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MSRA > MSRA > Flashcards

MSRA Flashcards

1
Q

What vaccinations are included in the 8 weeks immunisations?

A

-6-in-1 vaccine (diphtheria, hep b, hib, polio, tetanus, whooping cough)
-rotavirus
-men b

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2
Q

What vaccinations are included in the 12 week immunisations?

A

-6-in-1 vaccine
-pneumococcal vaccine
-rotavirus

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3
Q

What vaccinations are included in the 16 week immunisations?

A

-6-in-1 vaccine
-men b vaccine

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4
Q

What are the live vaccines that need to be cautious of giving in pregnancy or immunocompromised?

A

-BCG
-MMR
-Rotavirus
-influenza
-Covid
-varicella
-yellow fever
-typhoid
-polio

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5
Q

What vaccines would a 1 year old receive?

A

Hib/men c
MMR
Pneumococcal
Menb

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6
Q

What vaccines would a 3 yr 4 month receive?

A

MMR
4-in-1 pre school booster (diphtheria, polio, tetanus, whooping cough)

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7
Q

What vaccines would a 12-13 year old receive?

A

HPV vaccine

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8
Q

What vaccine would a 14 year old receive?

A

-Td/IPV vaccine (tetanus, diphtheria, polio)
-MenACWY

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9
Q

What antibodies would be present in drug induced lupus?

A

Anti-histone antibody

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10
Q

What antibodies would be present in dermatomyositis?

A

-Anti -mi -2 antibodies (strong predictive value)
-anti - jo - 1 antibodies (20%)

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10
Q

What antibodies would be present in SLE?

A

Anti-nuclear antibodies

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11
Q

What rash would someone with dermatomyositis present with?

A

-Purple spots on bony prominences - particularly the knuckles.
-Heliotrope rash on eyelids

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12
Q

Which antibodies are likely to be present with someone who has Limited systemic sclerosis?

A

-Anti-centromere antibodies

(Limited to face, hands and feet but is the old CREST syndrome)

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13
Q

What are the 5 types of malaria that affect humans?

A

-falciparum, vivax, ovale, malariae, knowlesi

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14
Q

Which virus is associated with nasopharyngeal cancer?

A

-EBV

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15
Q

What is an example of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?

A

-Asthma, allergic rhinitis, anaphylaxis
-interaction of mast cell-bound IgE with allergen molecules

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16
Q

What is an example of a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?

A

-Goodpastures syndrome, ABO incompatability, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
-antibody-dependent reaction

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17
Q

What is an example of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction?

A

-Systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis
-immune complex disease

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18
Q

What complications can occur for a fetus with a mother infected with toxoplasmosis?

A

-Neonatal seizures
-Hydrocephalus
-Chorioretinitis
-Cerebral calcification

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19
Q

What antibodies are present in Sjogrens syndrome?

A

-Anti-La and anti-RO

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20
Q

What antibodies are present in anti-phospholipid syndrome?

A

-Anti-cardiolipin antibody

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21
Q

What are the clinical features of anti-phospholipid syndrome?

A

Coagulation defect
Livedoreticularis (mottled skin change)
Obstetric: recurrent miscarriages
Thrombocytopenias

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22
Q

What antibodies are are found in diffuse systemic sclerosis?

A

-Anti-topoisomerase -1 antibodies
and 20% anti-RNA polymerase

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23
Q

How does vitreous haemorrhage present?

A

Painless vision loss and haemorrhages that change colour on fundoscopy. Associated with diabetic retinopathy

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24
Q

Which eye conditions are associated with pupil defects?

A

Central artery and vein occlusions

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25
Q

What eye condition is associated with a ‘stormy sunset’ fundus?

A

Central vein occlusion

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26
Q

What eye condition is associated with a pale retina and ‘cherry red spot’ - (macula has different blood supply)

A

Central artery occlusion

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27
Q

What symptom do patients with a retinal detachment describe?

A

Floaters
(retinal detachment is a rare disease)

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28
Q

How is wet macular degeneration treated?

A

anti-vascular endothelial growth factor injected into the vitreous to stop the development of new leaky vessels (sudden development)

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29
Q

How is dry macular degeneration treated?

A

No treatment (presence of drusen)

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30
Q

What genotype is behcets disease associated with?

A

HLA B51 - presents with arthritis, ocular symptoms and ulceration of mouth

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31
Q

What eye condition does chlamydia cause?

A

Trachoma - treat with oral azithromycin

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32
Q

What is a macular hole?

A

A full thickness defect in the retinal tissue

-punched out area with surrounding oedema (often due to age)

-more common in women, cataracts are complication, OCT can diagnose and stage holes may need surgery to correct

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33
Q

What is a phoria in terms of eyes?

A

deviation present some of the time (ie when tired)

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34
Q

What is a tropia in terms of eyes?

A

Deviation present all of the time

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35
Q

What does a cross-cover test detect when examining the eyes?

A

a phoria

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36
Q

What does a cover-uncover test detect when examining the eyes?

A

A tropia

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37
Q

What should patients with anterior uveitis be commenced on to present posterior synechaie?

A

Cyclopentolate or atropine drops

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38
Q

What is posterior synechaie?

A

when the pupil sticks to the lens in anterior uveitis.
-the pupil looks irregular and dilates poorly. -can result into intraocular pressure increase

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39
Q

How can squints be categorised?

A

Paralytic and non-paralytic

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40
Q

How can non-paralytic squints be categorised?

A

Convergent (esotropia) and divergent (exotropia)

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41
Q

What is a convergent squint?

A

inward ocular deviation

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42
Q

What is a divergent squint?

A

outward ocular deviation

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43
Q

What is a pterygium?

A

a benign fibrovascular growth on the conjunctiva which can extend to the cornea and interfere with vision
-usually bilateral and asymmetrical and located near nasal aspect of eye.
-ass with wind, dust and uv light

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44
Q

What is a pinguecula?

A

a smaller version of fibrovascular growth which is yellow in colour and does not involve the cornea

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45
Q

Which test is diagnostic for acromegaly?

A

oral glucose tolerance test with growth hormone measurement

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46
Q

What features are common for someone who is living with Kallman syndrome?

A

-Delayed puberty (hypothalamic gonadotrophic deficiency)
-absent/low sense of smell
-nerve deafness
-colour blindness
- abnormalities
-cleft palate and other facial abnormalities

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47
Q

Which diabetic medication increases weight?

A

Sulphonylureas

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48
Q

What is Nelson’s syndrome? (hint endocrine)

A

B/L Adrenalectomy (to treat cushing’s disease) causing ACTH pituitary macroadenoma to grow (as no negative feedback)

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49
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary

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50
Q

What medication is used to treat acromegaly and what is a side effect?

A

-Ocreotide
-Gallstones

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51
Q

What is the most common cause of precocious puberty in young girls?

A

Hamartoma of posterior hypothalamus

-treated with long acting GnRH analogues to inhibit pubertyW

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52
Q

What is common features of Turner syndrome?

A

45XO
-short stature, delayed puberty

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53
Q

Which type 2 diabetic medication is least likely to cause hypoglycaemia?

A

Metformin

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54
Q

What test is used to detect cushings?

A

Dexamethasone suppression test

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55
Q

What test is used to detect adrenal insufficiency?

A

Short synacthen test

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56
Q

What test is used to detect diabetes insipidus?

A

Water deprivation test

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57
Q

What features are useful in diagosing graves disease?

A

Exophthalmos
Ophthalmoplegia
Pretibial myxoedema
Thyroid acropachy

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58
Q

How does hyperaldosteronism present?

A

hypertension, hypokalaemia, metabolic alkalosis

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59
Q

What side effect is propanolol associated with?

A

Cold fingers/toes and tiredness

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60
Q

What side effect is acabose associated with?

A

Flatulence and diarrhoea

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61
Q

Is codeine safe in pregnancy?

A

It can be taken in pregnancy but if it is metabolised quickly, it can be passed on in breastmilk to the infant who then may get a high dose of morphine.
Avoid if possible

(dihydrocodeine is safer as not a prodrug)

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62
Q

What medications, as well as gent, can cause hearing loss?

A

Erythromycine, Furosemide and aspirin

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63
Q

Which HRT method is best to avoid migraines in prone women?

A

Patches - continuous steady release

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64
Q

What is a contraindication to starting HRT?

A

Recent MI

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65
Q

Which hayfever/asthma medication is associated with bad dreams and diarrhoea?

A

Montelukast

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66
Q

Which SSRI has the longest half life and need to be cautious if changing anti-depressents?

A

Fluoxetine

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67
Q

Why must LABAs always been used in conjunction with ICS?

A

Without, causes worsening asthma control and may cause exacerbation (LABAs usually prescribed as combination inhalers)

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68
Q

What is a potential side effect of methylphenidate for ADHD?

A

Falling height centiles
-can have planned treatment holidays to allow growth catch up

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69
Q

What abx is associated with increased risk of MI/stroke?

A

Clarithromycin

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70
Q

What type of medication can cause MI (with bg of IHD) if suddenly stopped?

A

B-blockers (need to wean gradually) likely to cause rebound myocardial ischaemia

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71
Q

What abx is used to treat syphillis?

A

Benzathine benzylpenicillin (can cause subsequent fever and tach as bacterial walls are being distroyed)

72
Q

What electrolyte needs careful monitoring in lithium prescriptions?

A

Sodium. can become hypernatraemic.
Also need to be aware of confusion, tremors and vomiting (OD symptoms)

73
Q

Which anti-psychotic can cause agranulocytosis and interacts with ciprofloxacin?

A

Clozapine

(cipro increases cloazpine levels) and causes symptoms like drowsiness, hyperthermia, confusion, hypersalivating and seizures

74
Q

What are the side effects of lithium toxicity?

A

Nausea, diarrhoea, myoclonus, fasciculations, polyuria, long qt

75
Q

What happens when steroid creams are used on a fungal rash?

A

Itching stops, but rash spreads and changes due to partial remission and subsequent growth. Causes a bizarre rash

76
Q

When switching from mini-pill to cocp, how long are barrier methods required? and what is the duration of the hormone free interval?

A

7 days for condoms unless switch is on day 6 of menstrual cycle (in which case only 2 days of condoms needed)
0 days - can be switched straight away

77
Q

What interaction occurs between clarithromycin and citalopram?

A

Both lengthen QT interval
-palpitations and light headedness

78
Q

Which SNRI/SSRIs are associated with withdrawal effects upon stopping due to short half lifes?

A

Venlefaxine and paroxetine

-dizziness, headaches, vomiting, anxiety

79
Q

Which contraceptive is contraindicated in breastfeeding mothers before 6 weeks?

A

COCP - can limit milk supply but at 6 weeks milk should be well established

80
Q

Which vaccinations include egg?

A

Yellow fever, some hep a and flu vaccines

81
Q

What anti-malarial drug can cause neuropsychiatric side effects?

A

Mefloquine

82
Q

What are the different names of Emergency contraception?

A

-Copper IUD - up to 120hrs
-Levonorgestrel 1.5mg - up to 72hrs (3mg in BMI >26
-Ullipristal acetate 30mg - up to 120 hrs

Be aware of conditions that inhibit absorption

83
Q

What are the major Framingham criteria for ccf?

A

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
neck vein distension
radiographic cardiomegaly
acute pulmonary oedema
weight loss 4.5kg in response to treatment

84
Q

What are the minor framingham criteria for ccf?

A

b/l ankle oedema
nocturnal cough
dypnoea on normal exertion
hepatomegaly
pleural effusion

85
Q

What are the major revised jones criteria for rheumatic fever?

A

-carditis
-arthritis
-sydehnhams chorea
-erythema marginatum
-subcut nodules

86
Q

What are the minor criteria for revised jones for rheumatic fever?

A

rasied esr/crp, fever, olyarthralgia
prolonger pr interval

87
Q

What is rheumatic fever?

A

-an immunological reaction to a recent strep pyogenes infection with 2 major criteria or 1 major and 2 minor criteria

88
Q

What are some potential complications of CABG?

A

Loss of memory (transient)
renal failure
MI
stroke
Coma with severe brain damage

89
Q

What murmur is associated with a pulsatile liver?

A

-tricuspid regurg

90
Q

Which murmur is a diastolic murmur heard loudest at the left sternal edge and during inspiration and associated with a raised jvp?

A

-tricuspid stenosis

91
Q

What murmur is a diastolic murmur at the left side of the sternum and loudest on inspiration?

A

-pulmonary regurg

92
Q

What conditions might you hear a pulmonary regurg murmur?

A

Primary pulmonary hypertension
COPD

If the murmur is heard with pulmonary hypertension and mitral stenosis - graham steell murmur

93
Q

What is the graham steell murmur?

A

pulmonary regurgitation murmur with pulmonary hypertension and mitral stenosis

94
Q

How do you clinically differentiate pulmonary regurgitation and aortic regurgitation?

A

aortic regurgitation has a collapsing pulse

95
Q

What is the most common cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

amyloidosis

other causes: malignancy, haemochromatosis, sarcoidosis, disease of unknown origin

96
Q

What measurement of an aortic aneurysm is a patient no longer allowed to drive and the dvla must be informed?

A

6.5 cm (dvla informed and no driving
6-6.5 (dvla informed and annual surveillance)

HGV: 5.5+ unable to drive and dvla must be informed regardless of size

Can all be revoked once surgical correction undertaken

97
Q

What is becks triad?

A

hypotension
raised jvp
muffled heart sounds

suggestive of cardiac tamponade

98
Q

What are the features of tetralogy of fallot?

A

-VSD
-overriding aorta
-right ventricular outflow obstruction ie pulmonary stenosis
-right ventricular hypertrophy

99
Q

How might tetralogy of fallot present?

A

-infant displaying cyanosis especially when feeding, habit of squatting, clubbing present

100
Q

What is decubitis angina?

A

angina induced by lying down

101
Q

What is variant (prinzmetal’s) angina?

A

-occuring at rest as a result of coronary artery spasm (rare and usually occurs at night)

102
Q

What’s the first line intervention for paediatric aortic stenosis?

A

-balloon angioplasty

103
Q

What are the causes of LBBB?

A

-cardiomyopathy
-idiopathic fibrosis
-IHD
-hypertension

104
Q

What are the causes of RBBB?

A

-Cor pulmonale
-Pulmonary embbolism
-Can be a normal variant

105
Q

what ecg changes will you find in hypokalaemia?

A

flattened t waves, st depression, prominent u waves,
various arrythmias

106
Q

What ecg changes will you find in hypercalcaemia?

A

shortened qt interval

107
Q

what ecg changes will you find in hypocalcaemia?

A

prolonged qt interval

108
Q

What are absolute contraindications to thrombolysis?

A

previous intracranial haemorrhage
ischaemic stroke <6m
cerebral neoplasm or av malformation
recent major trauma/surgery/head injury <3w
aortic dissection
active bleeding or known bleeding disorder
GI bleed <1m
non compressible punctures ie LP or liver biopsy <24hrs

109
Q

What are the relative contraindications to thrombolysis?

A

TIA <6m
anticoagulant therapy
pregancy or <1m post partum
refractory hypertension (>180/110)
advanced liver disease
IE
active peptic ulcer
prolonged/traumatic resusW

110
Q

What antiplatelet therapy should be used for patients who are awaiting PCI?

A

-prasugrel and aspirin

111
Q

If a patient is awaiting to undergo PCI but already takes aspirin, what should the pt be given if experiencing an MI?

A

clopidogrel and aspirin

112
Q

Which antiplatelet is contraindicated in prev tia or stroke?

A

prasugrel

113
Q

What’s the most appropriate method of imaging a suspected aortic dissection?

A

TOE

114
Q

Which respiratory virus presents with dyspnoea and fever with a thrombocytopenia and low lymphocyte count?

A

Avian flu - treated with oseltamivir

115
Q

What is histoplasmosis and what are the risk factors?

A

infection caused by inhaling spores of histoplasma capsulatum.
fungus can be found in soil and spores grow in presence of bird/bat droppings.

-risk factors: HIV infection, endemic area travel, exposure to bats

116
Q

How does histoplasmosis present?

A

-presents 1-3 weeks after exposure. usually self resolving
-pts with hiv need referral to specialist and consideration of anti-fungals.

117
Q

How does histoplasmosis present?

A

fever, headache, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, fatigue and malaise.
-presents 1-3 weeks after exposure

118
Q

What are risk factors for pneumocystis jirovecci?

A

HIV, immunocomprimised state, chronic corticosteroid therapy, prior pneumocystis pneumona

-treated with co-trimoxazole

119
Q

What is cor pulmonale?

A

systolic and diastolic overload of right ventricle as a result of pulmonary hypertension

120
Q

What causes acute cor pulmonale

A

-PE
-acute respiratory distress syndrome
-vasoocclusive crisis due to sickle cell
-severe acute asthma

121
Q

What causes chronic cor pulmonale?

A

chronic pulmonary hypertension from chronic lung diseases, pulmonary vascular disorders, neuromuscular diseases and thoracic cage abnormalities (kyphosis)

122
Q

Which lung cancer is most commonly associated with non-smokers?

A

adenocarcinoma (non-small cell)
often located peripherally on lungs

123
Q

Which lung cancer is associated with paroneoplastic syndromes?

A

-small cell

-associated strongly with cigarette smoking

124
Q

How does coal worker’s pneumoconiosis present?

A

SOB, black sputum, numerous small pulmonary nodules about 1cm in size

125
Q

What is caplan syndrome?

A

-RA and pneumoconiosis (traditionally due to coal dust)

126
Q

What are some common causes of extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

A

-cheese workers lung
-bird fanciers lung
-mushroom workers lung
-farmers lung

127
Q

When is LTOT indicated in a COPD pt?

A

Stable disease (not acute exacerbation)
2 separate ABGs showing pa02 <7.3 and on optimal therapy

128
Q

What antibodies are present in eosinophillic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (churg strauss)?

A

p-anca

autoimmune triad of eosinophillia, asthma, vasculitis. Often begins with sinusitis, worseing allergies and then asthma

129
Q

What proteins levels are involved in exudative and transudative pleural effusions?

A

exudative >35
transudative <25

130
Q

What are conditions that may require LTOT?

A

Severe chronic asthma, cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, pulmonary vascular disease (pulmonary hypertension), pulmonary malignacy, copd, chronic cardiac failure, interstitial lung disease

131
Q

What is granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

A

multi-system vasculitis affecting the upper airways, lungs and kidneys

132
Q

What antibody is present in granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

A

c-anca

133
Q

What genetic defect is goodpastures syndrome associated with?
What antibodies will be present?

A

-HLA DR15

-anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

134
Q

What is goodpastures syndrome?

A

an auto immune condition that attacks the basement membrane of lung and kidneys

135
Q

Which bacteria is associated with production of ‘red-currant jelly’?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

-commonly affects immunocomprimised, alcholics and diabetics

-cavitation on cxr

136
Q

Which bacteria demonstrates patchy consolidation on cxr in a pneumonia case?

A

-staph aureus - can cause a cavitating b/l pneumonia

-commonly ass. with ivdu or pts at risk ie cystic fibrosis

137
Q

Which bacteria is associated with erythema multiforme and a haemolytic anaemia when it causes pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae
-common in university students/close community settings
-hacking cough and couple weeks of coryzal symptoms

138
Q

What bacteria is commonly associated with bronchiectasis and cystic fibrosis for opportunistic infections?

A

psuedomonas aeruginosa

-can also be common cause of HAP and found in those who have had recent surgery or on ventilation

139
Q

What are the side effects of pyrazinamide?

A

-arthralgia
-hyperuricaemia
-rashes
-rarely hepatitis

140
Q

What are the side effects of rifampicin?

A

-red urine
-muscle weakness

141
Q

What are the side effects of isoniazid?

A

hepatitis
peripheral neuritis

142
Q

what are the side effects of ethambutol?

A

visual disturbances

143
Q

Which ‘mab’ can cause ccf as side effect?

A

-infliximab

144
Q

What is a pathognomonic sign of sarcoidosis?

A

Lupus pernio (purple-red-blue lesions on the extremeitis - fingers, toes, ears, nose)

145
Q

What are potential complications of a CAP?

A

-pneumothorax
-pleural effusion
-acute renal failure
-bronchiectasis
-empyema
-lung abscesses (often with klebsiella or staph)
-DVT

146
Q

What genetic mutation is associated with cystic fibrosis?

A

DF508

147
Q

How is idiopathic interstitial fibrosis best managed?

A

combination of prednisolone, azathiorpine and acetylcysteine

148
Q

What are the classical features of marfans syndrome?

A

-tall, slim individual,
-family history - AD disorder of connective tissue
-MSK abnormalities, ocular lens subluxation aortic dilatation
-at risk of developing pneumothoraxes and emphysemetous bullae

149
Q

Which medication is used for patients who have haemachromatosis if they have contraindications to regular phlebotomy?

A

-desferroxamine

(can also be used for iron overdose)

150
Q

How might someone with a new diagnosis of wilsons disease present?

