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MSK Imaging > MSK (Core Qs & Others) > Flashcards

MSK (Core Qs & Others) Flashcards

1
Q

Most common location for meniscal ossicle at the knee

A

Posterior horn of the medial meniscus

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2
Q

Where is the fabella located?

A

Lateral head of the gastroc muscle

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3
Q

Where is the cyamella located?

A

Within the popliteus tendon

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4
Q

The lucent area at the proximal humerus is known as

A

Pseudocyst of the humeral head

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5
Q

What is the most common accessory muscle of the ankle?

A

Peroneus quartus

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6
Q

Order of elbow ossification

A 
"CRITOE" (ages 1-10 yo)
Capitellum
Radial head
Internal epicondyle
Trocheal
Olecranon
External epicondyle
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7
Q

Avascular necrosis of the navicular is called

A

Kohler disease

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8
Q

What is the most common carpal coalition?

A

Lunotriquetral

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9
Q

Plexiform neurofibromas are most commonly seen with what syndrome?

A

Neurofibromatosis Type I

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10
Q

Bipartite patellas often present with what clinical symtpom?

A

Anterior knee pain

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11
Q

Differential diagnosis for acro-osteolysis of multiple distal phalanges include

A 
Scleroderrma
Raynaud disease
Psoriatic arthritis
Thermal injuries
Trauma
Hyperparathyroidism
Congenital insensitivity to pain
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12
Q

Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressive typically begins where?

A

Sternocleidomastoid

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13
Q

What is seen more commonly in primary hypertrophic osteoarthropathy as compared to secondary hypertrophic osteoarthropathy?

A

Phalangeal tuft acro-osteolysis

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14
Q

The most likely diagnosis for multiple congenital block vertebra

A

Klippel-Feil syndrome

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15
Q

Types of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Type I: least severe
Type II: most severe
Type III: most severe for individuals that survive past childhood

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16
Q

The most common location for melorheostosis

A

Lower extremities

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17
Q

Movement of an os odontoideum on flexion and extension views

A

It moves with the atlas on flexion and extension

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18
Q

The primary etiology that leads to osteopetrosis

A

Abnormal osteoclast function

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19
Q

A limbus vertebra is located where?

A

Typically at the superior-anterior corner of a vertebral body

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of scoliosis?

A

Idiopathic (85%)

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21
Q

A common complication that results from developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)

A

Coxa magna: broad femoral head with short and wide femoral neck

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22
Q

What is the most common site of osteomyelitis in the foot of a diabetic patient?

A

Areas of increased pressure: 1st and 5th metatarsal heads, calcaneus, and phalanges

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23
Q

What is the earliest radiographic finding of septic arthritis?

A

Joint effusion

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24
Q

Pyomyositis (bacterial infection of skeletal muscle) is often seen at what location for IV drug users?

A

Within the glute muscles

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25
Q

Which T1W signal pattern is most reliable in diagnosing osteomyelitis of the foot?

A

Low geographic, medullary T1 signal

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26
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of the fibrous capsule of an abscess on MRI?

A

Thick and enhancing

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27
Q

What causes the majority of cases of necrotizing fasciitis?

A

Polymicrobial

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28
Q

What is the earliest osseous radiographic sign of osteomyelitis?

A

Indistinct cortical lines

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29
Q

What MRI features often suggest superimposed osteomyelitis in a neuropathic foot?

A

Soft tissue abscess

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30
Q

The distribution of skeletal lesions in Ollier disease is best described as

A

Predominantly unilateral and asymmetric, typically at the metaphyseal regions

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31
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma characteristically occurs in which part of the bone?

A

Metadiaphysis

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32
Q

What is the most frequent donor site for cancellous bone grafting?

A

Iliac crest: the anterior iliac crest is easily accessible

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33
Q

What is the typical process of osteofibrous dysplasia?

A

They tend to spontaneously regress without much residual skeletal deformity

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34
Q

What is another name for bizarre parosteal osteochondromatous proliferation (BPOP)

A

Nora lesion

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35
Q

Gardner syndrome is characterized by

A

Multiple osteomas

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36
Q

If malignant transformation was to occur in hereditary multiple exostosis (HME), what is the most likely malignancy?

A

Chondrosarcoma

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37
Q

What characteristics would suggest malignant transformation of a osteochondroma to a chondrosarcoma?

A

Lucent areas of destruction in the interior portion of the lesion

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38
Q

The most common location for an osteoid osteoma

A

The femur

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39
Q

What is a common MRI appearance of a synovial sarcoma?

A

It can have foci of low signal resulting from areas of mineralization

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40
Q

A simple bone cyst (aka unicameral bone cyst) is best described as having what location in bone?

A

Intramedullary and central

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41
Q

Which lesion occurs in the subarticular region of long bones in a skeletally mature individual?

A

Giant cell tumor

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42
Q

Which lesion occurs in the epiphysis of a long bone in a skeletally immature individual?

A

Chondroblastoma

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43
Q

Lymphangiomas (benign, primarily soft tissue tumors) most commonly occur where?

A

Neck (75%), followed by axilla (20%)

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44
Q

Which radiologic feature best differentiates enchondroma from chondrosarcoma?

A

Soft tissue mass

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45
Q

What is a typical MRI feature of intraosseous hemangioma?

A

Coarsened trabecular

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46
Q

Where are intraosseous hemangioma most commonly located?

A

Vertebral body

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47
Q

Sarcomatous degeneration occurs in approximately what percentage of patients with Paget disease?

A

1%

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48
Q

What is the most common sarcoma associated with Paget degeneration?

A

Osteosarcoma

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49
Q

Where is the most common site of metastasis from primary chondrosarcoma?

A

Lungs

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50
Q

Which is the most common site of origin for primary chondrosarcoma?

A

Innominate bone and femur

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51
Q

In Langerhans cell histiocytosis, osseous lesions are the most common manifestation. What is the most common extraosseous location?

A

Skin (55%)

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52
Q

What is the most common age range for diagnosing Langerhans cell histiocytosis?

A

0-10 yo

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53
Q

McCune-Albright syndrome is described as polyostotic fibrous dysplasia in conjunction with what?

A

Endocrine abnormalities

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54
Q

Myxomas are characterized pathologically as lesions with abundant myxoid storm and bland spindle cells. How do they appear on MRI?

A

Hyperintense on T2 with a heterogenous appearance

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55
Q

Myxomas have a predilection for which tissue?

A

Muscle

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56
Q

Mazabraud syndrome is characterized by myxomas and what else?

A

Fibrous dysplasia

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57
Q

What can help differentiate between an aneurysmal bone cyst and telangiectatic osteosarcoma?

A

Cortical destruction

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58
Q

PVNS has a pathognomonic _____ signal on T2

A

Low

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59
Q

Spiculated periosteal response is most commonly associated with what malignancy?

A

Conventional osteosarcoma

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60
Q

Which subtype of osteosarcoma has the best long term prognosis?

A

Parosteal osteosarcoma

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61
Q

What radiographic finding would be diagnostic of a hemangioma in the hand?

A

Phleboliths

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62
Q

For conventional osteosarcomas, what percentage of cases have pulmonary metastases at the time of diagnosis?

A

5-10%

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63
Q

Radiographic apparence of malignant fibrous histiocytoma (MFH) typically lacks what?

A

Periosteal reaction

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64
Q

Where do nodular fasciits most frequently occur?

A

Upper extremities

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65
Q

Where do adamantinomas characteristically like to occur?

A

Anterior tibia

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66
Q

What is a radiographic characteristic of an Adamantinoma?

A

Expansile

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67
Q

What are the 2 most common neoplasms of the patella?

A

Chondroblastoma and giant cell tumors (primary patella tumors are usually benign)

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68
Q

What most accurately describes the cellular origin of hemangioendotheliomas?

A

Tumor of endothelial cells or their precursors

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69
Q

What is another name for periosteal chondroma?

A

Juxtacortical chondroma. They are benign and arise on the surface of bone, deep to the periosteum

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70
Q

Periosteal and parosteal osteosarcomas are surface lesions. Which periosteal response is more characteristic of a periosteal osteosarcoma?

A

Sunburst appearance due to calcified spicules of bone perpendicular to the cortex

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71
Q

Metastasis from renal cell carcinoma (RCC) typically have what kind of appearance on radiographs?

A

Osteolytic, expansile, highly vascular

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72
Q

Osseous lymphoma are often associated with what?

A

Soft tissue mass

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73
Q

In the setting of an ankle injury, what following radiographs should be taken?

A

Tibia/fibula radiographs

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74
Q

A common location for paralabral cysts at the shoulder

A

Spinoglenoid notch

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75
Q

Compression of the supra scapular nerve in the spinoglenoid notch classically results in denervation of what muscle?

A

Infraspinatus

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76
Q

What is AVN of the lunate called?

A

Keinboch disease

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77
Q

What wrist abnormality is associated with Keinboch disease?

A

Negative ulnar variance

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78
Q

What structure can prevent proximal retraction of the biceps tendon even with complete disruption of the tendon?

A

Lacertus fibrosis

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79
Q

Which muscle attaches at the ASIS?

A

Sartorius

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80
Q

Which muscle attaches at the AIIS?

A

Rectus femoris

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81
Q

What is the most common cause of posterior shoulder dislocations in adults?

A

Seizure

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82
Q

Where can you find the Lisfranc ligament?

A

From the medial cuneiform to the second metatarsal

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83
Q

A fat blood interface sign (FBI sign) at the knee indicates what?

A

An occult fracture

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84
Q

Where is a Jones fracture located?

A

The metadiaphyseal region of the 5th metatarsal

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85
Q

Anterior “kissing contusions” in the knee are seen with which injury mechanism?

A

Hyperextension

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86
Q

Distal clavicle osteolysis is often caused by what activity?

A

Weightlifting and/or overhead lifting of some kind

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87
Q

Which pattern of dislocation most common occurs at the glenohumeral joint?

A

Anterior shoulder dislocation, infracoracoid location

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88
Q

Achilles tendon tears are most likely to occur in which location?

A

Midsubstance, the “avascular zone” approximately 2-6cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion

89
Q

Which tendon causes the retraction of the fracture fragment seen in a Bennet fracture?

A

Abductor pollicis

90
Q

The acetabular labrum is most commonly torn in which quadrant?

A

Anterior superior

91
Q

Which position of the shoulder will improve visualization of the anterior inferior labrum?

A

“ABER”: abduction and external rotation

92
Q

A grade III injury of the AC joint means complete disruption of which ligament?

A

Coracoclavicular ligament

93
Q

What is the name of a retracted avulsion fracture of the fibular head?

A

Arcuate Sign

94
Q

What is a Stener lesion at the thumb?

A

Entrapment of the ulnar collateral ligament due to a fracture of the proximal phalanx at the thumb

95
Q

What is the definition of Gamekeepers thumb?

A

Injury to the ulnar collateral ligament

96
Q

Which structure prevents healing of a Stener lesion at the thumb?

A

Adductor aponeurosis

97
Q

Which modality is best to estimate the stability of a osteochondral lesion?

A

MRI

98
Q

What are MRI findings that would indicate an unstable osteochondral lesion?

A

Fluid signal interface with the donor bone

99
Q

What is the first radiographic manifestation of fracture healing?

A

Widening of the fracture line with blurring of fracture margins

100
Q

Avulsion at the base of the 5th metatarsal is caused by what structure?

A

Lateral plantar aponeurosis

101
Q

Rotator cuff tears most commonly involves which tendon?

A

Supraspinatus

102
Q

The Pellegrini-Stieda lesion indicates injury to which structure?

A

MCL

103
Q

The Segond fracture is associated with what other injury?

A

ACL (more than 90%)

104
Q

Injuries that are caused by high-voltage electrical burns can also produce what?

A

Dystrophic calcification or heterotypic ossification

105
Q

What is the name of a radial head fracture with disruption of the distal radioulnar joint?

A

Essex-Lopresti fracture

106
Q

A fracture to which region of the scaphoid is most susceptible to developing AVN?

A

Proximal pole

107
Q

The reverse Segond fracture has a high associated with injury to which structure?

A

PCL

108
Q

Which proximal femoral fracture is most susceptible to AVN

A

Subcapital

109
Q

Which nerve is entrapped in a patient with forearm pain and weakness of extensors and preserved sensation?

A

Posterior interosseous nerve, known as deep radial nerve syndrome aka supinator syndrome

110
Q

Thickening of the infra-stellar tendon is known as what?

A

Jumper’s knee

111
Q

Long head of biceps tendon rupture most commonly occurs in which location?

A

Proximal intra-articular portion

112
Q

What is included in Haglund deformity with retrocalcaneal bursitis?

A

Enthesophytes
Enlarged posterior process of calcaneus
Retrocalcaneal bursitis

113
Q

An ostechondral defect at the knee most commonly occurs where?

A

Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle

114
Q

What is the definition of a perilunate dislocation?

A

Posterior displace of the carpals except the lunate, which remains in articulation with the radius on lateral view

115
Q

Lesser arch injuries of the wrist follow a predictable pattern, name the injuries from least to greatest severity

A

Scapholunate
Lunocapitate
Lunotriquetral

116
Q

Looser zones in osteomalacia are typically located where in the femur?

A

Medial subtrochanteric region

117
Q

What is the earliest radiographics sign of hyperparathyroidism?

A

Subperiosteal resorption of the radial surface of the 2nd and 3rd middle phalanx

118
Q

What percentage of primary hyperparathyroidism cases results from a parathyroid adenoma?

A

75-85%

119
Q

In acromegaly, a heel pad thickness of greater than _____ cm is characteristic for males?

A

2.3cm for males, 2.15cm for females

120
Q

Cortical hypertrophy with a cortical fracture in an elderly patient with osteoporosis is likely caused by what?

A

Biphosphonate

121
Q

What is the best imaging test to diagnose osteoporosis?

A

DEXA scan

122
Q

What is the most common location for periosteal new bone formation in thyroid acropachy?

A

Metacarpals

123
Q

In myelofibrosis, what is a characteristic bone marrow MRI appearance?

A

T1W bone marrow signal is lower than muscle or intervertebral disc signal

124
Q

What is the most common location to see hemophilia arthropathy?

A

Knee

125
Q

Besides the knee, what is the next most common location to see hemophilia arthropathy?

A

Elbow, ankle, hip, shoulder

126
Q

Calcaneal insufficiency avulsion (CIA) is associated with which systemic disease?

A

Diabetes mellitus

127
Q

Which portion of bone converts red marrow to yellow marrow last?

A

Metaphysis

128
Q

Which disease shows soft tissue calcifications without the other soft tissue changes seen in scleroderma?

A

Polymyositis

129
Q

“Sausage digit” is seen with which arthropathy?

A

Psoriatic arthritis

130
Q

Which bones in the feet most commonly undergoes ankylosis with juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Carpal bones

131
Q

The 2 most common arthropathies that present with “hooked osteophytes” at the metacarpals

A

CPPD and hemochromatosis

132
Q

The deposits of gout are made up of what substance?

A

Monosodium urate crystals

133
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis shows the earliest erosions in which location?

A

Ulnar styloid process and carpal bones of the wrist

134
Q

Most common radiographic finding at the hands of an individual with SLE includes

A

Joint deformities without erosions

135
Q

Which disease can cause opacification of disc spaces on radiographs?

A

Ochronosis

136
Q

What is the classic triad seen in reactive arthritis?

A

Urethritis
Conjunctivitis
Arthritis typically involving the lower extremities

137
Q

Which organism is associated with reactive arthritis?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

138
Q

In seronegative arthropathies, where do erosions and sclerosis typically present at the SI joints?

A

Iliac side of the inferior SI joint

139
Q

Cartilage loss in weight-bearing portions of a joint, bone proliferation, and subchondral cyst formation are characteristic of which arthropathy?

A

Osteoarthritis

140
Q

Progressive osteoarthritis of the great toe consisting of osteophyte formation, joint space narrowing, and subchondral sclerosis can lead to what condition?

A

Hallux rigidus

141
Q

What is the earliest sign of rheumatoid arthritis at the hands?

A

Soft tissue swelling and juxta-articular osteoporosis

142
Q

Which disease is characterized by periarticular tendinous thickening, thickened synovium and large erosions?

A

Amyloidosis, a multisystem disorder with abnormal deposition of extracellular protein

143
Q

Diffuse periosteal response without underlying bone disease is most consistent with what?

A

Hypertrophic arthropathy (secondary), non-small cell lung carcinoma being the most common cause

144
Q

What is the most common appearance of sarcoidosis within the hands?

A

Lace-like trabecular pattern and cortical erosions

145
Q

The “blade of grass” appearance is characteristic of which disease?

A

Paget disease

146
Q

Hypertrophic osteoarthritis (HOA) is characterized by what?

A

Periosteal response of long bone without underlying bone disease, abnormal soft tissue proliferation, clubbing of fingers. Known as primary HOA if there are no underlying pathologies

147
Q

What is another name for primary hypertrophic osteoarthritis?

A

Pachydermoperiostosis, a self-limiting autosomal dominant disease

148
Q

Name 3 lab findings associated with multiple myeloma

A

Reverse A/G ratio (low albumin and high globulin)
Ben Jones proteins
Decreased/normal alkaline phosphatase due to impaired osteoblastic function (unless there’s a pathological fracture)

149
Q

“Punched out lesions” and “raindrop skull” is associated with what disease?

A

Multiple myeloma

150
Q

What is the most common primary malignant bone neoplasm?

A

Multiple myeloma

151
Q

Where in the spine is the most common location for spondylodiskitis?

A

Lumbar spine, but can be seen anywhere

152
Q

What is the distribution of spondylodiskitis?

A

Single level (65%)
Multiple contiguous levels (20%)
Multiple non-contiguous levels (10%)

153
Q

What is the most common organism to cause spondylodiskitis?

A

Staph. Aureus (60%)

154
Q

Tuberculous spondylitis (Potts disease) is most commonly seen where?

A

Lower thoracic spine and upper lumbar spine

155
Q

The most common MSK location for tuberculosis is where?

A

Vertebral involvement (spine)

156
Q

Increased width of the skull is called what?

A

Brachycephaly (involves coronal and lambdoidal suture)

157
Q

Increased AP diameter of the skull is called what?

A

Scaphocephaly/doliocephaly (involves sagittal suture)
The most common form of craniosynostosis
Associated with Marfans disease

158
Q

Craniosynostosis that involves asymmetric coronal and/lambdoidal sutures is called what?

A

Plagiocephaly

159
Q

Which type of craniosynostosis is associated with the “Harlequin eye deformity”?

A

Plagiocephaly

160
Q

What is seen with the “Harlequin eye deformity”?

A

Elevation of superolateral orbital corner

Unilateral/bilateral with plagiocephaly

161
Q

Craniosynostosis that creates a triangular appearance of the frontal skull is called

A

Trigonocephaly (involves the metopic suture)

162
Q

Which eye deformity is associated with trigonocephaly?

A

Orbital hypotelorism (abnormal closeness of the eyes)

163
Q

Which type of craniosynostosis is the most severe?

A

Oxycephaly/turricephaly (involves all sutures)

Characterized by the “tower-like” skull

164
Q

What are some characteristics associated with “tower-like” skull?

A

CN VIII lesion (vestibulocochlear)
Optic nerve compression
Mental deficiency
Syndactyly

165
Q

List 2 differential diagnosis for thyroid acropachy

A

Hypertrophic osteoarthritis

Hypervitaminosis A

166
Q

Approximately 1% of those with thyroid acropachy also has which disease?

A

Graves disease

167
Q

What is the most common cause of acromegaly?

A

Pituitary adenoma

168
Q

Name some of the changes seen at the skull of someone with acromegaly

A

Enlarged frontal sinus
Enlarged sella turcica
Enlarged mandible
Thickened calvarium

169
Q

Camurati-Engelmann disease is also known as what?

A

Progressive diaphysial dysplasia

170
Q

Metaphyseal disease is also known as what?

A

Pyle disease

171
Q

What is “hawkins” sign of the talus?

A

Subchondral lucency at the talar dome

It occurs secondary to subchondral atrophy 6-8 weeks post fracture

172
Q

Name the types of spondylolisthesis based on the Wiltse classification system

A

Type I: dysplastic/congenital
Abnormality not located at the pars

Type II: ischmic
The most common type
Involves pars stress fracture
Most commonly seen at L5

Type III: degenerative
Due to bilateral facet arthrosis
Most commonly seen at L4
Never more than 50% of slippage

Type IV: post-traumatic
Due to fractures

Type V: pathological
Due to diffuse/local disease

Type VI: iatrogenic

173
Q

What is the most common location for Paget disease?

A

Pelvis and sacrum

174
Q

The capitolunate angle should be less than how many degrees in neutral?

A

30 degrees

175
Q

What is considered the normal range for the scapholunate angle in neutral?

A

30-60 degrees

176
Q

What is the differential diagnosis list for spotty carpals?

A 
"GS RAT"
Gout
Sudecks atrophy
Rheumatoid arthritis 
Tuberculosis
177
Q

If a third condyle is present, where is it usually located?

A

Between the basion (bottom of the clivus) and the anterior tubercle of C1, extra-cranial

178
Q

If thalassemia is suspected, what other pathology should be included as a differential diagnosis?

A

Gaucher disease

179
Q

In an individual with sickle cell disease, which of the following 3 diagnosis is usually the most likely: enchondroma, chondrosarcoma, or bone infarct

A

Bone infarct is commonly seen in sickle cell disease patients

180
Q

What is the most common skeletal location for Langerhans cell histiocytosis?

A

Skull 50%
Pelvis 23%
Femur 17%

181
Q

Skull lesions seen in Langerhans cell histiocytosis has a specific appearance, what is that sign called?

A

“Beveled edge” sign where the outer cranial table is more involved compared to the inner cranial table

182
Q

Gaucher disease is most commonly seen in which specific population?

A

Ashkenazi Jews

183
Q

What does bone infarct typically look like on CT?

A

Clear border of demarcation
Sclerotic rim
“Hollow” center appearance
Irregular contour

184
Q

“Rodent” or “Chipmunk” facies is associated with what disease?

A

Thalassemia

185
Q

Erlenmeyer flask deformity/metaphyseal flaring is seen in which pathologies?

A 
"Lead GNOME"
Lead poisoning
Gaucher disease
Niemann-Pick disease
Osteopetrosis 
Metaphyseal dysplasia (aka Pyle disease)
'Ematological diseases (Thalassemia, Sickle cell disease)
186
Q

How does Gaucher disease affect the spleen and liver?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly is commonly seen

187
Q

What is the most common suture involved in premature fusion (craniosynostosis)?

A 
Sagittal suture (approximately 50%)
Creates increased A-P diameter (scaphocephaly)
188
Q

When does the anterior fontanelle close?

A

Approximately 18-24 months after birth

After closure it is known as the bregma

189
Q

When does the posterior fontanelle close?

A

Approximately 2-3 months after birth

After closure it is known as the lambda

190
Q

At what age does the coronal suture close?

A

Approximately 24 years old

191
Q

At what age does the sagittal suture close?

A

Approximately 22 years old

192
Q

At what age does the lambdoid suture close?

A

Approximately 26 years old

193
Q

At what age does the metopic suture close?

A

Approximately 3-9 months old

194
Q

At what age does the squamosal suture close?

A

It may not completely close until approximately 60 years old

195
Q

At what age does the sphenosquamosal suture close?

A

Approximately 6-10 years old

196
Q

Which sinus is spared in thalassemia?

A

Ethmoid (due to lack of red bone marrow)

197
Q

Aneurysmal bone cysts are typically seen in which age group?

A

Younger than 20 years old

198
Q

What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Parathyroid adenoma

199
Q

Which cranial bone is spared in thalassemia?

A

Occipital bone (due to lack of red bone marrow)

200
Q

What is the most common location site for chondromyxoid fibroma?

A 
Proximal tibia (knee)
Most are within the metaphyseal region of long bone, they may extend to the epiphyseal region but usually never subarticular
201
Q

What is the most common complication following a scaphoid fracture?

A

Avascular necrosis

202
Q

What is Preiser disease?

A

Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the scaphoid

203
Q

In what age group are most chondrromyxoid fibromas diagnosed?

A

Younger than 30 years old

204
Q

What are some findings associated with hemochromatosis?

A 
Hook osteophytes at the metacarpals
Bronze skin pigmentation (90%)
Hepatomegaly (90%)
Arthralgia (50%)
Diabetes (30%)
205
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Renal osteodystrophy

206
Q

What are the 2 name signs associated with hemangioma of the skull?

A

“Sand dollar” sign

“Spoked wheel” sign

207
Q

What is the most common type of hemangioma?

A

Cavernous hemangioma

208
Q

How would you describe Blount disease?

A

A disturbance of growth at the medial aspect of the proximal tibia epiphysis and/or metaphysis (results in tibia vara)

209
Q

“Picture frame vertebra” sign is associated with which pathology?

A

Paget disease

210
Q

What is the most common primary malignancy of bone?

A

Multiple myeloma

211
Q

What structure does multiple myeloma arise from?

A

Red bone marrow

212
Q

What is the typical age for multiple myeloma?

A

Patients > 40 years old

213
Q

What are some characteristic lab findings of multiple myeloma?

A

Reverse A/G ratio (decreased albumin, increased globulin)
Bence Jones proteins in urine
Decreased/normal alkaline phosphatase (unless there’s a pathological fracture)

214
Q

Does multiple myeloma prefer axial or appendicular skeleton in location?

A 
Axial skeleton:
Spine is the most common location
Others include:
Ribs
Skull
Pelvis
Shoulder girdle
215
Q

“Punched out lesions” and “raindrop skull” are name signs associated with what condition?

A

Multiple myeloma

216
Q

What is the all-encompassing name for juvenile arthritis types?

A

Juvenile chronic arthritis

217
Q

What is the “anteater nose” sign (foot) associated with?

A

Tarsal coalition of calcaneonavicular

218
Q

What is the “c” sign (foot) associated with?

A

Tarsal coalition of talocalcaneal

219
Q

What are the 2 most common types of tarsal coalition?

A

Calcaneonaviular

Talocalcaneal

MSK Imaging (3 decks)

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