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msca questions and more Flashcards

1
Q

Ectopic pregnancy management (Conservative, Medical and Surgical Management)

A

CONSERVATIVE MANAGEMENT - rarely done

-Only if No or very minimal symptoms
-Adnexal mass < 35mm
-No visible heartbeat
-The ectopic needs to be unruptured
-HCG level < 1500 IU / l
-Close follow up required, if b-hcg is not going down then active management

MEDICAL MANAGEMENT
One of dose of IM methotrexate in bum
Criteria: low hcg, ability to attend follow up,
adherence to avoiding pregnancy for 3 months following treatment
same as conservative essentially except: HCG level must be < 5000 IU / l

If first dose doesn’t work give second or surgical management

SURGICAL MANAGEMENT (MAJORITY OF PATIENTS)
Recommend in cases where patients are unable to attend follow-up, the ectopic pregnancy is advanced or the patient is haemodynamically unstable.

1st line laproscopic salpingectomy

Surgical management often involves removing that tube, unless the patient only has one functioning tube and wishes to remain fertile. In that case is salpingotomy may be performed where only the ectopic pregnancies removed. However, there is a risk that all the tissue will be removed and so the beta CG needs to be performed to exclude any remaining trophoblastic tissue within the Fallopian tube.

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2
Q

What is the only reliable method for diagnosing active tb?

A

Sputum culture

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3
Q

First thing to give in suspected spinal chord compression before mri

A

Dexamethasone

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4
Q

Number needed to treat calculation

A

1 divided by absolute risk reduction

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5
Q

Mrsa antibiotic treatment?

A

Vancomycin
But if found on skin just do wash

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6
Q

Most common abdominal Tumour in kids

A

Wilms tumour aka nephroblastoma
Most common in children under 5

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7
Q

Management of undescended testes at birth

A

-Undescended bilateral testes at birth
Immediate investigation

-Unilateral- review at 6-8 weeks

-Undescended unilateral testis refer for surgery before 6 months at the 4-5th month mark

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8
Q

What disease is muddy brown cast Pathognomnic of?

A

Acute tubular necrosis

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9
Q

Limp causes in child

A

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis-
gradual onset Fat kids, flexed externally rotated leg

Perthes disease- gradual onset, avascular necrosis of femoral head, boys 4-8 most common

Transient synovitis- preceded by viral infection
Typically a young boy complaining of mild hip or knee pain with a low-grade fever

Developmental dysplasia of the hip – more common in females and babies born in breech position. no pain

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10
Q

When is prolonged prenatal Jaundiced considered prolonged and the 3 main causes?

A

14 days in term babies
21 days in pre term babies

biliary atresia- narrowing or absence of bile duct
hypothyroidism
G6PD deficiency

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11
Q

Pagets bone disease blood results: alp, calcium, phospahte

A

Isolated raised alp
Normal calcium
Normal phosphate

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12
Q

What is the initial investigation for ovarian cancer

A

Abdominal & Pelvic ultrasound

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13
Q

Investigation of choice for suspected pancreatic cancer

A

CT abdominal
But ultrasound is also highly sensitive

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14
Q

myeloma signs? CRABBI

A

C-Hypercalcemia
R-renal dysfunction
A- anemia
B-bleeding
B-bones- lyric lesions, back pain
I- infection (reduction in ig production)

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15
Q

Myeloma investigation

A

Serum Protein electrophoresis

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16
Q

Investigation for post steptococcul glomerilnephritis

A

Renal biopsy

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17
Q

Four classic features of henoch-schonlein purpura ans IgA Vasculitis

A

Pupura
Joint pain
Abdominal pain
Renal involvement

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18
Q

Cause of biloius vomiting in a downs syndrome babe on 2 days?

A

Dudoneal atresia

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19
Q

Treatment of Myasthenic Crisis

A

Iv immunoglobulins

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20
Q

What type of aneamia is sickle cell (mcv)?

A

Normacytic

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21
Q

Immune thrombocytopenia purpura vs henoch scholein pupura

A

Both present after an infection
Itp- isolated thrombocytopenia, self limiting

Hsp- rash usually over buttocks and extensor surface of arms and legs
Joint pain
Abdo pain
Usually haematuria on dipstick

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22
Q

Most common bacteria affecting Hickman line

A

staphylococcus aureus

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23
Q

staphylococcus aureus type of bacteria

A

gram positive cocci

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24
Q

Most likely cause of erectile dysfunction in a person with poorly controlled diabetes?

A

autonomic neuropathy

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25
Q

Timolol eye drops in excess can cause:

A

bradycardia

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26
Q

Red watery eye, irregular pupil, 24 male

A

Anterior uveitis

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27
Q

tumour markers? CA 125, CA19-9, CA 15-3, AFP, CEA

A

Ca 125
Ovarian

Ca19-9
Pancreatic and bile duct

Ca 15-3
Breast

Afp
Hepatocellular/teratoma

Cea
Colorectal cancer

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28
Q

Which type of lung cancer causes hypercalceamia?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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29
Q

Breast cancer found in SNA and all nodes what to offer?

A

Axillary lymph nodes removal although this increases risk of lymphoma in this arm

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30
Q

Management of stress vs urge incontinence

A

Urge
Bladder retraining – oxybutynin (anticholinergic drugs)

Stress
Pelvic floor exercises – duloxetine

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31
Q

Difference between two heart valves/pros and cons

A
  • Mechanical heart valve lasts over 20 years but requires lifelong anticoagulation with warfarin (Better for younger patients)
  • Biological prosthetic valves last around 10 years
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32
Q

Different murmurs sounds?

A

Aortic stenosis
Ejection systolic radiates to carotids

mitral regurgitation
pan systolic radiates to axilla

aortic regurgitation
early diastolic

Mitral stenosis
Mid diastolic

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33
Q

What is Creatine Kinase usually raised to in cases of rhabdomyolysis?

A

10,000 (upper limit 200)

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34
Q

What is the management of Aortic stenosis?

A

Management

  • if asymptomatic then observe the patient is a general rule
  • if symptomatic then valve replacement
  • if asymptomatic but valvular gradient > 40 mmHg and with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction then consider surgery
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35
Q

Collapsing Pusle is a sign of?

A

Aortic regurgitation

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36
Q

Pulmonary fibrosis vs Bronchiectasis?

A

Bronchiectasis- permanent dilation of the bronchi causing sputum and organisms to drown leading to chronic PRODUCTIVE cough and recurrent infections, HAEMOPTYSIS
finger clubbing, scattered wheeze, squeaks and crackles EVERYWHERE

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

  • finger clubbing, DRY cough, BIBASAL fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation, progressive exertional dyspnoea
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37
Q

Zig Zags in vision what diagnosis?

A

Migraines

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38
Q

TAVI vs Open heart surgery. which is preffered when?

A

Transcatheter Aortic Valve Implantation

Long-term outcomes for TAVI still need to be clarified as it is a relatively new procedure. Therefore, open surgery is still the first-line option in younger, fitter patients.
Patients with a TAVI do not typically require warfarin as the valve is bioprosthetic.

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39
Q

HOW do you manage INR less than 5

A

do nothing

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40
Q

yellow nails syndrome? Triad

A

Yellow nails, bronchiectasis and lymphedema

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41
Q

what is cranial nerve 5 called and how do you test for it?

A

trigeminal nerve
light and sharo touch in v1,2,3

test muscles in face
bite down for me- hand in tmj

open mouth dont let me push it closed

jar jerk

corneal reflex

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42
Q

what is cranial nerve 7 and how do we test for it?

A

facial nerve?

have you noticed any changes to your sense of taste or hearing

Testing for facial expressions
raise eyebrows
close eyes
puffed cheeks
purse lips
dont let me open

smile

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43
Q

bells palsy is a problem with which cranial nerve?

A

7the facial nerve

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44
Q

which cranial nerve is 8 and how do you test for it?

A

vestibulochoclear
gross hearing and whinnes and webber

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45
Q

What are cranial nerves 9 and 10 and how do u test for them?

A

glossopharyngeal and vagus

any chane in voice or difficulty swallowing

inspect soft pallate and uvula deviation will be away from the lesion

cough
sip of water
gag reflex (tounge depresser)

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46
Q

what is cranial nerve 11 and how do you test for it?

A

Accessory nerve

raise shoulders dont let me push down

press cheek into my hand

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47
Q

what is cranial nerve 12 and how do you test for it?

A

inpect for tounge wasting and fasiculations

stick out tounge

push tongue towards cheek stop me from pushing in

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48
Q

difference bewteen cranial nerve 9 and 12

A

9 is glossopharyngeal nerve and in this one the uvula deviates away from the lesion.

12 is the hypoglossal nerve and the tongue deviates towards the lesion

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49
Q

drug treatment and diet change for ascites?

A

aldosterone antagonists e.g. spironolactone

reduce dietary sodium

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50
Q

symptoms of Retinitis pigmentosa?

A

night blindness + tunnel vision

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51
Q

when do you send a urine culture for non-pregnant women, pregnant women and men?

A

non-pregnant:
aged > 65 years
visible or non-visible haematuria

pregnant:
if symptomatic:
a urine culture should be sent in all cases

asymptomatic:
urine culture should be performed routinely at the first antenatal visit
if found treat it
then repeat culture

men:
a urine culture should be sent in all cases

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52
Q

treatment of uti in catheterised patients?

A

do not treat asymptomatic bacteria in catheterised patients
if the patient is symptomatic they should be treated with an antibiotic
a 7-day, rather than a 3-day course should be given
consider removing or changing the catheter as soon as possible if it has been in place for longer than 7 days

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53
Q

The concurrent use of methotrexate and trimethoprim containing antibiotics can lead to?

A

bone marrow suppression and severe or fatal pancytopaenia

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54
Q

what is Myxoedema coma?

A

Myxoedema coma is a potentially fatal complication of longstanding undertreated hypothyroidism. It may be precipitated by illness, stress, and certain drugs.

Myxoedema coma typically presents with confusion and hypothermia.

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55
Q

Placenta accreta,Placenta percreta,Placenta increta most to least serious?

A

Placenta percreta, Placenta increta, Placenta accreta

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56
Q

what to give for chronic anal fissure if laxatives have been tried?

A

Chronic anal fissure - topical glyceryl trinitrate

expanding the blood vessels around the area helps it to heal faster.

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57
Q

how to calculate number needed to treat?

A

NNT = 1 / Absolute Risk Reduction

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58
Q

staghorn calculus in kidney, what is this stone made from

A

Struvite

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59
Q

kidney stones after chemo what is this stone made from

A

uric acid

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60
Q

most kidney stones are made from

A

calcium oxelate

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61
Q

severe iron deficiency can cause

A

dysphagia

62
Q

Patients who are allergic to aspirin may also react to

A

sulfasalazine

63
Q

An FEV1/FVC ratio <WHAT? (it is an obstructive lung disease)

A

70

64
Q

Therapeutic monitoring of lithium vs digoxin?

A

Lithium 12 and digoxin 6

65
Q

how does lidocaine work?

A

Blockage of sodium channels disrupting the action potential

66
Q

what artery is ruptured in extradural vs subdural bleed?

AND which is limited to the cranial sutures?

A

extra- medial meningeal artery
sub- bridging veins

extra- doesnt cross sutures

67
Q

what to check for in a patient with peripheral neuropathy, particulary pins and needles?

A

b12 Deficiency

68
Q

what must you co prescribe methotrexate with?

A

folic acid

69
Q

treatment of bowens disease and actinic keratosis?

A

topical 5-fluorouracil
typically used twice daily for 4 weeks

fluorouracil cream

70
Q

Treatment of postpartum thyroiditis?

A

propanolol

It works by blocking the
effects of thyroid hormones on the heart and peripheral tissues. Propranolol can be
started immediately to control the patient’s symptoms while further investigations and
management are initiated.

71
Q

which diabetic drug should be stopped before a CT scan?

A

Metformin should be stopped before a CT scan
with contrast as it can increase the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. The risk is
greater in patients with impaired renal function

72
Q

how to calculate serum osmolarity

A

2Na + Urea + Glucose

73
Q

normal urine output for an hour for a 60kg man

A

30ml

74
Q

what neurotransmitter is deficient in Parkinsons

A

dopamine

75
Q

Treatment of cellulitis (in pregnancy too) vs treatment of MRSA cellulitis

A

cellulitis
first line flucloxacillin for everyone
if pen allergy
can give clarithromycin and erythromycin in pregnancy

MRSA Cellultiis is resistent to fluclox
so give VANCOMYCIN

76
Q

CRVO VS CRAO eye

A

vein- stormy sunset

arterial- cherry red spot

77
Q

painful left eye with no discharge.
There is a diffuse area of redness in the medial aspect of his left sclera. His pupils and visual acuity are normal.

A

Scleritis

78
Q

scleritis vs keratitis presentation and treatment

A

scleritis no discharge - keratitis watery discharge

both emergency ophthalmology review

scleritis- NSAIDS/steroids/ antibiotics if infectious cause

keratitis- anti viral

note episcleritis is self limiting

79
Q

what is mesothelioma?

A

lung cancer related to asbestos exposure

80
Q

A 35 year old woman was admitted two days ago after taking 32 paracetamol
tablets. She has alcohol use disorder and weighs 40 kg. She has been treated
with a full dose of acetylcysteine.
Which investigation best demonstrates restoration of liver synthetic function?

A

prothrombin time

81
Q

contraception after child birth

A

The progestogen-only pill and implant are considered safe in breastfeeding and can be started at any time after birth.

The combined contraceptive pill should be avoided in breastfeeding (UKMEC 4 before 6 weeks postpartum, UKMEC 2 after 6 weeks).

A copper coil or intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) can be inserted either within 48 hours of birth or more than 4 weeks after birth (UKMEC 1), but not inserted between 48 hours and 4 weeks of birth (UKMEC 3).

TOM TIP: Remember that the combined pill should not be started before 6 weeks after childbirth in women that are breastfeeding. The progestogen-only pill or implant can be started any time after birth.

82
Q

What drug will you administer to reduce the risk of isoniazid induced peripheral neuropathy?

A

isoniazid is an antibiotic for TB,
It can cause peripheral neuropathy,
For which there is a quick fix,
prescribe concurrently with B6

83
Q

What medication is used to treat negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

clozapine

84
Q

BCC vs SCC presentation and management

A

bcc slow growing, pale, shiny, rolled edge or overlying telangiectasia
m- routine referral to dermatology

scc: red in colour usually, faster growing
m- 2ww referral to dermatology

85
Q

investigation for suspected renal malignancy vs polycystic kidney disease.

A

PKD- ultrasound of renal tract
malignancy- CT KUB

86
Q

If you come across a patient in your exams with significant acute kidney injury and haemoptysis, the top conditions to consider can be differentiated based on the antibodies

A

Anti-GBM antibodies – Goodpasture syndrome

p-ANCA (or MPO antibodies) – microscopic polyangiitis

c-ANCA (or PR3 antibodies) – granulomatosis with polyangiitis

87
Q

gladular fever aka infectious mononucleosis symptoms? AND INVESTIGATION

A

Fever
Sore throat
Fatigue
Lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph nodes)
Tonsillar enlargement
Splenomegaly and in rare cases splenic rupture

Test for ebv virus/other antibodies once patient has been ill for more than 7 days

88
Q

exam question that describes an adolescent with a sore throat, who develops an itchy rash after taking amoxicillin- condition?

A

infectious mononucleosis (Glandular fever)

Mononucleosis causes an intensely itchy maculopapular rash in response to amoxicillin or cefalosporins.

89
Q

what are the side effects of the TB Drugs: Rifampicin,Isoniazid,Pyrazinamide,Ethambutol

A

Rifampicin can cause red/orange discolouration of secretions, such as urine and tears. It is a potent inducer of the cytochrome P450 enzymes and reduces the effects of drugs such as the combined contraceptive pill.

Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is co-prescribed to reduce the risk.

Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricaemia (high uric acid levels), resulting in gout and kidney stones.

Ethambutol can cause colour blindness and reduced visual acuity.

Rifampicin, isoniazid and pyrazinamide are all associated with hepatotoxicity.

Numbness or unusual sensations in their feet implicates isoniazide (“I’m-so-numb-azid”).

Difficulty recognising colours implicates ethambutol (“eye-thambutol”).

Urine or tears that are orange or red implicates rifampicin (“red-I’m-pissin’”).

90
Q

Isoniazid can cause ????, therefore ????? is co-prescribed to reduce the risk

A

peripheral neuropathy

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

91
Q

treatment for latent and active tb?

A

Latent tuberculosis is treated with either:

Isoniazid and rifampicin for 3 months
Isoniazid for 6 months

The treatment for active tuberculosis can be remembered with the RIPE mnemonic:

R – Rifampicin for 6 months
I – Isoniazid for 6 months
P – Pyrazinamide for 2 months
E – Ethambutol for 2 months

92
Q

oral antibiotic you can give if topical stuff for acne has failed/in moderate/severe acne/

A

oral lymecycline or doxycycline,

93
Q

hypercalcemia symptoms

A

Digestive symptoms, such as nausea or vomiting, poor appetite, or constipation.
Increased thirst or more frequent urination, due to changes in the kidneys.
Muscle weakness or twitches.
Changes in how your brain works, such as feeling tired or fatigued or confused.
Bone pain and fragile bones that break more easily.

94
Q

how to tell if erectile dysfunction is being cause by autonomic neuropathy or peripheral arterial disease in diabetic patients?

A

look at which they have the most features of

95
Q

drugs causing hyperkalemia (4)

A

ACEi, ARB (e.g. losartan),spironolactone,NSAIDS

96
Q

Tripple A screening guidelines

A

-Yearly for patients with aneurysms 3-4.4cm

-3 monthly for patients with aneurysms 4.5-5.4cm

Elective repair for patients with any of:

Symptomatic aneurysm
Diameter growing more than 1cm per year
Diameter above 5.5cm

97
Q

how to decrease chances of oral candidiasis from inhaler?

A

use a large volume spacer as there will be less local deposition of the drug in the mouth

98
Q

which vitamin deficiency presents with gingival hyperplasia and petechial rash?

A

vit c

99
Q

What is the most common causative organism for imeptigo?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

100
Q

exudative vs transudative pleural effusion causes

A

Exudative – a high protein content (more than 30g/L)
Transudative – a lower protein content (less than 30g/L)

Exudative causes are related to inflammation.
Cancer (e.g., lung cancer or mesothelioma)
Infection (e.g., pneumonia or tuberculosis)
Rheumatoid arthritis

Transudative causes relate to fluid moving across or shifting into the pleural space (trans- meaning moving across):
Congestive cardiac failure
Hypoalbuminaemia
Hypothyroidism
Meigs syndrome

101
Q

if a murmur is heard best in the apex where is this?

A

mid clavicular line 5th intercostal space

102
Q

What aspect of cognition is likely to show the greatest impairment in dementia ?

A

short term memory

103
Q

The most appropriate radiological test for
suspected acute cholecystitis

A

an ultrasound scan of the abdomen.

104
Q

what makes C diff difficult to destroy

A

spore formation

105
Q

when is termination legally allowed until

A

24 weeks

106
Q

Investigation of choice for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

creatine kinase

107
Q

What is Spondylolisthesis?

A

A condition where one
vertebra slips out of line with the one above it, most commonly in the lumbar spine.

108
Q

treatment of eclampsia seizures

A

magnesium sulphate

109
Q

molar pregnancy presentation

A

large for gestation uterus and severe
early onset pre-eclampsia as a secondary phenomenon.

110
Q

What is the most appropriate therapy for anorexia nervosa

A

family therapy

111
Q

treament of acute manic episode

A

give an antisyphycotic such as olanzapine because lithium takes a few days to kick in

112
Q

milk to give baby with cow protein allergy?

A

B. Hydrolysed formula

113
Q

management of acute low back pain with no red flag symptoms?

A

Encourage the person to keep active, resume normal activities, and return to work/study as soon as possible.
Discourage prolonged bed rest. Reassure that normal back movements may produce some pain, but this is not harmful if activities are resumed gradually. Advise there is no need to be pain-free before resuming normal activities.

114
Q

you normally treat a pe with a doac. but how do you treat a Massive PE with haemodynamic compromise

A

continuous infusion of unfractionated heparin and considering thrombolysis

cant use a doac because its oral not quick enough

115
Q

in chad vasc what are the 2 age score

A

65 and above scores 1
75 and above scores 2

116
Q

Which diabetic drug is contraindicated in heart failure? and which to add in CVD?

A

Pioglitazone- contraindicated
SGLT2 inhibitor (flozins)- add if any CVD

117
Q

2 main side effects of SGLT2 inhibitor

A

utis/thrush
diabetic ketoacidosis

118
Q

main 2 side effects of Sulfonylureas
e.g. Gliclazide

A

hypos
weight gain

119
Q

side effects of Pioglitazone

A

Weight gain
Heart failure
Increased risk of bone fractures
A small increase in the risk of bladder cancer

120
Q

which diabetic medicine is licensed to use in CKD?

A

Sitagliptin (DPP4 inhibitor)

121
Q

Diabetic drugs given as injections?

A

insulin
GLP-1 mimetics

122
Q

pre diabetic vs diabetic

A

HBA1c of 42 to 47 puts you in the Pre-diabetes range. HBa1c of 48 and above puts you in the Diabetic rang

123
Q

diagnosis of DIC

A

: Diagnosis of DIC is based on presenceof ≥1
known underlying condition causing DIC plus abnormal global coagulation
tests: decreased platelet count, increased prothrombin time, elevated fibrinrelated marker (D-dimer/fibrin degradation products) and deccreased
fibrinogen level.

124
Q

cataplexy presentation

A

Cataplexy classically presents with loss of
skeletal muscle tone with strong (usually postive) emotions

125
Q

norovirus vs rotavirus and how do you test for it

A

Rotavirus- mostly in kids
Norovirus- can effect any age
viral PCR

126
Q

treatment for gout

A

IA or oral steroids, colchicine or NSAIDs are all effective
treatments for acute gout. NSAIDs are contraindicated in CKD of this stage.
Allopurinol will not help the acute attack.

127
Q

what do u give if a patient has had adequate hydration but is till tanking?

A

: description of adequate (if not over) hydration.
needs vasconstriction

so Noradrenaline/norepinephrine

128
Q

In which part of the brain are changes most likely to be in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Temporal lobe

129
Q

Which is the most appropriate method for providing analgesia during the early
postoperative period of abdominal surgery?

A

epidural
Epidural is
best because it can be topped up and titrated; spinal anaesthesia cannot.

130
Q

treatment of scabies?

A

Topical permethrin

131
Q

Delerium tremens, wernikes and korsakoffs

A

DT- visual and audible hallucinations, tremors, can lead to seziures
caused by alcohol withdrawal
treated with benzos

WK- caused by long term alcohol abuse leading to a thiamine defficiency
w- cognitive impairment, eye symptoms like nystagmus ataxia (acute phase)
k- (chronic phase)- profound memory deficits making new ones and retrieving old ones. + confabulation where the individual may fabricate stories to fill in memory gaps.
treatment- urgent replacement of thiamine (pabrinex)

132
Q

first line treatment of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

lactulose
reduces ammonia in blood

133
Q

which sinus when bending forward snot comes out?

A

maxillary

134
Q

sandpaper rash, which condition?

A

scarlet fever

135
Q

first line treatment for lower mechanical back pain

A

NSAIDS if no other contracindaications

136
Q

The most appropriate agent
to administer to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blockade

A

Neostigmine

137
Q

when testing for tumor lysis syndrome which marker should you use?

A

urate

138
Q

another name for coobs test and what does it test for?

A

Direct antiglobulin test
The Coombs test checks if your immune system is mistakenly attacking your own red blood cells

139
Q

antibodies for rheumatoid vs SLE

A

RA- RF, anti-ccp (most specififc to RA, preffered)
SLE- ANA, anti-dsdna

140
Q

Anti ro and la

A

sjorgens syndrome

141
Q

The most appropriate initial analgesic agent in bilary colic

A

nsaid such as dicolofenac

142
Q

what is the screening test for haemacromatosis?

A

transferrin saturation

143
Q

treatment of delerium

A

short course of haloperidol

144
Q

most common pathogen in leg cellulitis

A

E. Streptococcus pyogenes

145
Q

The main lymphatic drainage of the ovary is to
the

A

para aortic nodes

146
Q

he patient has superior vena cava
obstruction initial treatment

A

iv dexamethasone

147
Q

Nephrotic syndrome in adults requires ?????? to identify the cause, prior to definitive treatment.

A

renal
biopsy

148
Q

treament of acute angle glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine eye drops
Acetazolamide (oral or intravenous)

149
Q

graves disease pathological mechanism

A

Antibody directed against the thyroid stimulating hormone receptor

150
Q

Multiple fractures followed by early onset (within 24 hours) of hypoxia, dyspnea, and
tachypnea are the most frequent finding of?

A

fat emboli

151
Q

first line treatment for acute flare of chrons vs UC?

A

Ulcerative Colitis Management

Mild to moderate acute ulcerative colitis is treated with:
-Aminosalicylate (e.g., oral or rectal mesalazine) first-line
-Corticosteroids (e.g., oral or rectal prednisolone) second-line

Severe acute ulcerative colitis is treated with:
-Intravenous steroids (e.g., IV hydrocortisone) first-line

Crohn’s Management

Inducing remission in an exacerbation of Crohn’s disease is with:
-Steroids (e.g., oral prednisolone or IV hydrocortisone) first-line

152
Q
A

finals (6 decks)

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