A

-abnormal lfts
-resting tremor in one arm
-difficulty concentrating
-low mood
-kayser-fleisher rings

copper builds up in basal ganglia and liver

151
Q

How is wilsons disease treated?

A

penicillamine

152
Q

Which biliary disease is associated with UC?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

153
Q

What can primary sclerosing cholangitis increase the risk of ?

A

cholangiocarcinoma

154
Q

What symptoms may someone with vitamin B3 (niacin) present with?

A

4Ds
-diarrhoea, dermatitis, dementia and death

(can be fatal if not treated)

155
Q

What are some potential liver tumours?

A

-haemangioma (common and benigin - no treatment needed)
-adenoma - ass with COCP
-angiosarcoma and hepatocellular carcinoma (malignant)

156
Q

What is carcinoid syndrome and how can it present?

A

tumours from neural crest (typically ileum and appendix)
-secrete 5HT - flushed appearance
-presents with abdo pain, diarrhoea
-pulmonary stenosis- bibasal creps

157
Q

How is carcinoid syndrome ix and treated?

A

-Urinary 5HIAA measurement
-Octreotide

158
Q

What are some drugs that can cause pancreatitis?

A

-azathioprine
-mesalazine
-metoclopramide
-erythromycin

159
Q

What cells are present on blood film in coeliac diseaese?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies
-anaemia

160
Q

What antibody is associated with primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

AMA anti-M2 autoantibodies

161
Q

What bowel finding is typical of ulcerative colitis?

A

crypt abscesses and rectal mucosa inflammation

162
Q

What are risk factors for oesophageal cancer?

A

males, >60, >10 yr hx of GORD, smoker, obesity

163
Q

What cells are present in barretts oesophagus?

A

metaplasia of squamous cell to columnar epithelium

164
Q

What are common symptoms of autoimmune hepatits 1?

A

jaundice, hepatomegaly, arthralgia
-age 10-20 or 45-74 most common
-ANA or smooth muscle antibodies

165
Q

What symptoms would someone with granulomatosis with polyangiitis present with?

A

-long hx of epistaxis, ulcers, small septal perforation
-chronic cough with occasional haemoptysis
-renal impairment

(chronic vasulitis of small and medium vessels)

166
Q

What is a branchial cyst?

A

congenital epithelial cyst which is possible arising from a non-disappearance from the cervial sinus. can present as a slowly enlarging lateral neck mass

167
Q

what features are more indicative of quinsy as opposed to tonsilitis?

A

-trismus
-hallatosis

168
Q

What are the 6 Ts causing cyanotic congenital heart defects?

A

-tetralogy of fallot
-transposiiton of great arteries
-truncus arteriosus
-total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
-tricuspid valve abnormalities
-ton of others: hypoplastic left heart, pulmonary atresia

169
Q

What are the acyanotic congenital heart defects?

A

VSD, ASD, PDA, coarctation of the aorta

170
Q

What are drugs that can reduce the frequency of relapses for relapsing remitting MS?

A

-interferon
-Glatiramer
-Ponesimod
-natalizumab

171
Q

What is riluzole?

A

A treatment for MND - glutamate antagonist

172
Q

What electromyography patterns might be seen in a pt with MND?

A

-reduced number of spikes
-increased duration and amplitude of action potentials
-spontaneous fibrillation potentials

173
Q

What medications can be used to treat myasthenia gravis?

A

-pyridostigmine
-azathioprine
-corticosteroids
-plasma exchange (in crisis)

Also can offer thymectomy (even if there is no thymoma present)

174
Q

What features are common in neurofibromatosis 1?

A

(AD inheritance)
dermal neurofibromas
axillary freckling
lisch nodules of the iris
malignant brain tumours (astrocytomas of optic nerve)

175
Q

What features are common in neurofibromatosis 2?

A

(rarer than type 1)
-bilateral vestibular schwannomas
-spinal cord tumours
-cafe-au-lait spots
-derma neurofibromas

176
Q

What is the treatment for AML?

A

t(15;17)
all trans-retinoic acid

177
Q

What is the curative treatment for cml?

A

stem cell transplant

can have tyrosine kinase inhibitors (imatinib), hydroxyurea and alpha-interferon if not fit enough

178
Q

what is curative treatment for cll? (especially young pts with progressive disease)

A

stem cell transplant

MSRA (1 decks)

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