Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MSRA last min > MRSA > Flashcards

MRSA Flashcards

1
Q

Progressive supranuclear palsy

A

Postural instability
Falls
Stiff, broad-based gait
Impairment of vertical gaze - difficulty reading/difficulty going down the stairs
Parkinsonism - Bradykinesia
Frontal lobe dysfunction (cognitive impairment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

Difficult to turn over in bed
Needs help doing up shirt buttons
Festinating gait
Hypomimia
Small handwriting
Pill rolling tremor

Restless legs and painful cramps at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Hx alcoholism/dietary deficiency/stomach cancer
Caused by thiamine deficiency

Classic triad:
Ataxia
Ophthalmoplegia
Encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Restless legs tx

A

Ropinirole = dopamine agonist
check any iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Polymyositis/dermatomyositis

A

Proximal muscle weakness
Skin lesions - heliotrope rash, Gottron’s papules over fingers
Photosensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Retinitis pigmentosa

A

30yo
Vision worse in dark = first sign
Loss of peripheral vision = tunnel vision
FHx

Fundoscopy = black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in peripheral retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Dry age-related macular degeneration

A

90% cases ARMD
Age > 65
Smoking hx
Hypertension
Visual hallucinations when in dim light
Affects central vision first

Amsler grid testing - checks for distortion of line perception

Funodscopy - multiple drusen, pigment changes, atropic areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Investigation for ARMD

A

slit lamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

tx ARMD

A

stop smoking
vitamins + anti oxidants

but no curative tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

wet ARMD

A

neovascularisation

treat with anti-VEGF

worse prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)

A

“eye stroke”
Sudden, profound vision loss
Painless
Retinal pallor
Cherry red macula
Afferent pupillary defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)

A

“eye DVT”
Blurred vision
Painless loss vision in one eye
Visual field defect
Diffuse retinal haemorrhages - stormy sunset
Optic disc oedema
Afferent pupillary defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vitreous haemorrhage

A

Long history of diabetes - neovascularisation causes the vitreous haemorrhage
Floaters and cobwebs
Normal visual acuity if small haemorrhage
If large bleed - sudden reduced visual acuity, absent red reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Posterior vitreous detachment

A

Very common in >65 yo
Flashes of light
Floaters
Can progress to retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Retinal detachment

A

Short-sighted elderly man (myopia) - long eyeballs
Painless flashes, floaters
Visual field loss - ‘curtain coming down’
Straight lines appear curved
Reduced visual acuity if macula detaches

Slit lamp - retina billowing forwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cataracts

A

Blurred vision
Glare during night driving
Yellowish opacification of lens
Obscured red reflex

Age related
More common if diabetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pituitary adenoma visual field defect

A

location = optic chiasm
bitemporal hemianopia i.e. cant see temporal sides because the crossing medial limbs are compressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

if loss of vision in one eye only where is lesion

A

ipsilateral optic nerve (the lesion is before it crosses over)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

parietal tumour visual field defect

A

contralateral inferior homonymous quandrantopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

temporal tumour visual field defect

A

contralateral superior homonumous quandrantopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where does a lesion cause a scotoma (blind spot)

A

occipital region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

homonymous hemianopia locaiton

A

optic tract/radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Esotropia (convergent)

A

eye that turns inwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

exotropia (divergent)

A

eye that turns outwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis AKA Wegener's presentation
Sinusitis, haemoptysis, haematuria Upper resp tract - epistaxis, sinusitis Lower resp tract - dyspnoea, haemoptysis Glomerulonephritis Saddle shape nose deformit
26
granulomatosis with polyangiitis antibodies
c-ANCA
27
goodpasture presentation
Young men 25yo man who just recovered from flu like illnesss noticed coughing up blood and dark urine. Also nauseous and vomiting. CXR shows diffuse intra-alveolar shadowing
28
goodpasture antibodies
anti-GBM
29
sarcoidosis extra pulmonary features
uveitis lupus pernio hypercalcaemia
30
sarcoidosis monitoring
raised serum ACE
31
atrial myxoma presentation
Benign atrial tumour Female between 40-60 Dyspnoea, syncope, dizziness, palpitations L more common that R Obstruction of mitral valve - can cause heart failure + syncope
32
diagnostic test endocarditis
TOE
33
Mesothelioma
Exposure to asbestos e.g. shipyard worker Pleural thickening Pleural effusion Large mass over entry site of biopsy needle However mesothelioma is rare so asbestos exposure more likely to cause a lung cancer
34
mesothelioma CXR
CXR - obliteration diaphragm, nodular pleural thickening, loculated effusion Thoracoscopy or CT guided pleural biopsy for diagnosis
35
Most common cause nephrotic syndrome in adults
membranous nephropathy
36
membranous nephropathy antibodies
anti phospholipase A2 antibodies
37
membranous nephropathy tx
ACEi/ARB to reduce proteinuria
38
focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
HIV, heroin use, Alports high rate of recurrence low albumin renal biopsy - areas of sclerosis + hyalinosis
39
Most common cause nephrotic syndrome in children
Minimal-change glomerular disease
40
minimal change disease tx
steroids
41
Raynaud's + intermittent claudication
Buerger's disease (thromboangiitis obliterans)
42
vasculitis associated with hep B
polyarteritis nodosa
43
Giant cell arteritis /temporal arteritis presentation
Elderly women, > 50 years Visual impairment leading to blindness New-onset headache Jaw claudication Associated with polymyalgia rheumatica
44
GCA most sensitive test
ESR
45
GCA tx
high dose steroids 60mg OD to prevent stroke + blindness - then low dose aspirin once weaned off steroids
46
Churg strauss presentation
sinusitis asthma eosinophilia nasal polyps haematuria (glomerulonephritis)
47
churg strauss antibodies
pANCA
48
Henoch schonlein purpura presentation
Post infection Pre-pubescent boys Joint pain Cramping/colicky abdominal pains Palpable purpuric rash over buttocks and legs Haematuria
49
what ix in primary care for ?HSP
urinalysis - proteinuria + haematuria other investigations to be ordered by paediatrician in 2ry care
50
tamoxifen + osteoporosis
it protects against
51
osteoporosis bloods
normal ALP, normal ca, normal phosphate
52
multiple myeloma presentation
70+ years old CRABBI - calcium, renal, anaemia, bones, bleeding, infection Calcium - hypercalcaemia Renal - light chain deposition within the renal tubules Anaemia - bone marrow crowding suppresses erythropoiesis Bleeding - bone marrow crowding also results in thrombocytopenia Bones bone marrow infiltration by plasma cells and cytokine-mediated osteoclast overactivity creates lytic bone lesions this may present as pain (especially in the back) and increases the risk of pathological fractures Infection a reduction in the production of normal immunoglobulins results in increased susceptibility to infection
53
multiple myeloma peripheral blood film
Rouleaux formation
54
multiple myeloma protein electrophoresis
raised concentrations of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins will be present in the serum in the urine, they are known as Bence Jones proteins
55
MGUS vs multiple myeloma
Raised level of monoclonal Ig in serum but no accompanying clinical symptoms
56
treatment MGUS
There is no treatment - just monitor M protein levels
57
raised ALP can be normal in
Adolescent growth spurts Pregnancy Age related - increases as you get older, especially in women
58
most common primary bone tumour
osteosarcoma
59
osteosarcoma XR
XR - areas of osteosclerotic + osteolytic bone w breaching of cortex 'sunburst' pattern on XR
60
ewing's sarcoma
Childhood malignancy - boys more common Pelvis + long bones Severe pain
61
ewing's sarcoma xr
XR - osteolysis and relaying of bone (onion skin appearance)
62
ciclosporin SEs
Hypertrophy of gums Hypertrichosis - excess hair growth Hypertension Hyperkalaemia Hyperglycaemia (diabetes)
63
Raynaud's prophylaxis
Nifedipine
64
trigger finger
Stenosing tenosynovitis Nodules develop in flexor tendon sheath Pain and difficulty moving finger
65
short PR interval, slurred upstroke, broad QRS
wolff parkinson white
66
motor neurone disease tx
Riluzole
67
MND presentation
progressive asymmetrical weakness, mixed UMN + LMN, fasciculations, muscle wasting
68
anal fissure tx
topical GTN = 1st line
69
ramsay hunt syndrome tx
aciclovir + prednisolone
70
acute angle closure glaucoma (remember to RTQ!! not just look at risk factors)
CFs: Acute, severe unilateral eye pain and redness, N&V, halos. ● O/E: Hyperaemic/injected eye with a fixed, non-reactive, semi-dilated pupil which may be oval in shape, hazy cornea. ● Management: IV acetazolamide, topical pilocarpine, timolol, apraclonidine
71
reducing benzodiazepines
reduce by 1/8th every 2 weeks
72
steroid weaning
When the daily steroid dose is >40 mg (prednisone equivalent), a weekly decrement of 5–10 mg is recommended. When the dose is <40 mg, smaller decrements are recommended (e.g., a 2.5-mg decrement every 1–4 weeks when the daily dose is 10–20 mg, and 1-mg decrement every 1–4 weeks when the daily dose drops below 10 mg)
73
pulmonary fibrosis tx
Pirfenidone Nintedanib
74
epididymo-orchitis tx
● Aetiology ○ Age < 35 - STI (CT/NG). ○ Age > 35 - UTI/enteric (E. Coli, proteus, kleb, pseudom). ● CFs: Acute, unilateral scrotal pain and erythema +/- STI/UTI symptoms. Prehn’s positive. ● Management ○ If likely STI related (Age < 35): Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline. ○ If likely UTI/enteric (Age > 35, catheter etc) - Ofloxacin OR Levofloxacin
75
angina mx
step 1 = beta blocker (or rate limiting CCB) step 2 = BB + amlodipine/nifedipine step 3 = angiography +/- revascularisation (can consider 3rd drug whilst awaiting assessment e.g. nitrate)
76
heavy menstrual bleeding first line
IUS
77
multiple system atrophy
Parkinsonism Orthostatic hypotension Dry mouth/dry skin Incontinence urine Impotence
78
dementia with lewy bodies
Visual hallucinations Parkinsonism Progressive cognitive decline Fluctuating cognition
79
first line mx alzheimers
rivastigmine
80

MSRA last min (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions