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YEAR 4 - ACC > MSK Injury & Orthopaedics > Flashcards

MSK Injury & Orthopaedics Flashcards

1
Q

How can you examine for nerve root pain in the lower limbs?

A

Straight leg test for sciatica (L4, L5, S1)

Femoral stretch test for femoral nerve irritation (L2-L4)

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2
Q

What are the two joints in the ankle and what movements do they facilitate?

A

Subtalar joint

  • Calcaneus + talus
  • Facilitates eversion/inversion

True ankle joint

  • Tibia, fibula, talus
  • Facilitates dorsi/plantarflexion
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3
Q

What usually causes an ankle ligament strain?

A

Inversion injury (85%) - a sprain of the lateral ligament complex (injury to the anterior talofibular ligament is most common)

e.g. when a basketball player jumps and lands improperly

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4
Q

What can help you decide if an X-Ray is needed to rule out a fracture in ankle injury?

A

Ottawa ankle rule:

  • Inability to weight bear immediately after injury and in ED
  • Pain in malleolar zone plus tenderness over posterior edge of lateral or medial malleolus
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5
Q

How can you manage a simple ankle sprain?

A

POLICE

Protection from further injury
Optimal Loading
Ice
Compression
Elevation

Full recovery can take 4 weeks
Advise to come back if not full weight-bearing by 4 days

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6
Q

Who are distal radial fractures most common in?

A

Osteoporotic post-menopausal women

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7
Q

What are the most common distal radial fractures? What most commonly causes them?

A

Colles’ - falling on outstretched hand

Smiths’ - falling on flexed wrist

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8
Q

How does Colles’ fracture present?

A

Dinner fork deformity

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9
Q

What would be seen on an X-Ray of a Colles’ fracture?

A

Extra-articular fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement of the distal radius

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10
Q

If there is a grossly displaced fracture, how do you manage it?

A
  1. MUA (manipulation under anaesthetic) - Bier’s block with IV regional LA
  2. Apply POP backslab cast and sling
  3. XRay 1 week later to check position
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11
Q

When is MUA (manipulation under anaesthetic) urgent in a distal radius fracture?

A 
Compound fracture (open) 
Nerve compression
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12
Q

How does a fractured NOF present?

A
  • Pain in hip/groin/thigh radiating to knee
  • Inability to weight-bear
  • Affected leg is shorter
  • Leg is externally rotated
  • Adduction of affected leg
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13
Q

What should you check for in an elderly patient with a hip fracture?

A

Signs of dehydration
Hypothermia

They may have been lying for hours

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14
Q

What is a complication of an intracapsular NOF fracture?

A

Disruption of blood supply to femoral head causing avascular necrosis

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15
Q

What is the classification for intracapsular femoral neck fractures? What is it based on?

A

Garden classification - based on AP X-Ray

I - Incomplete undisplaced fracture with the inferior cortex intact
II - Complete undisplaced fracture through the neck
III - Complete neck fracture with partial displacement
IV - Fully displaced fracture

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16
Q

What is the ED (i.e. initial) management for a hip fracture to stabilise the patient?

A

ABCDE approach

IV access

  • Bloods - FBC, U+Es, glucose, crossmatch to prepare for surgery, CK to assess for rhabdomyolysis
  • IV fluids if hypotension/dehydrated
  • IV morphine (titrate up) + antiemetic

Femoral nerve block with bupivacaine
AP and lateral X-Rays of the hip and AP X-Ray of the pelvis
Refer to orthopaedic surgery

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17
Q

On a lateral hip X-ray, what indicates a fractured neck of femur?

A

Interrupted Shenton’s line (imaginary curved line drawn along inferior border of superior pubic ramus to inferomedial border of neck of femur)

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18
Q

What is the most common type of shoulder dislocation?

A

Anterior dislocation (95%) - due to forced external rotation and abduction of the shoulder

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19
Q

Who does anterior dislocation most commonly affect?

A

Young males playing contact sports

Elderly patients falling on outstretched hand

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20
Q

What causes a posterior shoulder dislocation?

A

Trauma to anterior shoulder or fall onto internally rotated arm

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21
Q

What is found on palpation of anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

Loss of shoulder contour - flattening of deltoid

Anterior bulge from head of humerus - can be palpated anteriorly and in axilla

Step-off deformity at acromion with palpable gap below acromion

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22
Q

How can you test for injury to the axillary nerve?

A

Loss of sensation over lateral shoulder (regimental badge area)

Lack of contraction of deltoid during attempted abduction

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23
Q

What is posterior shoulder dislocation associated with?

A

Epileptic seizures

Electrical shocks

Direct blow during trauma

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24
Q

What might occur at the same time as an anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

Fracture of the humeral head, neck or greater tuberosity

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25
Q

How does radial nerve injury present?

A

Weakness of wrist extension and thumb abduction

Reduced sensation on dorsum of hand

Abnormal triceps and brachioradialis reflexes

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26
Q

What changes are seen on an X-Ray in anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

Humeral head lies inferior to coracoid process on AP view

Head of humerus anterior to glenoid on axillary view

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27
Q

What sign is seen on X-Ray of posterior shoulder dislocation?

A

Lightbulb sign

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28
Q

What is the most common method to manipulate an anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

External rotation method

  • Patient supine on bed
  • Affected arm is adducted and flexed to 90 degrees at elbow
  • Arm is then slowly externally rotated
  • The shoulder should be reduced before reaching the coronal plane
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29
Q

Describe the blood supply to the NOF

A

It is retrograde - it passes from distal to proximal along the femoral neck to the femoral head through the medial circumflex femoral artery, which lies directly on the neck of the femur (intra-capsular)

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30
Q

Define: fracture

A

A soft tissue injury (i.e. nerves and blood vessels) with a broken bone underlying

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31
Q

What are the 4 stages of bone healing?

A
  1. Haematoma
  2. Fibrocartilaginous callus formation (i.e. soft bone starts forming)
  3. Formation of bony callus
  4. Remodelling and addition of hard/compact bone
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32
Q

What are direct and indirect bone healing?

A

Direct/primary bone healing = perfect healing - osteoclasts form cutting cones followed by osteoblasts

Indirect/secondary bone healing = callus formation because anatomical reduction was not achieved

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33
Q

Where do bones get their blood supply from?

A

2/3rd supply is from the bone marrow

1/3rd supply is from blood vessels outside the bone

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34
Q

How are intracapsular NOF fractures definitively managed depending on the patient age and their Garden scale?

A

Garden 1/2 (i.e. non-displaced)

  • Open repair and internal fixation (ORIF) with cannulated cancellous screws
  • Hemiarthroplasty if major comorbidity

Garden 3/4:

  • Young patients - ORIF with cannulated cancellous screws unless there is avascular necrosis when they will require total hip arthroplasty
  • Elderly/immobile - Hip hemiarthroplasty

(generally want to avoid arthroplasty in young age because they only last 10-15 years and there is less range of movement)

35
Q

What are the different surgical options for managing extracapsular NOF fractures? Which options are suitable for which fractures?

A

DHS (dynamic hip screw) - inter-trochanteric fractures that are stable and compressible (i.e. not dispaced)

Intramedullary nail - femoral shaft fractures

36
Q

What needs to be consented for pre-operatively for fracture surgeries?

A

Pain
Bleeding
Infection at wound site
Neurovascular damage

37
Q

What is a potential life-threatening complication of fractures/fracture repair surgery?

A

Fat emboli

38
Q

How would fat emboli present in a patient?

A
  1. Hypoxia (most common symptom) - tachypnoea, dyspnoea, cyanosis, diffuse crackles
  2. Neurological symptoms - confusion, lethargy, seizures, focal neurological deficits, coma
  3. Petechial rash (50% patients and is last symptom to present) - mainly on chest wall, in axilla, head, neck, conjunctiva, buccal mucosa
39
Q

How does a dynamic hip screw work in healing the bone?

A

The screw can glide freely in a metal sleeve

Weight bearing causes the femoral neck to impact on the femoral metaphysis, producing dynamic fracture compression

This movement is only allowed in one plane along the sleeve, resulting in anatomical reduction

As bone responds to dynamic stresses, this is intended to promote remodelling and fracture healing

40
Q

What is the major orthopaedic emergency?

A

Compartment syndrome

41
Q

What are the 6 Ps of compartment syndrome?

A

6 Ps - pain, pallor, paraesthesia, pulselessness, paralysis, perishingly cold!

(but really it’s just pain pain pain pain pain pain because you can still have pulses and sensation and wouldn’t have time for check for those things)

42
Q

How do you examine for compartment syndrome in the leg?

A

Passive stretching of the hamstring muscles (i.e. passive extension of the knee)

43
Q

What makes you suspect compartment syndrome?

A

Pain that is out of proportion with extent of injury

44
Q

What is the surgical treatment for compartment syndrome?

A

Fasciotomy required ASAP - incisions into tissue and fascia relieves pressure and restores perfusion

Last resort - amputation

45
Q

What is the ball and socket of the shoulder joint?

A

Ball = head of humerus

Socket = glenoid fossa

46
Q

What is a Holstein-Lewis fracture? How does it present?

A

Fracture of the distal 1/3rd of the humerus resulting in the entrapment of the radial nerve

It results in loss of sensation over dorsum of the hand and a wrist drop deformity

47
Q

How are the majority of humeral shaft fractures treated?

A

Conservatively with a functional humeral brace

48
Q

Describe what the ankle is comprised of

A

Talus bone articulating within the mortise

The mortise is comprised of the medial malleolus (distal end of the tibia) and the lateral malleolus (distal end of the fibula)

The tibia and fibula are joined at the syndesmosis (a very strong fibrous structure comprised of the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament, posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament and the intra-osseous membrane

49
Q

What is an ankle fracture?

A

A fracture of any malleolus with or without disruption to the syndesmosis

50
Q

What is the most common classification of ankle fractures? Describe the classification

A

Weber classification - it classifies lateral malleolus fractures

Type A = below the syndesmosis

Type B = at the level of the syndesmosis

Type C = above the level of the syndesmosis

51
Q

Which type of ankle fracture is the most likely to lead to ankle instability? What does this mean for management?

A

The more proximal the injury, the higher the likelihood of ankle instability

Consequently, Type C fractures almost always need surgical fixation

52
Q

What is the initial management of an ankle fracture?

A
  1. Immediate fracture reduction under sedation to realign the fracture to anatomical alignment
  2. Place the ankle in a below knee back slab and repeat a post-reduction neurovascular examination
  3. Request a repeat X-Ray
  4. If the reduction is not adequate, repeat reduction attempts
53
Q

In which ankle fractures is conservative management opted for?

A
  • Non-displaced medial malleolus fractures
  • Weber A fractures
  • Weber B fractures without a talar shift
  • Those unfit for surgical intervention
54
Q

What is the surgical management of ankle fractures?

A

Open reduction and internal fixation

55
Q

What is the most commonly fractured tarsal bone?

A

Calcaneum

56
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for assessing calcaneal fractures?

A

CT imaging

57
Q

What is the main complication of a calcaneal fracture?

A

Subtalar arthritis

58
Q

What can be used to treat complex fractures?

A

Ilizarov frame - a circular external fixator where the rings are fixed to the bone via pins

59
Q

What usually causes a scaphoid fracture?

A

Fall onto an outstretched hand

60
Q

What is the most important clinical sign of a scaphoid fracture? What are other signs?

A

Pain of palpation of the anatomical snuffbox = most important

Pain whilst telescoping the thumb

Tenderness of scaphoid tubercle on volar aspect of the wrist

Pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist

61
Q

If there is no discernible fracture seen on a scaphoid series of X-Rays but there is pain in the anatomical snuffbox, what is the next step in management?

A

If highly suspicious of scaphoid fracture, cast the wrist in the ‘beer glass’ position and repeat X-rays taken after 10 days for repeat imaging

Scaphoid fractures may become visible radiologically after 10 days

If repeat XR still negative do MRI as definitive investigation

62
Q

What is the management of a humeral head fracture?

A

Collar and cuff sling - allows the weight of the arm to help the fracture re-align

63
Q

In which injuries is a broad arm sling indicated?

A

Clavicular fracture
Acromioclavicular ligament tear
Elbow injuries
Forearm fractures to support the cast

64
Q

What sign may be seen on XR of distal humerus fracture?

A

Sail sign - raised fat pads

the fracture is not always seen on XR or may be very subtle so sail sign is a good indication of a fracture

65
Q

What analgesia is used for a distal radial fracture before doing MUA?

A

Haematoma block

66
Q

What is a Galeazzi fracture?

A

Fracture of distal 1/3rd of radius and dislocation of ulna

67
Q

What is Barton’s fracture?

A

Intra-articular fracture of the distal radius with dorsal angulation of the distal fragment

(similar to Colles but intra-articular)

68
Q

What level is a pelvic binder placed at?

A

Level of greater trochanters

69
Q

How is a cervical collar sized?

A

Using fingers measuring from top of patient’s trapezius to point of chin

70
Q

What are the indications for cervical spine immbolisation?

A
  • GCS < 13 at initial assessment
  • Intubation
  • Definitive diagnosis of c-spine injury is required urgently e.g. before surgery
  • Other areas are being scanned for head injury or other multi-region trauma

OR the patient is alert and stable but there is suspicion of c-spine injury and any one of the following are present:
• Age > 65 years
• Dangerous mechanism of injury = fall from a height >1m or 5 stairs
• Focal CNS deficit
• Paraesthesia in upper or lower limbs

71
Q

How many doses of tetanus are required to provide long-term protection?

A

5 doses

Given at:
	• 2 months
	• 3 months
	• 4 months
	• 3-5 years
	• 13-18 years
72
Q

What are the rules about when you should give a tetanus vaccine if someone presents with a wound?

A

If vaccination history is incomplete/unknown/last dose more than 10 years a go
• Give tetanus vaccine, regardless of wound severity
• For tetanus prone and high-risk wounds, reinforce dose of vaccine with tetanus Ig

If patient has had full course of tetanus vaccines with last dose < 10 years a go and presents with a wound - no vaccine or Ig is required, regardless of wound severity

73
Q

What is the most common organism causing osteomyelitis?

A

S. aureus

Salmonella spp - especially if sickle cell anaemia

74
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice for investigating osteomyelitis?

A

MRI

75
Q

How does a posterior hip dislocation present? Compare this to NOF #

A

Posterior hip dislocation - leg is flexed, internally rotated, adducted and shortened

NOF - leg is externally rotated, adducted and shortened

76
Q

If there is no NOF # seen on XR but clinical suspicion remains high, what is done?

A

MRI Hip

77
Q

What is the major risk with scaphoid fractures? What is damaged?

A

Risk of avascular necrosis - damage to the dorsal carpal arch of the radial artery (which supplies 80% of blood in a retrograde manner)

78
Q

What does avascular necrosis of NOF look like on XR?

A

Segmental flattening of femoral head and joint space narrowing

79
Q

What is Brown Sequard syndrome?

A

Hemisection of the spinal cord (can be left or right)

80
Q

How does Brown Sequard syndrome present and what has been damaged to cause those presentations?

A

Ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration below the level of the lesion - damage to posterior column

Contralateral loss of pain, temperature, touch sensations below the level of the lesion - damage to dorsal column

Ipsilateral hemiplegia (loss of muscle function)

  • Flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion - damage to LMN at level of lesion
  • Spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion - damage to UMN
  • Ipsilateral Babinski sign - damage to lateral corticospinal tracts
81
Q

How is sacral sparing confirmed in a spinal injury?

A

Flexion of great toe

PR to assess perianal sensation and anal tone - if maintains sensation/tone then the sacral function is preserved

82
Q

What does sacral sparing differentiate between in a spinal injury?

A

complete and incomplete spinal cord injury - prognostic indicator

83
Q

What is one of the most important investigations in spinal cord injury?

A

Check FVC regularly - if <500-600mL intubation and ventilation may be required

YEAR 4 - ACC (11 decks)

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