MSK SAEs Flashcards
A 72-year-old woman underwent right total knee arthroplasty 2 days ago. When you see her in
consultation, she tells you that she has numbness along the lateral portion of the incision site.
What is the most likely cause?
(a) Femoral or peroneal nerve injury
(b) Deep vein thrombosis
(c) Cutaneous nerve injury
(d) Temporary side effect from anesthesia
Answer: (c)
Commentary: Cutaneous sensory loss is a very common complication following primary total
knee arthroplasty. One study from 1995 found that 100% of patients had lateral skin flap
numbness, and more recent studies in 2004 and 2009 found 81%-86% of patients had lateral skin
flap numbness.In most cases, the numbness does improve with time (50% recovered in 2 years in the 2009study). Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and common peroneal nerve palsy are other known
complications of total knee arthroplasty.
Imaged with musculoskeletal ultrasound, normal tendon structure looks
a) hypoechoic, with hyperechoic septa.
b) hypoechoic , with fascicular pattern.
c) hyperechoic, with fibrillar echotexture.
d) hyperechoic, with posterior acoustic shadowing.
Answer:(c)
Commentary: Musculoskeletal ultrasound is an imaging modality that is able to identify and
characterize various soft tissue structures. Normal tendons appear as hyperechoic(bright echo)
structures with fibrillar or fiber-like pattern. Normal muscle appears as a hypoechoic(low echo)
structure with hyperechoic septa. Bone appears as a very hyperechoic structure with posterior
acoustic shadowing. Posterior acoustic shadowing is an artifact that refers to the anechoic
region(no echo) deep to the bone surface.
The third occipital nerve innervates which structure?
(a) C2-3 zygapophysial joint
(b) C2-3 intervertebral disc
(c) C3-4 zygapophysial joint
(d) C3-4 intervertebral disc
Answer:(a)
Commentary: The third occipital nerve(TON) innervates the C2-3 zygapophysial joint. The C3-4
zyagpophysial joint is innervated by the C3 and C4 medial branches. Innervation to the cervical
discs involves the sinuvertebral nerve, vertebral nerve and sympathetic trunk.
SAER-2011
- Injured workers with acute low back pain treated with high-dosage opioids compared to low-dose
or nonopioid medications demonstrated which outcome?
(a) Lower overall medical costs
(b) Same duration of disability
(c) Higher risk for surgery
(d) Shorter duration of opioid use
Answer: (c)
Commentary: Injured workers with acute low back pain who received higher dosages of opioids
in early treatment had adverse outcomes compared to patients given no or low-dose opioids. In
the high-dose opioid group, adverse outcomes included higher medical costs, prolonged
disability, higher risk for surgery, and continued use of opioids. The high-dose opioid group was
disabled 69 days longer than the non-opioid group, had a 3 times greater risk for surgery, and a 6-
times-greater risk of receiving long-term opioids. The severity of the low back injury was a strong
predictor of all outcomes.
- Hamstring injuries occur most commonly
a) at the proximal attachment of the lateral hamstrings to the pelvis.
b) during concentric contraction of the medial hamstrings.
c) at the distal attachment of the medial hamstrings to the tibia.
d) during eccentric contraction of the lateral hamstrings.
Answer: (d)
Commentary: The majority of hamstring injuries occur from indirect forces during running and
sprinting activities. Most injuries occur at the myotendinous junction, not at the osseous
attachments, during eccentric contraction of the hamstring. The lateral hamstrings (biceps
femoris) are affected more than the medial hamstrings (semitendinous and semimembranosus).
- For injured workers with chronic low back pain, which outcome is associated with better
performance during a functional capacity evaluation (FCE)?
(a) Shorter usage of temporary disability benefits
(b) Lower subjective reports of perceived disability
(c) Higher likelihood of sustainable work tolerance
(d) Fewer recurrences of low back pain over the next 12 months
Answer: (a)
Commentary: Functional capacity evaluations (FCEs) are commonly used to determine readiness
for return to work. These evaluations measure the injured worker’s functional abilities relative to
the physical demands required by the job. The clinical assumption is that workers who perform
better during FCEs will have a lower risk of reinjures and less pain exacerbation upon return to
work. One-year follow-up of patients with chronic low back pain whose FCE demonstrated
performance that met or exceeded physical job requirements did not demonstrate a reduction of
recurrent low back pain, improved occupational sustainability, or improved perception of
disability. Better FCE performance was mildly associated with faster return to work and shorter
duration of temporary disability benefits.
- Which statement regarding an independent medical examination (IME) is TRUE?
(a) The traditional physician-patient relationship is not maintained, and confidentiality is not
guaranteed.
(b) The examiner is exempt from potential liability since the purpose of the evaluation is to
assess medical-legal issues, not clinical issues.
(c) Treating providers may conduct an IME as long as records from other providers are also
reviewed.
(d) Because of potential conflicts of interest, only providers no longer in clinical practice
should conduct IMEs.
Answer: (a)
Commentary: In the IME context, a traditional physician-patient relationship does not exist, since
the evaluation does not include “intent to treat.” Confidentiality is not guaranteed, since the
examiner is expected to share certain medical information and findings with the referring party.
Because a “limited doctor-patient relationship” exists during an IME, the physician is responsible
for disclosing in the IME any medical findings that could affect the patient’s health, and he or she
is potentially liable for any harm, direct or indirect, that may be sustained by the person
examined. Only a provider who is uninvolved with an examinee’s treatment may conduct an
IME, although a treating provider may be an “expert witness.” Legal requirements for
qualification as an expert witness vary from state to state. There is no restriction regarding a
provider’s clinical status and eligibility to conduct IMEs.
- Comparing the functional outcomes at 1-year post treatment of 2 groups of patients with
nonspecific low back pain greater than 12-months’ duration and no prior history of lumbar fusion,
which finding regarding structured rehabilitation with cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) versus
lumbar fusion is TRUE?
(a) Better functional outcomes in the surgical group versus the CBT group
(b) Improvements in both groups with similar functional outcomes
(c) Better functional outcomes in the CBT group versus the surgical group
(d) Poor functional outcomes in the CBT group, but no consistent outcome in the surgical Group
Answer: (b)
Commentary: Randomized trials for surgery are difficult to conduct, particularly those that
compare surgical to nonsurgical treatment. While available studies do not allow a general
statement regarding the efficacy of fusion over nonsurgical care for discogenic back pain, 4 trials
suggest any advantage of surgery over nonsurgical care is modest, on average near or below the
minimally important change in the disability score. Both groups demonstrated improvement
compared to baseline. Highly structured rehabilitation with a cognitive-behavioral component
seems nearly equivalent to surgery in efficacy at 1 year, with fewer complications.
- A firefighter who is now 5 days postsurgery for a rotator cuff and labral tear is in significant pain, but is concerned about opioid use for pain control. He is concerned about becoming “addicted to the pain killers.” In educating the patient about opioids and the issues of addiction, dependence and tolerance, which statement is correct?
(a) While all 3 terms have subtle differences, they are essentially identical in meaning and
can be used interchangeably.
(b) Since he is a firefighter, he should avoid use of any opioids at all times since he is subject
to toxicology screening.
(c) Addiction is predictable and avoidable, and since he already concerned about it, he is
unlikely to have problems with addiction.
(d) Addiction is characterized by behavioral issues, whereas dependence and tolerance are
characterized by physiologic adaptation.
Answer: (d)
Commentary: Physical dependence, tolerance, and addiction are discrete and different phenomena
that are often confused. Addiction is characterized by behaviors that include one or more of the
following: impaired control over drug use, compulsive use, continued use despite harm, and
craving. Addiction is not a predictable drug effect, but represents an idiosyncratic adverse
reaction in biologically and psychosocially vulnerable individuals. Physical dependence is a state
of adaptation characterized by specific withdrawal symptoms that can be produced by abrupt
cessation, rapid dose reduction, and/or administration of an antagonist. Tolerance is a state of
adaptation that results in a decreased effect of a drug over time.
- You are asked to provide a brief synopsis of workers’ compensation benefits to the hospital’s case management department. Which statement about the benefits and services provided in the
workers’ compensation system is correct?
(a) The employer has to be at fault in order for the injured employee to seek medical care.
(b) Injured workers continue to receive their full wages as long as they are unable to work.
(c) Workers’ compensation programs are designed and administered by each individual state.
(d) Workers’ compensation is primarily financed by federal and state funds.
Answer: (c)
Commentary: Workers’ compensation provides benefits to workers who are injured on the job or have a work-related illness, regardless of who is at fault for the injury or illness. Benefits include medical treatment for work-related conditions and cash payments that partially replace lost wages. In the event that symptoms do not completely resolve, financial compensation is also provided. In exchange, an injured worker gives up the right to sue the employer because of a work-related injury or illness. Workers’ compensation programs are designed and administered by each state, and programs and policies vary from state to state. Workers’ compensation is financed almost exclusively by employers, not federal or state funds.
- A 22-year-old man who is right hand-dominant presents to your office with acute onset of right shoulder pain. He is a former college tennis player without a previous history of shoulder
pathology. Which test would you perform to evaluate for pathology involving the labrum of the
shoulder?
a) Hawkin test
b) Bowstring sign
c) O’Brien active compression test
d) Apley scratch test
Answer: (c)
Commentary: The O’Brien active compression test is used to evaluate and differentiate labral
tears (superior labrum anterior posterior – SLAP tears) from acromioclavicular joint pathology
and pain. The Hawkin test is an impingement test of the shoulder and is not intended to evaluate
tears of glenoid labrum. The bowstring sign is used to identify lumbar nerve root compression.
The Apley scratch test is used to assess the range of motion of the shoulder.
- A 30-year-old woman began running 2 weeks ago. She runs 4 miles a day, twice a week. She began experiencing bilateral lower leg pain. On physical examination, she reports diffuse pain along the medial tibia at the start of her run with improvement during the run. The most likely diagnosis is
a) stress fracture.
b) medial tibial stress syndrome.
c) anterior tibialis tendinitis.
d) tarsal tunnel syndrome.
Answer: (b)
Commentary: This woman presents with symptoms most consistent with medial tibial stress
syndrome (MTSS) or what has been termed “shin splints.” Pain from MTSS occurs along the
lower third of the posteromedial border of the tibia. A stress fracture is unlikely in this low
mileage runner who has had only 2 weeks of running activity. Stress fractures generally have a
focal area of pain and are not relieved with further running. Anterior tibialis tendinitis presents
with anterolateral pain along the dorsal aspect of the ankle. Tarsal tunnel syndrome is associated
with numbness and tingling in the foot.
- A man presents to your clinic complaining of buttock pain that radiates posteriorly down the thigh. On exam you note that he has a leg length discrepancy, symptoms are provoked by placing the affected limb in the FAIR position (hip in flexion, adduction and internal rotation), and he has a positive straight leg raise test. He has normal nerve conduction studies and a normal needle electromyography test. Treatments that may be beneficial include
(a) stretching exercises of the iliotibial band and corticosteroid injection of the greater trochanteric bursae.
(b) a lumbar stabilization exercise program and coricosteroid lumbar epidural spinal injection.
(c) a lumbar stabilization exercise program and botulinum toxin injection of the lumbar paraspinals.
(d) stretching exercises in the FAIR position and botulinum toxin injection to the piriformis.
Answer (d)
Commentary: This is a description of piriformis syndrome. Although some positive findings on
needle examination may be seen with piriformis syndrome, electrodiagnostic studies are often
normal. On the other hand, positive findings are expected in cases of lumbar radiculopathy.
Conservative treatment of piriformis syndrome begins with piriformis stretching (FAIR position
is a good position for this) and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), followed by
lumbosacral stabilization, hip strengthening, and myofascial release. Botulinum toxin relieves
pain via multiple mechanisms and is increasingly used in the treatment of myofascial dysfunction.
A lumbar stabilization exercise program and botulinum toxin injection of the lumbar paraspinals
may help relieve some of this patient’s pain if he also has low back pain, but would not address
the main issue, piriformis syndrome. Stretching exercises of the iliotibial band and corticosteroid
injection of the greater trochanteric bursae would be the treatment for greater trochanteric
bursitis. A lumbar stabilization exercise program and corticosteroid lumbar epidural spinal
injection would treat a lumbar radiculopathy.
- 20-year-old football player reports anterior shoulder pain during a game. He completes the game, but radiographs after the game revealed a type 2 acromioclavicular (AC) joint sprain. How is a type 2 acromioclavicular (AC) joint injury defined?
(a) Acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular ligaments are both disrupted.
(b) Acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular ligaments are both intact.
(c) Acromioclavicular ligament is disrupted, but the coracoclavicular ligament is intact.
(d) Acromioclavicular ligament is intact, and the coracoclavicular ligament is disrupted.
Answer: (c)
Commentary: Acromioclavicular joint injuries are classified into 6 types according Rockwood
classification. A type 1 injury describes a mild injury to the AC joint without disruption of either
the acromioclavicular or the coracoclavicular ligaments. A type 2 injury describes disruption of
the acromioclavicular ligament, but the coracoclavicular ligament remains intact. A type 3 injury
describes disruption of both ligaments whereas a type 4 injury entails complete disruption of both
ligaments with posterior displacement of the distal clavicle into the trapezius muscle.
- Which statement is TRUE regarding the rehabilitation of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
reconstruction/repair?
(a) Immediate postoperative weight bearing adversely affects subsequent knee function.
(b) A self-directed program is not as effective as regular physical therapy visits.
(c) Use of a continuous passive motion machine improves outcome.
(d) Postoperative functional bracing does not improve outcome.
Answer: (d)
Commentary: The use of postoperative functional bracing does not improve outcome. Immediate postoperative weight bearing does not adversely affect subsequent knee function. A self-directed program is as effective as regular physical therapy visits in a motivated patient. The use of a continuous passive motion machine does not improve outcome.
- Compared to a younger individual, an older worker who suffers a musculoskeletal injury is more likely to
(a) return to work sooner.
(b) have a recurrent injury.
(c) have the injury treated nonsurgically.
(d) sustain a less serious injury.
Answer: (b)
Commentary: Compared to a younger individual who suffers a musculoskeletal injury, an older
individual is more likely to have a recurrent injury, a decreased likelihood of returning to work
after the injury, increased time lost from the job as a result of the injury and a more serious injury.
Also, an older individual with a spine injury is more likely to have surgery than is a younger
individual.
- A 40-year-old woman reports left-sided facial pain for the past month along with difficulty in
moving her jaw. She hears a clicking noise with chewing along with constant tinnitus. Upon
examination, she has tenderness to palpation along her muscles of mastication on the left with
deviation of the mandible upon jaw opening. She would like to have pain relief. You suggest
(a) referral to an oral surgeon.
(b) that she perform jaw isometric exercises in a closed position with massage.
(c) a 2-week trial of an oral nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication.
(d) an ultrasound-guided intra-articular injection with steroids.
Answer: (c)
Commentary: This woman has a temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disorder most likely myofascial
in origin, which is the most common etiology. It is usually self-limited, and is managed
conservatively with relative rest (eg, avoiding jaw clenching, gum chewing), heat, and
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents. Intra-articular steroid injections are not needed with a
myofascial origin of pain. She also does not need a referral to an oral surgeon at this time.
- The current workers’ compensation system in the United States is a “no fault” system. This
means that the
(a) employee does not have to prove that the employer is at fault for the injury.
(b) employer does not have to prove they are at fault for the employee’s injury.
(c) employee and employer do not have to prove that the other is at fault for the injury.
(d) employer does not have to prove that the employee is at fault for the employee’s injury.
Answer: (c)
Commentary: In the United States workers’ compensation system the injured worker does not
have to prove that the employer is at fault for the employee’s injury. Similarly, the employer
does not have to prove that the injured worker is at fault for his/her injury. If the injury occurred
at work, the medical costs and partial payment of lost income are covered.
- An 87-year-old man on your inpatient rehabilitation unit was found on the therapy mat in much pain after hearing a loud “cracking” noise when he transferred himself. What position of his right lower limb would suggest hip fracture?
(a) Internal rotation and lengthened
(b) Internal rotation and shortened
(c) External rotation and lengthened
(d) External rotation and shortened
Answer: (d)
Commentary: In most cases, the lower limb of the fractured hip would be held in external rotation
(rotated outward) and would appear shortened relative to the unaffected lower limb.
- You are seeing a 79-year-old gentleman with chronic right shoulder pain. For the past several years he has had limited shoulder movement and is diffusely tender around the shoulder. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrates a partial tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons with degenerative changes of the glenohumeral joint. You recommend
(a) rotator cuff repair.
(b) total shoulder arthroplasty.
(c) intra-articular viscosupplementation injection.
(d) flexibility and progressive strengthening exercises.
Answer: (d)
Commentary: The nonsurgical management of shoulder osteoarthritis (OA) with a chronic,
massive rotator cuff defect requires flexibility exercises and gentle progressive strengthening
exercises to increase shoulder function. Surgical repair involves humeral hemiarthroplasty.
Rotator cuff repair in partial thickness tears consists of surgical smoothing of the humeroscapular
motion interface with cuff curettage. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is used for
anterosuperior escape rotator cuff lesions. There is no role for shoulder viscosupplementation,
since it has not been shown to be beneficial.
- Which clinical scenario is most consistent with a L4-5 foraminal disc herniation?
(a) Weakness of the extensor hallicus longus, decreased sensation of the web space between
the first and second toes, absent hamstring reflex
(b) Weakness of the gastrocnemius, decreased sensation of lateral foot, absent Achilles reflex
(c) Weakness of the anterior tibialis, decreased sensation of the web space between the first
and second toes, absent hamstring reflex
(d) Weakness of quadriceps and anterior tibialis, decreased sensation of medial lower leg,
absent patellar reflex
Answer: (d)
Commentary: A foraminal disc herniation at L4-5 level would most likely affect the exiting L4
nerve root. A nerve root lesion could result in muscle weakness in the affected myotomes,
sensation loss in the affected dermatomes, and deep tendon reflex changes. The physical
examination findings most consistent with a lesion to the L4 nerve root would be weakness of
the quadriceps (L2-4), decreased sensation in L4 dermatomes, and decreased or absent patellar
deep tendon reflex (L4).
- A 67-year-old man presents to your clinic with weakness and frequent falls. You suspect cervical stenosis. Calculating anteroposterior (AP) ratios to other anatomical structures, which ratio would enable you to assess for bony cervical spinal stenosis on lateral radiographs?
(a) AP diameter of the vertebral body to the height of vertebral body.
(b) AP diameter of the vertebral canal to the AP diameter of the vertebral body at the same level.
(c) Vertebral height to the AP of the vertebral canal at the same level.
(d) Distance from the anterior border of the vertebral body to the tip of the spinous process.
Answer: B
Commentary: Assessment of cervical spinal stenosis on lateral radiograph can be made by calculating the ratio of the anteroposterior (AP) diameter of the vertebral canal to the AP diameter of the vertebral body at the same level. This ratio is called the Pavlov ratio. A normal ratio is 1.0 with less than 0.82 indicating stenosis. The Torg ratio is the same as Pavlov ratio.
- A 47-year-old woman injures her back on the job. Her supervisor inquires about the injury and creates a document with the employee’s name, outlining how the injury occurred and where the employee is experiencing pain. The information in the document is protected by the
(a) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).
(b) The Joint Commission (JC).
(c) Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA).
(d) United States Supreme Court.
Answer: A
Commentary: Once the document was created by the supervisor and it contained individually identifiable health information it became information that is protected by HIPAA. The term ‘individually identifiable health information’ means any information, including demographic information collected from an individual, that: (A) is created or received by a health care provider, health plan, employer, or health care clearinghouse; and (B) relates to the past, present, or future physical or mental health or condition of an individual, the provision of health care to an individual, or the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to an individual, and identifies the individual.
- Repeatedly lifting the shoulder past which degree of flexion or abduction is associated with an increased prevalence of shoulder disorders?
(a) 10o
(b) 30o
(c) 45o
(d) 60o
Answer: D
Commentary: Repeatedly lifting the shoulder past 60 degrees of flexion or abduction is associated with an increased prevalence of shoulder disorders.