malaria
Gaucher's syndrome
131
Q

causes of oligohydramnios (<500ml)

A 
premature rupture of membranes
fetal renal problems e.g. renal agenesis
intrauterine growth restriction
post-term gestation
pre-eclampsia
132
Q

which contraceptive can cause osteoporosis

A

depo provera

133
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum, diagnostic criteria triad:

A

5% pre-pregnancy weight loss
dehydration
electrolyte imbalanc`e

134
Q

Most common type of ovarian pathology associated with Meigs’ syndrome

A

fibroma

135
Q

things to think about with macrolides

A 
P450 inhibitors
therefore cant use with statins
prolong QT interval
GI side effects
azithromycin can cause hearing loss and tinnitus
136
Q

what things precipitate digoxin toxicity

A

classically: hypokalaemia
digoxin normally binds to the ATPase pump on the same site as potassium. Hypokalaemia → digoxin more easily bind to the ATPase pump → increased inhibitory effects
increasing age
renal failure
myocardial ischaemia
hypomagnesaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypernatraemia, acidosis
hypoalbuminaemia
hypothermia
hypothyroidism
drugs: amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, diltiazem, spironolactone (competes for secretion in distal convoluted tubule therefore reduce excretion), ciclosporin. Also drugs which cause hypokalaemia e.g. thiazides and loop diuretics

137
Q

drugs that may worsen heart failure

A

thiazolidinediones
pioglitazone is contraindicated as it causes fluid retention
verapamil
negative inotropic effect
NSAIDs/glucocorticoids
should be used with caution as they cause fluid retention
low-dose aspirin is an exception - many patients will have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin easily outweigh the risks
class I antiarrhythmics
flecainide (negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect

138
Q

ECG changes in digoxin toxicity

A

ST depression and T wave inversion in V5-6

139
Q

campylobacter post infection can lead to

A

reiters and guillan barre

140
Q

thumbprint sign on lateral neck xray

A

epiglotittis from HIb

141
Q

ccb not tolerated for htn next step

A

thiazide diuretic

142
Q

depression in obesity - which antidepressant
and
intolerant to SSRIs

A

fluoxetine as is associated with weight loss
and
SNRI - venlafaxine

143
Q

Immune deficiency - lacks protection through MMs. Can get anaphylaxis to blood transfusions

A

selective immunoglobulin A defiency

144
Q

painful vesicles on the tympanic membrane

A

bullous myringitis

145
Q

what hormones do the following release:
anterior pituitary
Posterior pitutatry
Hypothalamus

A

AP: LH, FSH, GH, TSH, ACTH
PP:oxytocin and adh
Hypothalamus: CRH, GHRH, GnRH, Somatostatin, TRH

146
Q

hencoh schonlein purpura

A

systemic vasculitis caused by deposition of immune complexes containing iga in the skin.
Causes: cutaneous purpura, arthritis, abdominal pain, GI bleeds, orchitis, nephritis
30% of children have URTI before
treat supportively

147
Q

contraindications with azathioprine

A

allopurinol - raises levels,
ACEi - anaemia and leukpenia
Warfarin - reduces levels of warfarin

148
Q

reed sternburg cells and pain at nodules when drinking alcohol

A

hodgkins lymphoma

149
Q

gait instability, urinary incontinence, dementia

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus - VP shunt

150
Q

viral neuronitis vs labyrnthitis - which one causes tinnitue/hearing loss

A

labrynthitis

151
Q

scrufaloderma vs lupus vulgaris

A

scrofuloderma - skin breakdown overlying tuberculoid focus

lupus vulgaris lesions on normal skin

152
Q

what is xanthopsia

A

yellow vision

153
Q

anti TPO

Anti TSH

A

hashimotos

Graves

154
Q

philedelphia chromosome

A

CML

155
Q

rapid growing, locally invasive, firm nodule, thyroid mass

A

anaplastic, often has mets at presentation. can present with dyspnoea and hoarseness

156
Q

thyroid mass with diarrhoea and facial flushing

A

medullary - calcitonin release

157
Q

most common thyroid cancer, slow growing, sometime secondary to radiation

A

papillary

158
Q

centor criteria

A

whether to give antibiotics in strep - temperature, Tender/swollen anterior cervical lymph nodes, exudate on tonsils, absent cough

159
Q

anti nuclear and anti centromere antibodies

A 
CREST syndrome - limited cutaneous sclerosis
calcinosis
raynauds
oesophageal dysmotility
scleroderma
telangectasia
160
Q

friedreich’s ataxis

A

autosomal recessive ataxia: degenerative disease that mostly affects nervous system and heart:
unsteadiness of gait, ataxis, dysarthria, cardiomyopathy

161
Q

screening in the UK:

breast, cervical, bowel

A

Breast screening - every 3 years between 50-70
Cervical screening - 25-49 every 3 years, 50-64 every 5 years
Bowel - one off at 55

162
Q

mitral stenosis and dysphagia

A

left atrial hypertrophy

163
Q

HIV, with pleural effusions, erythema nodosum, erythema marginatum, fungus

A

histoplasma

164
Q

equation for plasma osmolality

A

2na +urea + glucose

165
Q

risks of smoking during pregnancy

A

preterm labour, miscarriage, reduction in ovulations, abnormal sperm production, reduced reading ability, light for dates

166
Q

common organisms causing pneumonia in patients with COPD

A

streptococcus pneumonia
haemophilus influenzae
moraxella catarrhalis

167
Q

syringomyelia

A

fluid filled tubular cavitation (syrinx) - loss of pain and temperature sensation, in cape like distribution, may be muscle wasting or weakness

168
Q

side effects of thiazide diuretics

A 
Common adverse effects
dehydration
postural hypotension
hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia*
gout
impaired glucose tolerance
impotence
Rare adverse effects
thrombocytopaenia
agranulocytosis
photosensitivity rash
pancreatitis
169
Q

anticardiolipin antibodies are found in:

A

antiphospholipid syndrome, SLE, ITP, RA, psoriatic arthritis, sjogrens

170
Q

causative agent in erysipleas

A

streptococcus pyogenes

171
Q

difference between IgA nephropathy and post strep glomerulonephritis

A

IgA - haematuria: 24-48 following URTI.

Post strep glomerulonephritis: haematuria 1-3 weeks following

172
Q

retinal detachment types

A

rhegmatogenous - detachment of sensory retina, most common
non rhegmatogenous - either tractional or exudative (tractional from vitreous contracting e.g. from DR or exudative from fluid under RPE)

173
Q

earliest clinical manifestation of chronic renal impairment

A

microalbuminuria

174
Q

test for ovulation

A

progesterone 1 week before expected period - progesterone is produced mainly by the corpus luteum, helps to prepare the ueterus forimplantation

175
Q

high fever, pharyngitis, lympadenopathy in child then rash rose pink macular intially on trunk.

A

roseola HHV6

176
Q

Drugs used in Acute Open Angle Glaucoma

A

Reduce IOP:
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors e.g. acetazolamide
Sympathomimethics e.g. dipverine
Beta Blockers e.g. timolol

Increase outflow of aqueous humour
Sympathomimethics
Miotics e.g. pilocarpine
Prostaglandin analogues e.g. latanoprost

177
Q

overdose causing: hyperventilation, tinnitus, vomiting, resp alkalosis then met acidosis

A

aspirin

178
Q

what is budd chiari, what causes it and how is it treated

A

caused by hepatic vein outflow obstruction e.g. due to thrombosis. presented with enlarged caudate lobe, ascites, deranged LFTs. Treated with TIPS

179
Q

telling the differnce between alcohol liver disease and non alcohol liver disease on LFTs

A

Alcoholic liver disease is typically associated with an AST:ALT ratio >2 in contrast to non-alcoholic fatty liver disease which is associated with an ALT:AST ratio >2.

180
Q

piere robin

A

micrognathia, cleft palate

181
Q

ACEi drug monitoring

A

U&Es before, annually and after dose increase

182
Q

Amiodarone monitoring

A

U&Es, CXR, LFT, TFTs before

LFTs and TFTs every 6 months

183
Q

Statin monitoring

A

LFTs before, 3 months, 12 months

184
Q

methotrexate monitoring

A

The Committee on Safety of Medicines recommend ‘FBC and renal and LFTs before starting treatment and repeated weekly until therapy stabilised, thereafter patients should be monitored every 2-3 months’

185
Q

azathioprine monitoring

A

FBC, LFT before treatment
FBC weekly for the first 4 weeks
FBC, LFT every 3 months

186
Q

causes of jaundice in first 24hrs

A

rhesus haemolytic disease
ABO haemolytic disease
hereditary spherocytosis
glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase

187
Q

pseudohyperparathyroidism, what causes it and what clinical signs are there

A

resistance to PTH leading to hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, can lead to small stature, short neck, short metacarpals

188
Q

lung cancer cancer causing hypercalcaemia

A

squamous cell cancer - PTHrP

189
Q

weird things small cell lung cancer does

A

cushings - ACTH
SIADH
Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome

190
Q

palpable lump in flank and varicocele

A

renal cancer

191
Q

what type of virus is influenza

A

orthmyxovirus

192
Q

2nd leading cause of lower GI bleeding after diverticulitis, typically large volume

A

angiodysplasia

193
Q

Finasteride MoA

A

5 alpha reductase inhibitor: used for BPH and male pattern baldness. Can cause impotence, decreased libido, gynaecomastia.

F = Five = 5

194
Q

labyrnthitis vs vestibular neuronitis: which one causes heading Loss

A

Labyrinthitis causes Loss

195
Q

first line treatment for angina

A

A-BC

Beta blocker and CCB

196
Q

antidepressant of choice during breast feeding

A

sertraline

MSRA (1 decks)

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