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Clin Med III: MSK > MSK Injuries > Flashcards

MSK Injuries Flashcards

1
Q

difference between strain vs sprain

A
  • strain: Injury involving the muscle or muscle-tendon unit
  • sprain: Trauma to the ligaments that connect bones of a joint
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2
Q

MC strain

A

Distal muscle tendon junction injury MC

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3
Q

MC sprains

A

ankle, knee, and wrist during sports activities

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4
Q

strains are MC in muscles attached to ?

A

2 joints

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5
Q

MOA of strain

A

Forceful eccentric loading of the muscle
Ex: running, jumping, kicking

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6
Q

MOA of sprain

A

Joint is overextended; ligament is overstretched

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7
Q

ligament sprain is uncommon in what pt demographic? (2)
why?

A

children and older adults
They have weaker bones = avulsion or growth plate fractures

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8
Q

RF for strains and sprains (9)

A
  1. poor ergonomics
  2. environment
  3. increased age w/ reduced physical activity
  4. deconditioned or unstretche muscles
  5. specific activities
  6. overuse
  7. body habitus
  8. fatigue
  9. previous injury
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9
Q

Pts often report a popping, snapping, or tearing sensation at the time of the event
followed by pain, swelling, stiffness, and difficulty bearing weight/reduced ability to use the extremity involved
Bruising + discoloration may appear within 24-48 hours

hx of what dx?

A

strains & sprains

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10
Q
  1. Asymmetric swelling, tenderness, and ecchymosis of injured area
  2. Visible and/or palpable defect may be seen/felt
  3. Pain with active and passive flexion of the muscle
    - Loss of active muscle contraction to move joint→ complete rupture of the muscle

PE of what dx?

A

muscle strain

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11
Q
  1. Asymmetric swelling, tenderness, and ecchymosis of injured area
  2. Pain with active and passive ROM
  3. Joint instability/laxity
  4. Special tests may be beneficial

PE of what dx?

A

ligament sprain

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12
Q

muscle strain grading

A
  • Grade 1: Tear of a few muscle fibers (< 10%), fascia intact
  • Grade 2: Tear of moderate amount of muscle fibers (10-50%), fascia intact
  • Grade 3: Tear of most/all fibers (50-100%), fascia intact
  • Grade 4: Tear of all muscle fibers (100%), fascia disrupted
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13
Q

ligament sprain grading

A
  • Grade 1: Mild; a tear of only a few fibers of the ligament; no joint instability
  • Grade 2: Moderate; partial tear of the ligament; some laxity with stress maneuvers
  • Grade 3: Severe; complete tear of the ligament; joint laxity with stress maneuvers
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14
Q

how to dx strains/sprains

A
  1. Most often clinical
    - Labs and imaging are usually not necessary
  2. X-ray if high concern for fracture
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15
Q

indications for XR for strains/sprains

A
  1. Positive “Ottawa Ankle Rules”
    - Can be generalized to other joints
  2. Worsening pain/swelling with appropriate management
  3. Persistent pain/swelling after 7-10 days of appropriate management
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16
Q

ottawa ankle rules for ankle sprains

A
  1. pain at the medial malleolus or along distal 6cm of posterior/medial tibia
  2. pain at lateral malleolus or along distal 6cm of posterior fibula
  3. inability to bear wt immediately and for 4 consecutive steps in ER
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17
Q

ottawa ankel rules for foot sprains

A
  1. pain in midfoot and at base of 5th metatarsal
  2. pain in midfoot and at navicular bone
  3. inability to bear wt immediately and for 4 consecutive steps in ER
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18
Q

which dx modality is used to confirm or grade strains/sprains?
indications?

A

MRI

  1. suspected rupture or severe pain
  2. surgical intervention is likely
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19
Q

Healing process is divided into 4 phases:

strains + sprains

A
  1. hemostasis
  2. inflammatory
  3. proliferative
  4. maturation
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20
Q
  1. Onset → immediately after injury
  2. Platelets aggregate and release cytokines, chemokines, and hormones
  3. Vasoconstriction - limits bleeding into affected area = temp skin blanching
  4. Clot formation occurs

which phase of healing process

A

hemostasis

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21
Q
  1. Onset → immediately after injury
  2. Results from tearing of the myofibers, ligament fibers, and microvasculature
  3. Bleeding and necrosis of the soft tissue = inflammatory cascade
  4. Homeostasis of fluid balance is disrupted resulting in swelling
  5. Capillaries dilate and become more permeable → increase in blood transmission into the extravascular space (bruising) & increase in the concentration of local inflammatory mediators

which phase of healing process?
how long does this last?

A

Inflammatory/Destruction Phase (0-72 hrs post injury)

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22
Q
  1. Granulation tissue is formed - Collagen deposition occurs
  2. Neovascularization occurs at the injury, supporting tissue healing
  3. Inflammatory mediators are reduced

which phase of the healing process?
how long does this last?

A

Proliferative/Reparative/Fibroblastic Phase (72 hrs - 3 wks)

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23
Q

Collagen and myofibers increase in number, strength, and organization

which phase of healing process?
how long does this last?

A

Maturation/Remodeling Phase (3 wks - 2 yrs)

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24
Q

management goals during Hemostasis / Inflammatory Phase (day 0-3)

A

→ Protection / compression of the injured area and rest
→ Control pain and swelling = ICE!

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25
Q

management goals during reparative phase (day 3 - wk 3)

A

→ Continued protection with pain and swelling control
→ Full AROM
→ Progressive muscular strength, endurance and power

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26
Q

management goals during maturation phase (wk 3 - 2 yrs)

A

→ Maintenance of ROM and flexibility
→ Increased muscular strength, endurance and power
→ Increased speed and agility

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27
Q

management for strains+sprains

A
  1. Surgical repair - for complete tears
    - Refer if joint instability, failure of conservative therapy, neurovascular compromise
  2. Pain - NSAIDS 1st line
    - Opioids based on severity of pain/injury
  3. PRICE
    - Weight-bearing, ROM exercise, and strength training should begin
    - Consider a referral to PT
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28
Q

components of PRICE

A

indicated in the inflammatory phase of healing

  • Protection → Padding, slings, braces, ACE wraps, air splint
  • Rest → No additional force should be applied; avoid weight bearing
  • Ice → ASAP to reduce pain and swelling through vasoconstriction
  • Compression → ACE to limit swelling
  • Elevation → ideally “above the heart”
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29
Q

how long to ice for PRICE?
CI?
avoid what during this phase?

A
  • 15-20 min q2-3h for first 48 hrs
  • CI: Raynaud’s, PVD, impaired sensation, cold allergy/hypersensitivity, severe cold induced urticaria
  • Heat should be avoided during this phase; avoid direct contact with skin with ice
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30
Q

MOA of overuse syndrome

A
  • Repetitive motions, stresses, or sustained exertion of that body part
  • Repetitive microtrauma to the muscle or tendon leading to an acute or chronic degenerative state
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31
Q

overuse syndrome is presented MC in who?

A

athletes
The sport may lead to your dx

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32
Q

extrinsic causes of overuse syndrome

A
  1. Repetitive mechanical load - Increased duration, frequency, increased intensity, technique errors
  2. Equipment problems - Poor footwear, racquet size, running surface
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33
Q

instrinsic causes of overuse syndrome

A
  • Anatomic factors - Malalignment, inflexibility, muscle weakness, muscle imbalance, decreased vascularity
  • Age-Related Factors - Tendon degeneration, decreased healing response, increased tendon stiffness
  • Systemic Factors - Inflammatory disorders, quinolone-induced tendinopathy
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34
Q

presentation of overuse syndrome

A
  1. Pain, muscle fatigue, numbness, swelling
    - Sx tend to develop and slowly progress over time
    - Pain may be localized to tendinous insertion and exacerbated by muscle stretch or contraction
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35
Q

w/u for overuse syndrome?
findings?

A
  1. H&P is crucial to dx
  2. PE: muscle testing, ROM, and special testing if indicated
  3. Diagnostic testing
    - Radiograph - calcification or spur formation of the tendon at insertion site
    - Bone scans and MRI’s - Stress fractures, osseous pathology
    - NCS/EMG’s - if neurologic s/s
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36
Q

management for overuse synrome

A
  1. Most are mild and will resolve spontaneously
  2. Avoidance of the activity that led to syndrome
  3. Pain management → ice/heat, NSAIDS, corticosteroid injections
  4. PT - home exercise programs
  5. OT - workplace modifications
  6. Referral to Ortho if conservative tx fails
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37
Q

Thick outer layer that contains vessels, nerve endings and cells that repair fractures

A

periosteum

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38
Q

Inner lining of the marrow cavity

A

endosteum

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39
Q

Contains the epiphyseal plate (growth plate/physis)
Very vascular and prone to infection and fractures

A

epiphysis

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40
Q

Consists of spongy, cancellous bone
Most susceptible to compression fractures

A

Metaphysis

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41
Q

Thick cortical bone
Provides most of the structural support of the long bone

A

Diaphysis

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42
Q

Defined as disruption in the continuity or structural integrity of a bone

A

fractures

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43
Q

MOA of fractures

A
  • Stress applied to the bone is greater than the bone’s intrinsic strength
  • Can also occur pathologically
44
Q

for fractures, ALWAYS inspect bones/joint ___ and ___ injury!

A

above
below

45
Q

imaging fo fractures

A
  • 1st line → radiograph
  • CT or MRI → indicated if dx needs confirmed or to further define a complex fracture prior to surgical repair
46
Q

Components of Describing a Fracture:

A
  1. open vs closed
  2. location
  3. orientation/direction - Fractures with multiple parts; Comminuted versus segmented; Compression or impaction
  4. displacement - Degree of angulation; Direction of angulation
47
Q

how to determine if a fracture is open vs closed?

A

Gustilo and Anderson Classification

  • Grade I - Low energy injury with an open wound < 1 cm in length and no contamination
  • Grade II - Moderate injury with comminution of the fracture and a 1-10-cm wound with some contamination
  • Grade IIIA - High-energy fracture pattern with a wound >10 cm and gross contamination
  • Grade IIIB - High-energy fracture with a >10 cm contaminated wound with exposed bone
  • Grade IIIC - Similar to grade IIIB with vascular involvement
48
Q

how to describe location of fracture

A
  1. Diaphysis / “shaft” - Location on bone shaft
  2. Distal or proximal metaphysis
  3. Epiphysis / growth plate
  4. Anatomical name of the bone - Ex: olecranon process
49
Q

fx perpendicular to the shaft of the bone

which fracture orientation/direction

A

Transverse (Simple)

50
Q

angulated fracture line

A

oblique

51
Q

multiplanar and complex fracture line

A

spiral

52
Q

fx in which there are more than two fracture fragments

A

Comminuted

53
Q

type of comminuted fx in which there are 2 fracture lines isolating a segment of bone

A

Segmental

54
Q

a detached bone fragment that results from the excessive pulling of a ligament, tendon, or joint capsule from its point of attachment on a bone

A

Avulsed

55
Q

common with osteoporosis
Type of impaction fracture that occurs in the vertebrae

what type of fracture orientation/direction

A

compression

56
Q

crosses the articular cartilage and enters the joint

which fracture orientation/direction

A

Intra-articular

57
Q

difference between the displacements of a fracture

A
  • Nondisplaced → fragments are in anatomic alignment
  • Displaced → fracture is no longer in anatomic alignment
58
Q

for displaced fractures, Note severity in mm or % with regard to the direction the ___ fragment is offset in relation to the proximal fragment

A

DISTAL

59
Q

Bone fragments are misaligned
Described as degree and direction of deviation of the distal fragment

A

angulated

  1. medial
  2. lateral
  3. ventral
  4. dorsal
60
Q

Distal fragment longitudinally overlaps the proximal fragment

A

Bayoneted (Shortened)

61
Q

Distal fragment is separated from the proximal fragment by a gap

A

Distracted

62
Q

Degree the distal fragment is twisted on axis of normal bone
Usually detected by physical exam

A

Rotational deformity

63
Q

An incomplete fracture along the distal metaphysis where the bone is most spongy

A

TORUS (BUCKLE) FRACTURE

64
Q

TORUS (BUCKLE) FRACTURE MC happens in what structure?

A

distal radius

65
Q

torus fracture may be very subtle therefore it is important to do what with XR?

A

look at multiple views on x-ray

66
Q
  • A fracture that doesn’t extend through the entire periosteum
  • Occurs in the pediatric population due to soft bone
  • A fracture on the tension side and a buckle on the other side of the shaft of a long bone
A

GREENSTICK FRACTURE

67
Q

Used to describe fractures involving the growth plate

A

salter-harris classification

  • Lack of ossification of epiphyses in young children can make fracture identification difficult
  • Comparison of unaffected side can assist in detecting fractures in skeletally immature children
68
Q

when does the growth plate close in females and males?

A

Females - 12-14 years old
males - 14-16 years old

69
Q

SALTER-HARRIS MNEMONIC

A
  • **S: slipped (type I) ** - some people say “straight across”
  • A: above (type II) - does not affect the joint
  • L: lower (type III) - affects the joint
  • TE: through everything (type IV)
  • R: rammed (type V)
70
Q

3 fracture healing phases

A
  • Stage 1: Inflammatory Phase
  • Stage 2: Reparative Phase
  • Stage 3: Remodeling Phase
71
Q
  • Immediately → bleeding from the fracture site and surrounding tissue
  • Peaks after several days - bioactive cells migrate to fracture site hematoma leading to formation of granulation tissue

which phase of fracture healing?

A

Stage 1: Inflammatory Phase

72
Q
  • Neovascularization promotes the healing process
  • Necrotic debris is removed by phagocytes and fibroblasts begin to produce collagen
  • Soft callus is produced first and then mineralization begins to occur slowly converting to woven/immature bone

which phase of fracture healing

A

Stage 2: Reparative Phase

73
Q
  • Overlaps with repair phase and can continue for several months
  • Woven (immature) bone is replaced with more mature lamellar bone - Typically occurs around 6-10 weeks

which phase of fracture healing

A

Stage 3: Remodeling Phase

74
Q

Indications for immediate orthopedic consultation

A
  1. Open, displaced, unstable or irreducible fractures
  2. Fractures complicated by compartment syndrome, nerve, or vascular injury
75
Q

closed fracture management is guided by 4 factors:

A
  1. Bone involved
  2. Type of fracture
  3. Degree of displacement
  4. Open vs. Closed
76
Q

management for closed axial fracture

A

Bed rest and non-weight bearing

77
Q

management for closed extremity fracture

A
  1. Reduction if displaced or angulated
  2. Mod-severe displacement/angulation requires surgical intervention - Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with plates, screws, pins or intramedullary devices
  3. Immobilization
  4. Bed rest, elevation, avoidance of weight bearing
  5. Further evaluation by a specialist
78
Q

open fracture management

A
  1. EMERGENCY!
  2. irrigation/debridement followed by application of sterile dressing
  3. NPO, Pain medication
  4. IV Abx
  5. update Td
79
Q

open fractures are at high risk of what complications?

A

osteomyelitis, compartment syndrome and neurovascular injury

80
Q

abx for type I and II fractures

A

1st gen ceph: Cefazolin (Ancef) 1 g every 6-12h

81
Q

abx for type III fracture

A

1st gen ceph + Aminoglycoside (gentamicin)

82
Q

abx for open fracture If at risk for anaerobic infection (e.g. farm injury, necrosis)

A

Add metronidazole

83
Q

adverse outcomes of fractures

A
  1. malunion
  2. nonunion
  3. stiffness, muscle atrophy
  4. arthritis
  5. vascualr or nerve injury
  6. compartment syndrome
  7. osteonecrosis
83
Q

Factors that worsen fracture prognosis

A
  1. Skeletal maturity
  2. Fractures of multiple bones in the extremity
  3. Intra-articular fractures
  4. Marked displacement of fractures
  5. Unstable vertebral fractures
  6. Comminuted, oblique and segmental fractures
84
Q

diagnostic criteria for nonunion fractures

A
  1. Lack of healing within 6 months of an injury
  2. No healing progress in 3 consecutive months
85
Q

factors that affect healing causing nonunion fracture

A

Smoking, indolent infection, inadequate immobilization, malnutrition, NSAID use significant, soft tissue injury

86
Q

tx for nonunion fracture

A

Surgical fixation, bone graft, electrical/US stimulation

87
Q

Inadequate alignment of a fracture
Results from inappropriate reduction, immobilization or surgical error in alignment

dx?
tx?

A
  • malunion
  • osteotomy or bone cuts to restore anaomical alignment
88
Q

A fracture in normal bone that has been subjected to repeated or continuous loads that in and of themselves are not sufficient to cause a fracture
Common in athletes, esp runners

A

stress fracture

89
Q

causes of stress fx

A
  1. Small number of repetitions with a relatively large load
  2. A large number of repetitions with a usual load
90
Q

RF for stress fx

A
  1. Prior stress fracture
  2. Low level of fitness
  3. Increasing volume and intensity of physical activity
  4. Female gender, especially when combined with menstrual irregularity
  5. Eating disorders (female athlete triad)
  6. Diets poor in calcium and vitamin D
  7. Poor bone health
  8. Poor biomechanics
91
Q

H&P of stress fx

A
  1. A thorough history can typically provide the diagnosis
  2. Pain - Gradual onset, localized; Worse with significant activity, initially; Less activity can produce pain as fracture progresses
  3. Localized tenderness over injury site
92
Q

if doubting stress fx dx, proceed to ?

A

imaging

  • Plain radiographs should be obtained initially due to high specificity - May not appear on radiograph for several weeks
  • If suspicion is high and diagnosis needs confirmed, proceed with MRI, CT or bone scan
93
Q

Conservative management is used for these low-risk stress fractures:

A
  1. Fx of the 2nd-4th metatarsal shafts
  2. Posteromedial tibial shaft
  3. Fibula
  4. Proximal humerus or humeral shaft
  5. Ribs, sacrum and pubic rami
94
Q

Types of Conservative Therapy for stress fx

A
  1. Acute pain control
  2. Reduced weight bearing or splinting
  3. Reduction or modification of activities
  4. Rehabilitative exercise to promote optimal biomechanics
  5. Reduce risk factors
95
Q

Surgery is needed for these high-risk stress fractures:

A
  1. Pars interarticularis of lumbar spine
  2. Femoral head and neck
  3. Patella
  4. Anterior cortex of tibia
  5. Medial malleolus
  6. Talus, tarsal navicular
  7. Prox 5th metatarsal shaft, great toes sesamoids, base of second metatarsal bone
96
Q

Referral to orthopedist should be done immediately if :

A

→ High risk fractures
→ When a lengthy rehab program is inappropriate
→ Conservative treatment fails

97
Q

indications for splinting

A
  1. Fractures
  2. Dislocations
  3. Severe Sprains
98
Q

the preferred splint of choice when a splint is expected to remain in place for more than a few hours

A

Plaster and Fiberglass splints

99
Q

instructions on how to splint?

A
  1. Remove clothing to fully inspect the area
  2. Check NV status distal to the injury before & after splint
  3. Clean all wounds and cover with a dry, sterile dressing
  4. Immobilize the joint above and below the fracture bone
  5. Intra-articular fx - immobilize the bones above and below the joint fx
  6. Pad all rigid splints to prevent local injury
  7. While applying the splint - Minimize movement of the limb; Support injury site until the splint has set
  8. Attempt to reduce any severely deformed limb with constant gentle traction - If resistance is encountered, splint in position of deformity
100
Q

types of splinting

A

Prefabricated plastic splints, air splints, fabric splints and metal splints

101
Q

splinting materials

A
  1. Cast padding and stockinette (ALWAYS)
  2. Prefabricated plaster or fiberglass splints
  3. Rolls of plaster or fiberglass splinting material
  4. Elastic bandage
  5. Water (warm water will speed setting time)
  6. Non-sterile gloves
102
Q
  1. Standard of treatment for many closed, nondisplaced/reduced fractures
  2. Optimal timing for cast placement is after swelling has resolved, which may take 5-7 days, unless fracture is unstable - Splints are useful in the meantime

what type of tx?

A

casting

103
Q

casting materials

A
  1. Stockinette
  2. Cast padding
  3. Fiberglass or plaster casting “tape”
104
Q

casting pearls

A
  1. Application is very similar to splinting
  2. ALWAYS note neurovascular status!
  3. Follow up x-rays help document continued bone healing and union
  4. Important to tell patients to keep both splints and casts DRY!
  5. Patient’s must return to have cast removed

Clin Med III: MSK (14 decks)

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