Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MS > MS UWorld 1 > Flashcards

MS UWorld 1 Flashcards

0
Q

Embryonic conditions associated with maternal diabetes

A

Caudal regression syndrome, congenital heart defects, neural tube defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Infant born with flaccid lower extremities, absent ankle reflexes bilaterally. X-ray: poorly developed lumbar spine and sacrum. What is this and what maternal condition may be related?

A

Caudal regression syndrome: agenesis of sacrum and sometimes lumbar spine. Flaccid paralysis of legs, dorsiflexed contractures of feet, urinary incontinence. May cause anal atresia to sirenomelia (mermaid syndrome). Related to poorly controlled maternal diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mutations in Fas receptor/ligand can cause

A

Autoimmune diseases. Mutations can prevent apoptosis of autoreactive T-cells, leading to autoimmune disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Colchicine

A

Binds and stabilizes tubulin to inhibit microtubular polymerization, which disrupts membrane-dependent functions (chemotaxis, phagocytosis, degranulation). Aso reduces formation of Leukotriene B4

Used for acute gout and prophylaxis.

Side effects are nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Treatment for acute gouty arthritis

A

NSAIDS
Glucocorticoids
Colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment for Lyme disease

A

doxycycline or penicillin-type antibiotics (ceftriaxone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

45 y/o woman with fatigue, swelling, pain, morning stiffness in multiple joints for > 6 months. Diagnosis, treatment for rapid relief, and long term.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis. Treat acutely with NSAIDS, corticosteroids (glucocorticoids, ie prednisone). Steroids work better, but only used short term because of side effects

Long term treatment with methotrexate, but it takes weeks to kick in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

General rule: if calcium is ___, phosphorus is ___

A

high/low and low/high. Opposite!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is PRPP synthetase involved in? What might an activating mutation cause?

A

Purine synthesis, defect can cause hyperuricemia, which can cause gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Negatively birefringent crystals

A

yellow under parallel light, blue under perpenducular. Monosodium urate –> gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What cells are primarily responsible for intense inflammatory response in gout? What drug tempers this particular effect?

A

Neutrophils, which phagocytose the monosodium urate crystals –> neutrophil chemotaxis and release of inflammatory cytokines

Note: this is blocked by colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

IP3 second messenger system

A

GDP –> GTP, Phospholipase C, DAG and IP3, DAG –> protein kinase C, IP3 –> Ca –> PKC, PKC phosphorylates things for effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Type I collagen synthesis

A

Signal sequence directs growing polypeptide chain to ER, where signal sequence is cleaved and hydroxylation (vitamin C dependent) of lysines and prolines occurs. Selective lysines are glycosylated, pro-a chains are arranged into procollagen triple helix, which is secreted out in ECM. Terminal di-sulfide propeptides cleaved, and collagen fibrils spontaneously assemble. Finally, covalently cross-linked by lysyl oxidase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

Mutations causing faulty collagen synthesis. Hypermobile joints, hyperextensible skin, tendency to bleed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Goodpasture syndrome and myasthenia gravis are type ___ hypersensitivity disorders

A

Type II HSR - IgM an/or IgG antibodies bind to cell surface antigens and/or ECM components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Muscle weakness worst in hips and shoulders, difficulty rising from chairs and combing hair. MHC I overexpression on sarcolemma, CD8+ lymphocyte infiltration. Dx and lab findings

A

Polymyositis

elevated CK, ANA+, anti-Jo-1, anti-SRP, Anti-Mi2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Older patient with bone pain and increased alk phos, mosaic pattern of lamellar bone with haphazard prominent cement lines. Dx and cell type involved

A

Paget disease (osteitis deformans). Initial lytic stage is osteoclasts, followed by mixed clast and blast stage, then just blasts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Classic triad of reactive arthritis. Symmetric? Upper/lower extremities? What does it follow? What HLA?

A

Conjunctivitis, urethritis, arthritis. Most common asymmetric inflammatory arthritis of lower extremities in young men. Post GI or non-gonococcal urethritis, HLA B27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Conjunctivitis, urethritis, arthritis, sacroiliitis in a young man

A

Reactive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which ligament is damaged by forceful anterior motion of tibia with respect to femur? Posterior motion?

A

ACL, PCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pt with MG is given a cholinesterase inhibitor but is getting side effects. What effects, and what can treat them?

A

GI, abdominal cramping, nausea, sweating, diarrhea. Can be controlled with cholinergic antagonist (scopolamine)

21
Q

Function of t-tubules

A

to transmit depolarization from sarcolemma to SR in a rapid and uniform manner. Necessary for coordination for muscle contraction

22
Q

Young black woman with dyspnea, cough, x-ray with bilateral hilar adenopathy and multiple parenchymal infiltrates. Non-caseating granulomas, high calcium. dx, what causes high calcium?

