MSRA Flashcards
1
Q
What vaccinations are included in the 8 weeks immunisations?
A
-6-in-1 vaccine (diphtheria, hep b, hib, polio, tetanus, whooping cough)
-rotavirus
-men b
2
Q
What vaccinations are included in the 12 week immunisations?
A
-6-in-1 vaccine
-pneumococcal vaccine
-rotavirus
3
Q
What vaccinations are included in the 16 week immunisations?
A
-6-in-1 vaccine
-men b vaccine
4
Q
What are the live vaccines that need to be cautious of giving in pregnancy or immunocompromised?
A
-BCG
-MMR
-Rotavirus
-influenza
-Covid
-varicella
-yellow fever
-typhoid
-polio
5
Q
What vaccines would a 1 year old receive?
A
Hib/men c
MMR
Pneumococcal
Menb
6
Q
What vaccines would a 3 yr 4 month receive?
A
MMR
4-in-1 pre school booster (diphtheria, polio, tetanus, whooping cough)
7
Q
What vaccines would a 12-13 year old receive?
A
HPV vaccine
8
Q
What vaccine would a 14 year old receive?
A
-Td/IPV vaccine (tetanus, diphtheria, polio)
-MenACWY
9
Q
What antibodies would be present in drug induced lupus?
A
Anti-histone antibody
10
Q
What antibodies would be present in dermatomyositis?
A
-Anti -mi -2 antibodies (strong predictive value)
-anti - jo - 1 antibodies (20%)
10
Q
What antibodies would be present in SLE?
A
Anti-nuclear antibodies
11
Q
What rash would someone with dermatomyositis present with?
A
-Purple spots on bony prominences - particularly the knuckles.
-Heliotrope rash on eyelids
12
Q
Which antibodies are likely to be present with someone who has Limited systemic sclerosis?
A
-Anti-centromere antibodies
(Limited to face, hands and feet but is the old CREST syndrome)
13
Q
What are the 5 types of malaria that affect humans?
A
-falciparum, vivax, ovale, malariae, knowlesi
14
Q
Which virus is associated with nasopharyngeal cancer?
A
-EBV
15
Q
What is an example of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
A
-Asthma, allergic rhinitis, anaphylaxis
-interaction of mast cell-bound IgE with allergen molecules
16
Q
What is an example of a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?
A
-Goodpastures syndrome, ABO incompatability, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
-antibody-dependent reaction
17
Q
What is an example of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction?
A
-Systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis
-immune complex disease
18
Q
What complications can occur for a fetus with a mother infected with toxoplasmosis?
A
-Neonatal seizures
-Hydrocephalus
-Chorioretinitis
-Cerebral calcification
19
Q
What antibodies are present in Sjogrens syndrome?
A
-Anti-La and anti-RO
20
Q
What antibodies are present in anti-phospholipid syndrome?
A
-Anti-cardiolipin antibody
21
Q
What are the clinical features of anti-phospholipid syndrome?
A
Coagulation defect
Livedoreticularis (mottled skin change)
Obstetric: recurrent miscarriages
Thrombocytopenias
22
Q
What antibodies are are found in diffuse systemic sclerosis?
A
-Anti-topoisomerase -1 antibodies
and 20% anti-RNA polymerase
23
Q
How does vitreous haemorrhage present?
A
Painless vision loss and haemorrhages that change colour on fundoscopy. Associated with diabetic retinopathy
24
Which eye conditions are associated with pupil defects?
Central artery and vein occlusions
25
What eye condition is associated with a 'stormy sunset' fundus?
Central vein occlusion
26
What eye condition is associated with a pale retina and 'cherry red spot' - (macula has different blood supply)
Central artery occlusion
27
What symptom do patients with a retinal detachment describe?
Floaters
(retinal detachment is a rare disease)
28
How is wet macular degeneration treated?
anti-vascular endothelial growth factor injected into the vitreous to stop the development of new leaky vessels (sudden development)
29
How is dry macular degeneration treated?
No treatment (presence of drusen)
30
What genotype is behcets disease associated with?
HLA B51 - presents with arthritis, ocular symptoms and ulceration of mouth
31
What eye condition does chlamydia cause?
Trachoma - treat with oral azithromycin
32
What is a macular hole?
A full thickness defect in the retinal tissue
-punched out area with surrounding oedema (often due to age)
-more common in women, cataracts are complication, OCT can diagnose and stage holes may need surgery to correct
33
What is a phoria in terms of eyes?
deviation present some of the time (ie when tired)
34
What is a tropia in terms of eyes?
Deviation present all of the time
35
What does a cross-cover test detect when examining the eyes?
a phoria
36
What does a cover-uncover test detect when examining the eyes?
A tropia
37
What should patients with anterior uveitis be commenced on to present posterior synechaie?
Cyclopentolate or atropine drops
38
What is posterior synechaie?
when the pupil sticks to the lens in anterior uveitis.
-the pupil looks irregular and dilates poorly. -can result into intraocular pressure increase
39
How can squints be categorised?
Paralytic and non-paralytic
40
How can non-paralytic squints be categorised?
Convergent (esotropia) and divergent (exotropia)
41
What is a convergent squint?
inward ocular deviation
42
What is a divergent squint?
outward ocular deviation
43
What is a pterygium?
a benign fibrovascular growth on the conjunctiva which can extend to the cornea and interfere with vision
-usually bilateral and asymmetrical and located near nasal aspect of eye.
-ass with wind, dust and uv light
44
What is a pinguecula?
a smaller version of fibrovascular growth which is yellow in colour and does not involve the cornea
45
Which test is diagnostic for acromegaly?
oral glucose tolerance test with growth hormone measurement
46
What features are common for someone who is living with Kallman syndrome?
-Delayed puberty (hypothalamic gonadotrophic deficiency)
-absent/low sense of smell
-nerve deafness
-colour blindness
- abnormalities
-cleft palate and other facial abnormalities
47
Which diabetic medication increases weight?
Sulphonylureas
48
What is Nelson's syndrome? (hint endocrine)
B/L Adrenalectomy (to treat cushing's disease) causing ACTH pituitary macroadenoma to grow (as no negative feedback)
49
What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?
Papillary
50
What medication is used to treat acromegaly and what is a side effect?
-Ocreotide
-Gallstones
51
What is the most common cause of precocious puberty in young girls?
Hamartoma of posterior hypothalamus
-treated with long acting GnRH analogues to inhibit pubertyW
52
What is common features of Turner syndrome?
45XO
-short stature, delayed puberty
53
Which type 2 diabetic medication is least likely to cause hypoglycaemia?
Metformin
54
What test is used to detect cushings?
Dexamethasone suppression test
55
What test is used to detect adrenal insufficiency?
Short synacthen test
56
What test is used to detect diabetes insipidus?
Water deprivation test
57
What features are useful in diagosing graves disease?
Exophthalmos
Ophthalmoplegia
Pretibial myxoedema
Thyroid acropachy
58
How does hyperaldosteronism present?
hypertension, hypokalaemia, metabolic alkalosis
59
What side effect is propanolol associated with?
Cold fingers/toes and tiredness
60
What side effect is acabose associated with?
Flatulence and diarrhoea
61
Is codeine safe in pregnancy?
It can be taken in pregnancy but if it is metabolised quickly, it can be passed on in breastmilk to the infant who then may get a high dose of morphine.
Avoid if possible
(dihydrocodeine is safer as not a prodrug)
62
What medications, as well as gent, can cause hearing loss?
Erythromycine, Furosemide and aspirin
63
Which HRT method is best to avoid migraines in prone women?
Patches - continuous steady release
64
What is a contraindication to starting HRT?
Recent MI
65
Which hayfever/asthma medication is associated with bad dreams and diarrhoea?
Montelukast
66
Which SSRI has the longest half life and need to be cautious if changing anti-depressents?
Fluoxetine
67
Why must LABAs always been used in conjunction with ICS?
Without, causes worsening asthma control and may cause exacerbation (LABAs usually prescribed as combination inhalers)
68
What is a potential side effect of methylphenidate for ADHD?
Falling height centiles
-can have planned treatment holidays to allow growth catch up
69
What abx is associated with increased risk of MI/stroke?
Clarithromycin
70
What type of medication can cause MI (with bg of IHD) if suddenly stopped?
B-blockers (need to wean gradually) likely to cause rebound myocardial ischaemia
71
What abx is used to treat syphillis?
Benzathine benzylpenicillin (can cause subsequent fever and tach as bacterial walls are being distroyed)
72
What electrolyte needs careful monitoring in lithium prescriptions?
Sodium. can become hypernatraemic.
Also need to be aware of confusion, tremors and vomiting (OD symptoms)
73
Which anti-psychotic can cause agranulocytosis and interacts with ciprofloxacin?
Clozapine
(cipro increases cloazpine levels) and causes symptoms like drowsiness, hyperthermia, confusion, hypersalivating and seizures
74
What are the side effects of lithium toxicity?
Nausea, diarrhoea, myoclonus, fasciculations, polyuria, long qt
75
What happens when steroid creams are used on a fungal rash?
Itching stops, but rash spreads and changes due to partial remission and subsequent growth. Causes a bizarre rash
76
When switching from mini-pill to cocp, how long are barrier methods required? and what is the duration of the hormone free interval?
7 days for condoms unless switch is on day 6 of menstrual cycle (in which case only 2 days of condoms needed)
0 days - can be switched straight away
77
What interaction occurs between clarithromycin and citalopram?
Both lengthen QT interval
-palpitations and light headedness
78
Which SNRI/SSRIs are associated with withdrawal effects upon stopping due to short half lifes?
Venlefaxine and paroxetine
-dizziness, headaches, vomiting, anxiety
79
Which contraceptive is contraindicated in breastfeeding mothers before 6 weeks?
COCP - can limit milk supply but at 6 weeks milk should be well established
80
Which vaccinations include egg?
Yellow fever, some hep a and flu vaccines
81
What anti-malarial drug can cause neuropsychiatric side effects?
Mefloquine
82
What are the different names of Emergency contraception?
-Copper IUD - up to 120hrs
-Levonorgestrel 1.5mg - up to 72hrs (3mg in BMI >26
-Ullipristal acetate 30mg - up to 120 hrs
Be aware of conditions that inhibit absorption
83
What are the major Framingham criteria for ccf?
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
neck vein distension
radiographic cardiomegaly
acute pulmonary oedema
weight loss 4.5kg in response to treatment
84
What are the minor framingham criteria for ccf?
b/l ankle oedema
nocturnal cough
dypnoea on normal exertion
hepatomegaly
pleural effusion
85
What are the major revised jones criteria for rheumatic fever?
-carditis
-arthritis
-sydehnhams chorea
-erythema marginatum
-subcut nodules
86
What are the minor criteria for revised jones for rheumatic fever?
rasied esr/crp, fever, olyarthralgia
prolonger pr interval
87
What is rheumatic fever?
-an immunological reaction to a recent strep pyogenes infection with 2 major criteria or 1 major and 2 minor criteria
88
What are some potential complications of CABG?
Loss of memory (transient)
renal failure
MI
stroke
Coma with severe brain damage
89
What murmur is associated with a pulsatile liver?
-tricuspid regurg
90
Which murmur is a diastolic murmur heard loudest at the left sternal edge and during inspiration and associated with a raised jvp?
-tricuspid stenosis
91
What murmur is a diastolic murmur at the left side of the sternum and loudest on inspiration?
-pulmonary regurg
92
What conditions might you hear a pulmonary regurg murmur?
Primary pulmonary hypertension
COPD
If the murmur is heard with pulmonary hypertension and mitral stenosis - graham steell murmur
93
What is the graham steell murmur?
pulmonary regurgitation murmur with pulmonary hypertension and mitral stenosis
94
How do you clinically differentiate pulmonary regurgitation and aortic regurgitation?
aortic regurgitation has a collapsing pulse
95
What is the most common cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
amyloidosis
other causes: malignancy, haemochromatosis, sarcoidosis, disease of unknown origin
96
What measurement of an aortic aneurysm is a patient no longer allowed to drive and the dvla must be informed?
6.5 cm (dvla informed and no driving
6-6.5 (dvla informed and annual surveillance)
HGV: 5.5+ unable to drive and dvla must be informed regardless of size
Can all be revoked once surgical correction undertaken
97
What is becks triad?
hypotension
raised jvp
muffled heart sounds
suggestive of cardiac tamponade
98
What are the features of tetralogy of fallot?
-VSD
-overriding aorta
-right ventricular outflow obstruction ie pulmonary stenosis
-right ventricular hypertrophy
99
How might tetralogy of fallot present?
-infant displaying cyanosis especially when feeding, habit of squatting, clubbing present
100
What is decubitis angina?
angina induced by lying down
101
What is variant (prinzmetal's) angina?
-occuring at rest as a result of coronary artery spasm (rare and usually occurs at night)
102
What's the first line intervention for paediatric aortic stenosis?
-balloon angioplasty
103
What are the causes of LBBB?
-cardiomyopathy
-idiopathic fibrosis
-IHD
-hypertension
104
What are the causes of RBBB?
-Cor pulmonale
-Pulmonary embbolism
-Can be a normal variant
105
what ecg changes will you find in hypokalaemia?
flattened t waves, st depression, prominent u waves,
various arrythmias
106
What ecg changes will you find in hypercalcaemia?
shortened qt interval
107
what ecg changes will you find in hypocalcaemia?
prolonged qt interval
108
What are absolute contraindications to thrombolysis?
previous intracranial haemorrhage
ischaemic stroke <6m
cerebral neoplasm or av malformation
recent major trauma/surgery/head injury <3w
aortic dissection
active bleeding or known bleeding disorder
GI bleed <1m
non compressible punctures ie LP or liver biopsy <24hrs
109
What are the relative contraindications to thrombolysis?
TIA <6m
anticoagulant therapy
pregancy or <1m post partum
refractory hypertension (>180/110)
advanced liver disease
IE
active peptic ulcer
prolonged/traumatic resusW
110
What antiplatelet therapy should be used for patients who are awaiting PCI?
-prasugrel and aspirin
111
If a patient is awaiting to undergo PCI but already takes aspirin, what should the pt be given if experiencing an MI?
clopidogrel and aspirin
112
Which antiplatelet is contraindicated in prev tia or stroke?
prasugrel
113
What's the most appropriate method of imaging a suspected aortic dissection?
TOE
114
Which respiratory virus presents with dyspnoea and fever with a thrombocytopenia and low lymphocyte count?
Avian flu - treated with oseltamivir
115
What is histoplasmosis and what are the risk factors?
infection caused by inhaling spores of histoplasma capsulatum.
fungus can be found in soil and spores grow in presence of bird/bat droppings.
-risk factors: HIV infection, endemic area travel, exposure to bats
116
How does histoplasmosis present?
-presents 1-3 weeks after exposure. usually self resolving
-pts with hiv need referral to specialist and consideration of anti-fungals.
117
How does histoplasmosis present?
fever, headache, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, fatigue and malaise.
-presents 1-3 weeks after exposure
118
What are risk factors for pneumocystis jirovecci?
HIV, immunocomprimised state, chronic corticosteroid therapy, prior pneumocystis pneumona
-treated with co-trimoxazole
119
What is cor pulmonale?
systolic and diastolic overload of right ventricle as a result of pulmonary hypertension
120
What causes acute cor pulmonale
-PE
-acute respiratory distress syndrome
-vasoocclusive crisis due to sickle cell
-severe acute asthma
121
What causes chronic cor pulmonale?
chronic pulmonary hypertension from chronic lung diseases, pulmonary vascular disorders, neuromuscular diseases and thoracic cage abnormalities (kyphosis)
122
Which lung cancer is most commonly associated with non-smokers?
adenocarcinoma (non-small cell)
often located peripherally on lungs
123
Which lung cancer is associated with paroneoplastic syndromes?
-small cell
-associated strongly with cigarette smoking
124
How does coal worker's pneumoconiosis present?
SOB, black sputum, numerous small pulmonary nodules about 1cm in size
125
What is caplan syndrome?
-RA and pneumoconiosis (traditionally due to coal dust)
126
What are some common causes of extrinsic allergic alveolitis?
-cheese workers lung
-bird fanciers lung
-mushroom workers lung
-farmers lung
127
When is LTOT indicated in a COPD pt?
Stable disease (not acute exacerbation)
2 separate ABGs showing pa02 <7.3 and on optimal therapy
128
What antibodies are present in eosinophillic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (churg strauss)?
p-anca
autoimmune triad of eosinophillia, asthma, vasculitis. Often begins with sinusitis, worseing allergies and then asthma
129
What proteins levels are involved in exudative and transudative pleural effusions?
exudative >35
transudative <25
130
What are conditions that may require LTOT?
Severe chronic asthma, cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, pulmonary vascular disease (pulmonary hypertension), pulmonary malignacy, copd, chronic cardiac failure, interstitial lung disease
131
What is granulomatosis with polyangiitis?
multi-system vasculitis affecting the upper airways, lungs and kidneys
132
What antibody is present in granulomatosis with polyangiitis?
c-anca
133
What genetic defect is goodpastures syndrome associated with?
What antibodies will be present?
-HLA DR15
-anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies
134
What is goodpastures syndrome?
an auto immune condition that attacks the basement membrane of lung and kidneys
135
Which bacteria is associated with production of 'red-currant jelly'?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
-commonly affects immunocomprimised, alcholics and diabetics
-cavitation on cxr
136
Which bacteria demonstrates patchy consolidation on cxr in a pneumonia case?
-staph aureus - can cause a cavitating b/l pneumonia
-commonly ass. with ivdu or pts at risk ie cystic fibrosis
137
Which bacteria is associated with erythema multiforme and a haemolytic anaemia when it causes pneumonia?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
-common in university students/close community settings
-hacking cough and couple weeks of coryzal symptoms
138
What bacteria is commonly associated with bronchiectasis and cystic fibrosis for opportunistic infections?
psuedomonas aeruginosa
-can also be common cause of HAP and found in those who have had recent surgery or on ventilation
139
What are the side effects of pyrazinamide?
-arthralgia
-hyperuricaemia
-rashes
-rarely hepatitis
140
What are the side effects of rifampicin?
-red urine
-muscle weakness
141
What are the side effects of isoniazid?
hepatitis
peripheral neuritis
142
what are the side effects of ethambutol?
visual disturbances
143
Which 'mab' can cause ccf as side effect?
-infliximab
144
What is a pathognomonic sign of sarcoidosis?
Lupus pernio (purple-red-blue lesions on the extremeitis - fingers, toes, ears, nose)
145
What are potential complications of a CAP?
-pneumothorax
-pleural effusion
-acute renal failure
-bronchiectasis
-empyema
-lung abscesses (often with klebsiella or staph)
-DVT
146
What genetic mutation is associated with cystic fibrosis?
DF508
147
How is idiopathic interstitial fibrosis best managed?
combination of prednisolone, azathiorpine and acetylcysteine
148
What are the classical features of marfans syndrome?
-tall, slim individual,
-family history - AD disorder of connective tissue
-MSK abnormalities, ocular lens subluxation aortic dilatation
-at risk of developing pneumothoraxes and emphysemetous bullae
149
Which medication is used for patients who have haemachromatosis if they have contraindications to regular phlebotomy?
-desferroxamine
(can also be used for iron overdose)
150
How might someone with a new diagnosis of wilsons disease present?
-abnormal lfts
-resting tremor in one arm
-difficulty concentrating
-low mood
-kayser-fleisher rings
copper builds up in basal ganglia and liver
151
How is wilsons disease treated?
penicillamine
152
Which biliary disease is associated with UC?
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
153
What can primary sclerosing cholangitis increase the risk of ?
cholangiocarcinoma
154
What symptoms may someone with vitamin B3 (niacin) present with?
4Ds
-diarrhoea, dermatitis, dementia and death
(can be fatal if not treated)
155
What are some potential liver tumours?
-haemangioma (common and benigin - no treatment needed)
-adenoma - ass with COCP
-angiosarcoma and hepatocellular carcinoma (malignant)
156
What is carcinoid syndrome and how can it present?
tumours from neural crest (typically ileum and appendix)
-secrete 5HT - flushed appearance
-presents with abdo pain, diarrhoea
-pulmonary stenosis- bibasal creps
157
How is carcinoid syndrome ix and treated?
-Urinary 5HIAA measurement
-Octreotide
158
What are some drugs that can cause pancreatitis?
-azathioprine
-mesalazine
-metoclopramide
-erythromycin
159
What cells are present on blood film in coeliac diseaese?
Howell-Jolly bodies
-anaemia
160
What antibody is associated with primary biliary cirrhosis?
AMA anti-M2 autoantibodies
161
What bowel finding is typical of ulcerative colitis?
crypt abscesses and rectal mucosa inflammation
162
What are risk factors for oesophageal cancer?
males, >60, >10 yr hx of GORD, smoker, obesity
163
What cells are present in barretts oesophagus?
metaplasia of squamous cell to columnar epithelium
164
What are common symptoms of autoimmune hepatits 1?
jaundice, hepatomegaly, arthralgia
-age 10-20 or 45-74 most common
-ANA or smooth muscle antibodies
165
What symptoms would someone with granulomatosis with polyangiitis present with?
-long hx of epistaxis, ulcers, small septal perforation
-chronic cough with occasional haemoptysis
-renal impairment
(chronic vasulitis of small and medium vessels)
166
What is a branchial cyst?
congenital epithelial cyst which is possible arising from a non-disappearance from the cervial sinus. can present as a slowly enlarging lateral neck mass
167
what features are more indicative of quinsy as opposed to tonsilitis?
-trismus
-hallatosis
168
What are the 6 Ts causing cyanotic congenital heart defects?
-tetralogy of fallot
-transposiiton of great arteries
-truncus arteriosus
-total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
-tricuspid valve abnormalities
-ton of others: hypoplastic left heart, pulmonary atresia
169
What are the acyanotic congenital heart defects?
VSD, ASD, PDA, coarctation of the aorta
170
What are drugs that can reduce the frequency of relapses for relapsing remitting MS?
-interferon
-Glatiramer
-Ponesimod
-natalizumab
171
What is riluzole?
A treatment for MND - glutamate antagonist
172
What electromyography patterns might be seen in a pt with MND?
-reduced number of spikes
-increased duration and amplitude of action potentials
-spontaneous fibrillation potentials
173
What medications can be used to treat myasthenia gravis?
-pyridostigmine
-azathioprine
-corticosteroids
-plasma exchange (in crisis)
Also can offer thymectomy (even if there is no thymoma present)
174
What features are common in neurofibromatosis 1?
(AD inheritance)
dermal neurofibromas
axillary freckling
lisch nodules of the iris
malignant brain tumours (astrocytomas of optic nerve)
175
What features are common in neurofibromatosis 2?
(rarer than type 1)
-bilateral vestibular schwannomas
-spinal cord tumours
-cafe-au-lait spots
-derma neurofibromas
176
What is the treatment for AML?
t(15;17)
all trans-retinoic acid
177
What is the curative treatment for cml?
stem cell transplant
can have tyrosine kinase inhibitors (imatinib), hydroxyurea and alpha-interferon if not fit enough
178
what is curative treatment for cll? (especially young pts with progressive disease)
stem cell transplant
179
Which medications are metabolised by CYP450?
COWPATS
c-ciclosporin, carbamazepine, citalopram
o-ocp
w-warfarin
p-phenytoin
a-acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil)
t-theophyline, tacrolimus
s-statins, steroids
180
what are inducers of p450 system?
phenytoin, carbamazapine
rifampicin
st johns wart
chronic alcohol intake
smoking
181
What are inhibitors of p450 system?
ciprofloxacin, erythromycin
isoniazid
ompeprazole,
amiodarone
allopurinol
fluconazole
valproate
acute alcohol intake
fluoxetine, sertraline
182
what needs monitoring for statins?
lfts
183
what needs monitoring for amiodarone?
tfts, lfts
184
what needs monitoring for methotrexate?
fbc, lft, u&E
185
what needs monitoring for azathioprine?
fbc, lft
186
ehat needs monitoring for lithium?
lithium, tft, u&e
187
what needs monitoring for sodium valproate?
lft
188
what abx treates legionella
clarithromycin and rifampicin
189
what abx treats pneumocystis carinii pneumonia?
co-trimoxazole
190
what pneumonia are cf pts prone to and how do they present?
staph pneumonia
-coloured sputum, dyspnoea, bilateral cavitating bronchopneumonia
-treated with fluclox and sometimes rifampicin
191
what is the criteria score to predict severity of pancreatitis from alochol and gallstones?
and solely alcohol drinkers?
modififed glasgow criteria (both)
ransons (alochol)
192
how many units are there in a standard pint of beer?
2
193
how many units are there in a 125ml glass of wine?
1
194
what is scabies treated with?
malathion or permethrin
195
which age range do teratomas usually present in?
20-30
196
which age range do seminomas usually present in?
30-40
197
what is courvoisier's law?
palpable gallbladder in jaundiced pt is unlikely gallstones.
if back pain present, likely pancreatic head cancer causing obstruction
198
how may thyrotoxicosis present?
infertility, weight loss despite increased appetite, oligomenorrhoea, emotional lability, sweating, tremor, diarrhoea, psychosis
199
symptoms of hypothyroidism?
tiredness, depression, weight gain, poor cognition, bradycardia, dry skin, gotire
200
what hba1c level is diagnostic of diabetes?
48 (6.5%) - (on 2 separate occasions if asymptomatic or on one occasion if symptomatic)
201
what level of fasting plasma glucose is used to diagnose diabetes?
>7 on 2 separate occasions
202
what level does a random plasma glucose level need to be to indicate diabetes (esp with symptoms)?
>11.1
203
When is the ogtt positive for diabetes at the 2 hr mark?
>11.1
204
what levels of glucose indicate impaired glucose tolerance?
fasting glucose of <7.8 and 2hr glucose of between 7.8-11.1
205
what infection do you get from drinking unpasteurised milk?
brucellosis
206
what is chagas disease?
tropical parasite called american trypanosomiasis - bite followed by flu like symptoms
at risk of developing heart disease, dilated bowel/oesohagus with chronic disease
207
what other drug is in co-beneldopa alongside levodopa?
benserazide (peripheral dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor)
208
what conditions can cause constrictive pericarditis?
unknown
tuberculosis
post viral pericarditis
connective tissue disorders
209
what dose of morphine is a 37.5 fentanyl patch equivalent to?no
90mg in 24 hrsa
210
are abx required pre-procedure post av replacement?
no
211
what is head lice called?
pediculosis capitis - looks like small buds attached to each follicle
-treated with pyrethrins
212
what diagnostic tool is used for ibs?
rome criteria
213
what kind of anaemia is common in greek/cypriot pts?
thalasseamia
214
when are auer rods seen in blood film?
acute promyelocytic leukaemia (type of AML)
215
when are tear-drop polikocytes seen in blood film?
myelofibrosis
216
when are smear cells seen in blood films?
CLL
217
When are spherocytes seen in blood film?
hereditary spherocytosis or autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
218
when are target cells found in blood film?
IDA or hyposplenism
