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MRI 262 > MRI Brain Imaging > Flashcards

MRI Brain Imaging Flashcards

1
Q

The components that make up the anterior circulation of brain include:

a. Anterior Cerebral Artery, Posterior Communicating Artery and Middle Cerebral Artery
b. Anterior Cerebral Artery, Anterior Communicating Artery and Middle Cerebral Artery
c. Anterior Cerebral Artery, Anterior Communicating Artery and Posterior Cerebral Artery
d. Anterior Cerebral Artery, Middle Communicating Artery and Middle Cerebral Artery

A

d. Anterior Cerebral Artery, Middle Communicating Artery and Middle Cerebral Artery

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2
Q

To optimize brain imaging when evaluating patients for high prolactin level, an FDA-approved contrast agent can be administered:

a. With single dose followed by rapid imaging
b. With 1/2 dose followed by dynamic imaging
c. With 1/2 dose followed by delayed imaging
d. With double dose followed by rapid imaging

A

b. With 1/2 dose followed by dynamic imaging

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3
Q

The patient with a history of seizures can be imaged using cardiac gating:

a. To minimize pulsatile flow motion artifact in the temporal lobe
b. To monitor the patient for potential seizure
c. to make vessels appear dark

A

a. To minimize pulsatile flow motion artifact in the temporal lobe

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4
Q

When scanning patients to rule out brain tumors, the weighted images acquired to evaluate the extent of the lesion, after injection of gadolinium are:

a. T1
b. T2
c. Proton density
d. T2* gradient echo

A

a. T1

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5
Q

To optimize brain imaging when evaluating patients for metastatic disease, an FDA-approved contrast agent can be administered:

a. With single dose followed by rapid imaging GE
b. with 1/2 dose followed by dynamic imaging T1
c. With full dose followed by delayed imaging of MTSE
d. With double dose followed by rapid imaging T2 FLAIR

A

c. With full dose followed by delayed imaging of MTSE

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6
Q

To visualize the pituitary gland in MR, the optimal planes for high-resolution images are:

a. Sagittal and Coronal
b. Coronal and axial
c. Axial and sagittal
d. Sagittal, coronal, and axial

A

a. Sagittal and Coronal

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7
Q

To best visualize the IAC in MRI, the optimal plane for high-resolution images are:

a. Sagittal and Coronal
b. Coronal and Axial
c. Axial and sagittal
d. Sagittal, coronal, and axial

A

b. Coronal and Axial

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8
Q

For a patient with a suspected pituitary micro adenoma, contrast is injected and imaging is performed:

a. Rapidly because lesions enhance early
b. Rapidly because lesions have low signal intensity compared to the enhanced pituitary gland
c. With delayed imaging because lesions enhance slowly and the pituitary gland does not enhance
d. With no specific timing considerations

A

b. Rapidly because lesions have low signal intensity compared to the enhanced pituitary gland

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9
Q

Typical brain protocols consist of:
1. Sagittal T1
2. Axial T2 FSE
3. Axial GRE
4. Axial T2 FLAIR
5. Coronal T2 FSE
6. Axial Diffusion

a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

A

c. 1, 2, 4 and 6 only (Sagittal T1, Axial T2 FSE, Axial T2 FLAIR and Axial diffusion)

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10
Q

The cranial nerves running through the internal auditory canals are:

a. IV and V
b. V and VI
c. VI and VII
d. VII and VIII
e. VIII and IX

A

d. VII and VIII

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11
Q

On a typical diffusion image what does the high signal indicate?

a. Tumor
b. Old stroke
c. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
d. Early (hyper acute) infarct

A

d. Early (hyper acute) infarct

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12
Q

For most brain imaging procedures, the patient is positioned _ and centered for landmark at the _.

a. Prone/Acantho-meatal line
b. Supine/Nasion
c. Supine/External auditory meatus
d.None of the above

A

b. Supine/Nasion

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13
Q

For most TMJ imaging procedures, the patient is positioned _ and centered for landmark at the _.

a. Prone/Acantho-meatal line
b. Supine/Nasion
c. Supine/External auditory meatus
d. None of the above

A

c. Supine/External auditory meatus

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14
Q

For evaluation of a patient with “tinnitus” images should be “centered” at the level of the:

a. Submento-vertex
b. Nasion
c. Glabella
d. External auditory meatus

A

d. External auditory meatus

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15
Q

Typical diffusion images are typically acquired with a B-value of:

a. 4000 ms
b. 100 ms
c. 2200 ms
d. 1200 ms

A

d. 1200 ms

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16
Q

On T2 FSE sequence, CSF appears bright because:

a. Water has a short T2 relaxation time
b. Water has a long T2 relaxation time
c. Water has a short T1 relaxation time
d. Water has a high proton density

A

b. Water has a long T2 relaxation time

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17
Q

The lesion on the enhanced images (T1 post GAD) appears bright because gadolinium:

a. Shortens the T1 relaxation time
b. Increases the T1 relaxation time
c. Shortens the T2 relaxation time
d. Increases the T2 relaxation time

A

a. Shortens the T1 relaxation time

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18
Q

When performing an MRA of the cerebral arteries, a saturation band should be placed _ for axial slices.

a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Superior
d. Inferior

A

c. Superior

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19
Q

MRA for extracranial vascular flow (ex. carotid arteries), a recommended technique is:

a. 2D time of flight MRA
b. 3D time of flight MRA
c. 3D phase contrast MRA
d. a and b

A

d. a and b (2D time of flight MRA and 3D time of flight MRA)

20
Q

MRA for peripheral vascular flow, (ex. arteries of the legs), saturation pulses are:

a. Placed superior to the acquired slices
b. Placed in the acquired slice
c. Placed inferior to the acquired slices
d. Not necessary

A

c. Placed inferior to the acquired slices

21
Q

The cranial nerve associated with the optic nerve is the:

a. First cranial nerve
b. Second cranial nerve
c. Third cranial nerve
d. Vagus nerve

A

b. Second cranial nerve

22
Q

The MRA technique typically used for the evaluation of venous structures of the head is:

a. 2D TOF
b. 3D TOF
c. Contrast enhanced MRA
d. PC MRA

A

a. 2D TOF

23
Q

On the coronal display of the MRA of brain, the PICA arises from:

a. Posterior cerebral artery
b. Basilar artery
c. Vertebral arteries
d. A and C

A

c. Vertebral arteries

24
Q

T2 weighted fluid attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) sequences are typically used for the evaluation of:

a. Musculoskeletal contusions
b. Fat
c. Retro-orbital fat
d. Periventricular white matter disease

A

d. Periventricular white matter disease

25
Q

Gradient echo sequences acquired for the evaluation of hemorrhagic lesions relay on:

a. Susceptibility
b. Inhomogeneity
c. chemical
d. Aliasing

A

a. Susceptibility

26
Q

A FLAIR sequence is utilized to suppress the signal from:

a. MS plaques
b. Gadolinium
c. Fat
d. CSF

A

d. CSF

27
Q

When doing an MRV of the superior sagittal sinus, a saturation band should be placed _ to the axial slices.

a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Superior
d. Inferior
e. a and d

A

d. Inferior

28
Q

The signal intensity on diffusion sequence is related to:

a. Gadolinium
b. Flow-related enhancement
c. Restricted tissue
d. Amount of diffusion
e. c and d

A

e. c and d (Restricted tissue and Amount of diffusion

29
Q

The basic MR principle with regarding to MR spectroscopy is:

a. Difference between two chemicals
b. Flow-related enhancement
c. The BOLD effect
d. Chemical shift
e. a and d

A

e. a and d (Difference between two chemicals and Chemical shift

30
Q

Label the anatomy #24.

a. Middle cerebral artery
b. Internal carotid
c. Vertebral artery

A

c. Vertebral artery

31
Q

Label anatomy #25.

a. Posterior communicating artery
b. Basilar Artery
c. Posterior cerebral artery

A

b. Basilar Artery

32
Q

Label anatomy #26.

a. Middle cerebral artery
b. Posterior Cerebral Artery
c. Transverse artery

A

b. Posterior Cerebral Artery

33
Q

What pulse sequence is this?

a. Axial T1
b. Axial T2
c. Axial T2 FLAIR
d. Diffusion

A

c. Axial T2 FLAIR

34
Q

What disease does this patient have?

a. Stroke
b. MS
c. Tumors

A

b. MS

35
Q

What pulse sequence will you add to routine brain for this patient?

a. Sagittal T2 FSE
b. Sagittal midline SPGR
c. Sagittal T2 FLAIR

A

c. Sagittal T2 FLAIR

36
Q

What pulse sequence is this?

a. Axial T1
b. Axial T2
c. Axial T2 FLAIR
d. GRE

A

b. Axial T2

37
Q

What pathology do you see in this scan?

a. MS
b. Subdural hematoma
c. Fat deposit
d. a and b

A

d. a and b (MS and Subdural hematoma)

38
Q

What pulse sequence will you scan?

a. GRE
b. Fat sat Axial
c. Sagittal midline SPGR
d. Sagittal T2 FLAIR
e. a and c
f. a and d

A

f. a and d (GRE and Sagittal T2 FLAIR)

39
Q

What pulse sequence is this?

a. Diffusion
b. GRE
c. T1
d. T2

A

b. GRE

40
Q

What is the pathology?

a. Intra cranial bleed
b. Subdural hematoma
c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

a. Intra cranial bleed

40
Q

Label the anatomy #1.

a. Rostrum
b. Splenium
c. Genu

A

c. Genu

41
Q

Label anatomy #8.

a. Clivus
b. Pons
c. 4th ventricle

A

b. Pons

42
Q

Label anatomy #6.

a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum
c. Occipital lobe

A

a. Cerebellum

43
Q

Label the pathology.

a. Hydro cephalic
b. Pituitary adenoma
c. Syrinx
d. Chiari Malformation

A

d. Chiari Malformation

44
Q

What sequence will you scan?

a. Sagittal midline SPGR
b. Axial T2
c. Sagittal midline T2 FLAIR

A

a. Sagittal midline SPGR

45
Q

Label the pathology on #A.

a. Bleed
b. Stroke
c. Tumor

A

b. Stroke

46
Q

Label pulse sequence #B.

a. Old stroke
b. EDC
c. ACD
d. ADC

A

d. ADC

MRI 262 (1 decks)

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