A

Sarcoidosis

High Ca from extra-renal 1,25-dihydroxy VD. Activated T-lymphocytes secrete interferon gamma which increases 1-alpha hydroxylase activity in macrophages.

23
Q

How is MRSA resistant to penicillins?

A

alteration in penicillin binding protein

24
Q

Methotrexate: use, mechanism, toxicity

A

Use: first line for rheumatoid arthritis

Mechanism: inhibits dihydrofolate reductase to block folinic acid synthesis

Toxicity: painful mouth ulcers, hepatotoxicity, myelosuppression, opportunistic infxn, B-cell lymphoma, pulmonary fibrosis

25
Q

Hot tub folliculitis

A

superficial pseudomonas infection of hair follicles, minor outbreaks from water in pools or spas.

Pseudomonas is gram- oxidase+, non lactose fermenting, motile rods that produce pigment

26
Q

What does Staph protein A do?

A

Binds Fc portion of IgG, preventing complement activation

27
Q

Shoulder ulcer with central black eschar surrounded by edema, large gram positive rods. Suspect?

A

Bacillus anthracis, cutaneous anthrax. Most likely through occupational exposure to animals or animal products

28
Q

Fracture of midshaft of humerus: risk of damage to what nerve and what artery?

A

Radial nerve, deep brachial artery

29
Q

Skeletal muscle contraction: ATP causes

A

myosin head detachment from actin filament

30
Q

Gas gangrene caused by

A

Clostridium perfringes, gram + rod, found in soil. Phospholipase toxin attacks cell membranes and causes cell death. Gas is from metabolizing carbohydrates.

This organism can also cause late-onset food poisoning and transient watery diarrhea.

31
Q

Neuromuscular lesions, ragged red skeletal muscle fibers, lactic acidosis

A

Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy

32
Q

Heteroplasmy

A

condition of having different organellar genomes (ie mutant and wild type) in the same cell. seen in mitochondrial diseases

33
Q

Trendelenburg sign

A

Observe pt standing facing away from examiner wile lifting each foot off ground. Positive if hip dips toward unaffected side when pt stands on affected leg. Can co-occur with gluteus medius limp.

Indicates weakness of gluteus medius and minimus, superior gluteal nerve (these muscles pull pelvis down, abduct thigh)

34
Q

Injury to inferior gluteal nerve

A

innervates gluteus maximus muscle. injury causes difficulty rising from seated position and climbing stairs

35
Q

Bacterioid species

A

gram negative anaerobes that make beta lactamase. Tx with pip-taz

36
Q

Floppy baby with jaundice, enlarged tongue, hypotonia, umbilical hernia

A

Congenital hypothyroid

37
Q

CREST syndrome: name the things and the antibody

A

Anti centromere antibody

Calcinosis, Raynaud’s, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, telangiectasias

38
Q

Pt with short stature, normal trunk and head size but very short limbs. Defect, prognosis

A

Achondroplasia: constitutive activation of fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 inhibits chondrocyte proliferation. Failure of longitudinal bone growth due to this impaired cartilage proliferation

Normal fertility and life span

39
Q

Parvovirus presentation in adults

A

arthritis involving PIP, MCP, knee, and ankle joints. Symmetric, usually resolves spontaneously. Mimics RA

40
Q

Etanercept

A

TNF-a inhibitor, added to methotrexate for RA when needed. Fusion protein that links TNF-a receptor to Fc portion of IgG –> decoy receptor.

41
Q

Biological agent suffixes

  • mab
  • cept
  • nib
A
  • mab is monoclonal ab
  • cept is a receptor molecule
  • nib is a kinase inhibitor
42
Q

First line tx for gouty arthritis

A

NSAIDs

43
Q

Lab values in osteoporosis (PTH, calcium)

A

Normal

44
Q

Valsalva maneuver

A

increases vagal tone. most important muscle is rectus abdominis

45
Q

Tx for paraxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

A

Vagal stimulation, such as carotid massage or valsalva

46
Q

What are the changes in bone structure in rickets?

A

increase in unmineralized osteoid around trebeculae, and widened osteoid seams

47
Q

What muscle is on the anterior and lateral surface of the vertebral body/transverse process? The posterior?

A

Ant: psoas muscle. Post: erector spinae.

48
Q

What part of bone is affected by hematogenous osteomyelitis in kids? Adults

A

Kids: Metaphysis of long bones, due to slower blood flow and capillary fenestrae, happens mostly in young boys

Adults: vertebral body, also location of Pott disease

49
Q

Young man with low back pain and morning stiffness suggests

A

ankylosing spondylitis

MS (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions