Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSK II > MSK ish I don't know > Flashcards

MSK ish I don't know Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of glucocorticoids in the context of RA?

A

relieves pain while waiting for DMARD drugs to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How long are glucorticoids useful for in RA?

A

Less than 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Do glucocorticoids change disease progression in RA?

A

Nope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is MAC? What does it measure?

A

minimal alveolar concentration. Concentration of inhalation anesthetic that prevents movement in response to surgical stimulation in 50% of subjects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the blood:gas partition coefficient measure?

A

Relative affinity of an anesthetic for the blood compared with that of inspired gas. There is an inverse relationship between blood:gas partition coefficient and rate of anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In one word, what does blood:gas partition coefficient measure?

A

Solubility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

blood:gas partition coefficient relationship

A

If you increase partition coefficient, you decrease rate of onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are side effects of lidocaine?

A

low dose - sleepiness, visual/auditory hallucinations

high dose - nystagmus, muscular twitching, convulsions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the duration of action of lidocaine?

A

medium, used for epidurals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the duration of action of procaine?

A

short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the rude regarding amide anesthetics?

A

They have two I’s in the name!

Example: lidocaine, mepivacaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the only topical anesthetic with vasoconstriction properties?

A

cocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Carisoprodol is a antispasmolytic with which uses?

A

anxiolytic and anticonvulsant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Carisoprodol is metabolized into?

A

Meprobamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is carisoprodol addictive?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What drug decreases rate of spontaneous breathing?

A

Vecuronium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What drug might you want to co-administer with propofol for burning?

A

lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the MAC of nitrous oxide?

A

> 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is segmental demyelination?

A

involves demyelination of Schwann cells and loss of myelin. no dysfunction of the axon. does not affect all Schwann cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is axonal degeneration?

A

primarily involves neuron and its axon and myelin shealth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Traumatic neuroma is described as?

A

non-neoplastic haphazard whorled proliferation of axonal processes and associated Schwann cells that results in a painful nodule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a myelin ovoid?

A

Schwann cells catabolize myelin and later engulf axon fragments, producing small oval compartments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Type 2 (fast twitch) fibers are degenerated because of?

A

inactivity, disuse due to fracture, steroid myopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is mono neuritis multiplex? Whats an example?

A

several nerves damaged in haphazard way. polyarteritis nodosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy?

A
  • most common
  • symmetrical
  • lasts > 2 months
  • responds to steroids (makes it different than guillan barre)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the difference between chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy and guillan barre?

A

Guillan barre does not respond to steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most common cause of peripheral neuropathy?

A

Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Is diabetic neuropathy symmetric?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Diabetes has what weird association?

A

Autonomic dysfunction. IE postural hypotension, decreased bladder emptying, increased infection, sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is emery dreifuss muscular dystrophy? (EMD)

A

Triad:

  1. ) progressive humeroperoneal weakness
  2. ) cardiomyopathy
  3. ) early contractors of achilles tendon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of EMD?

A

There are two. X-linked and AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does SMA affect?

A

destroys the anterior motor horn of babies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Gene in SMA? Mode of inheritance?

A

SMN1. AR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a type of SMA I know?

A

Werdig Hoffman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Motor neuron determines…?

A

Fiber type. all muscle fibers of a single unit are the same type?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What 3 main diseases are associated with neurogenic bladder?

A
  1. ) MS
  2. ) Parkinsons
  3. ) diabetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Guillan barre is what kind of neuropathy?

A

Polyneuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Do reflexes disappear in GBM?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe the CSF in GBM

A

Increased CSF with little/no cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the tx for GBM>

A

IVIG or plasmapheresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the stain with leprosy?

A

AFB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the antibodies for dermatomyositis?

A

Anti-Jo and anti-mi2

43
Q

What is the histology of dermatomyositis?

A

perifascicular atrophy

44
Q

Where does pagets disease affect?

A

axial skeleton and femur

45
Q

What is the pathognomonic histo finding of pagets?

A

mosaic pattern of lamellar bone aka jigsaw!

46
Q

Ecoli, psuedomonaks, klebsiella are all associated with?

A

UTI and osteomyelitis

47
Q

Salmonella is associated with?

A

Sickle cell osteomyelitis

48
Q

Neiserria is associated with?

A

Osteomyeltitis in MAC deficiency

49
Q

Whats the starred thing about osteochondroma?

A

It is continuous with the medullary cavity

50
Q

What can osteochondroma turn into?

A

Chondrosarcoma

51
Q

What is Ollier?

A

multiple enchondroma

52
Q

What is maffuci? Increased risk for what?

A

Multiple enchondroma + angiomas with increased risk of chondrosarcoma

53
Q

Whats the weird thing with Ewing sarcoma?

A

The amount of chemotherapy induced necrosis is an important prognostic finding. The more necrosis the better for some reason.

54
Q

What is fibrous dysplasia?

A

Benign proliferation of fibrous tissue and bone that do not mature

55
Q

When does fibrous dysplasia occur?

A

early adolescence

56
Q

What is the buzz word for fibrous dysplasia?

A

ground glass

57
Q

Prostate cancer spreads where? What kind of lesion is it?

A

It goes to the spinal cord. It is an osteoblastic lesion

58
Q

What translation is liposarcoma?

A

t(12, 16)

59
Q

What translation is synovial sarcoma?

A

t(x, 18)(11, 11)

60
Q

What translation is a rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

t(2, 13)(35, 14)

t(1, 13)(36, 14)

61
Q

Is calcitonin useful for treatment or prevention of osteoporosis?

A

Treatment, not prevention

62
Q

Side effects of bisphosphanates?

A
  1. ) osteonecrosis of the jaw
  2. ) atypical femur fracture
  3. ) esophagitis
63
Q

Side effects of raloxifene?

A

DVT, PE, Stroke

64
Q

What is a sequestrum and involucrum associated with?

A

osteomyelitis

65
Q

Does No2 have a high or low blood gas partition coefficient?

A

Low. It has high solubility, high MAC (>100), rapid onset and recovery

66
Q

Halothane:

A
  • High blood gas partition coefficient
  • low MAC
  • medium rate of onset and recovery
67
Q

The higher the MAC, the …. of potency?

A

Lower potency. No2 has low potency

68
Q

Allergic reactions are more common with ester or amide?

A

Ester.

69
Q

Does Ester have one or two I’s?

A

One

70
Q

Does amide have on or two I’s?

A

Two

71
Q

Is benzocaine topical?

A

Yes, only topical

72
Q

bupivicaine length of action?

A

Long acting

73
Q

What is procaine used for?

A

infiltration anesthesia

74
Q

Axonal degeneration

A

→ muscle fibers in motor unit lose neural input & undergo denervation atrophy

75
Q

What are angulated fibers?

A

atrophic fibers that are small and triangular shaped

76
Q

What is acid maltase deficiency?

A

Mild adult form of pompe, respiratory and trunk muscles

77
Q

What does inclusion body myositis look like?

A

Affected myofibers have vacuoles or cracks, which contain basophilic granules. These are best seen in cryostat sections stained with modified Gomori trichrome.

78
Q

What is inclusion body myositis?

A
  • Dz of late adulthood, >50 yo
  • most common inflammatory myopathy in pts > 65 yo
  • Slowly progressive muscle weakness, most severe in quadriceps & distal upper extremities
  • Starts with involvement of DISTAL muscles; esp extensors of knee (quadriceps) & flexors of wrist & fingers; asymmetric
  • Dysphagia from esophageal & pharyngeal m involvement
  • Rimmed vacuoles (inclusions with reddish granular rimming), highlighted by basophilic granules around the periphery, endomysial fibrosis
79
Q

Describe diabetes:

A

symmetric neuropathy involving distal sensory & motor nerves
• Numbness, loss of pain sensation, difficulty with balance

80
Q

Does GBM have anti-myelin antibodies?

A

Yes

81
Q

What is acute eczematous dermatitis

A

T-cell mediated inflammatory rxn (type IV

hypersensitivity)

82
Q

What is mcardle disease?

A

Painful cramps associated with strenuous exercise; myoglobinuria occurs in 50% of cases; onset in adulthood (>20 years); muscular exercise fails to raise lactate level in venous blood; serum creatine kinase always elevated; compatible with normal longevity

83
Q

erosive OA has what appearance in finger joints?

A

Seagull

84
Q

What are examples of secondary OA?

A

trauma, joint infection, surgical reapir, congenital joints, hemochromatosis, psuedogout

85
Q

What is DISH?

A

diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis

  • calcification and ossification of spinal ligaments and tendons.
  • men, back pain, t spine
  • 4 contiguous segments (4 letters in DISH)
86
Q

Anti-ccp plus positive RF =?

A

99.5% specificity

87
Q

What is ultrasonography good for?

A

joint effusion, synovitis, tendonitis, bursitis

88
Q

6 months:

A

sits momentarily

89
Q

9 months:

A

pulls up, cruises, sits well without support

90
Q

1 year:

A

Stands momentarily

91
Q

2 years:

A

walks up stairs two feet on each stair, kicks ball forward

92
Q

3 years:

A

tricycle

93
Q

4 years:

A

balance on one foot, hop on one foot

94
Q

6 years:

A

skips

95
Q

Most myopathies present with what?

A

Weakness in the proximal muscles

96
Q

How are DTRs in a myopathy?

A

Normal but may decrease as weakness progresses

97
Q

DMD is what kind of mutation?

A

Frameshift

98
Q

When is DMD first noted?

A

1.5 to 2 years old.

99
Q

What is the mutation in myotonia congenital? What does it code for?

A

CLCN 1 gene mutation which is a chloride channel.

100
Q

What is the clinical presentation of juvenile dermatomyositis?

A

Generalized muscle weakness. red or purple heliotrope rash. raised erythematous papules (gottron)

101
Q

What can GGT help with?

A

If the liver is involved. If elevated think liver. If normal think muscle.

102
Q

what is musk myasthenia

A

No antibodies

103
Q

ICU myopathy

A

aka myosin deficit myopathy critical illness with corticosteroid tx; profound weakness affects clinical

104
Q

The lower the Mac, the more…?

A

Potent! inversely proportional

MSK II (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions