Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Paper B targeted revision > MRCPsych Mentor > Flashcards

MRCPsych Mentor Flashcards

1
Q

Which antidepressants are available as IV?

A

Citalopram
Mirtazapine
Amitriptyline
Clomipramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which antidepressants are available PR?

A 
Amitriptyline
Clomipramine
Imipramine
Doxepin
Trazadone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can one take Amitriptyline?

A

PO
IV
IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which antidepressant is available transdermally?

A

Selegiline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Medications indicated for phobic & obsessional states

A

Clomipramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy

A

Clomipramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Medications indicated for panic disorder and agoraphobia

A 
Citalopram
Escitalopram
Sertraline
Paroxetine
Venlafaxine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Medications indicated for soxial anxiety & phobias

A 
Escitalopram
Paroxetine
Sertraline
Moclobemide
Venlafaxine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Medications indicated for GAD

A

Escitalopram
Paroxetine
Duloxetine
Venlafaxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Medications indicated for OCD

A 
Escitalopram
Fluoxetine
Fluvoxamine
Paroxetine
Sertraline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Medications indicated for Bulimia

A

Fuloxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Medications indicated for PTSD

A

Paroxetine

Sertraline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How long should people >65 continue antidepressant medication for following remission?

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which medication has is supported by evidence for use to treat hypersalivation secondary to clozapine?

A

Amisulpride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cut-off score indicating an ED in SCOFF?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What was the first fully structured diagnostic interview for use by lay interviewers?

A

Diagnostic Interview Schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who created the Diagnostic Interview Schedule?

A

Robins et al. 1981

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who launched the Epidemiological Catchment Programme?

A

National Institute of Mental Health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the Composite International Diagnostic Interview?

A

Version of the DIS that uses ICD criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who created the Composite International Diagnostic Interview?

A

WHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What was the first large scale use of CIDI?

A

National Comorbidity Survery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When did NCS take place?

A

1990s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Was NCS an international survey?

A

No - national

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What did data from NCS and ECA suggest?

A

Number of people with MH problems outnumbered resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What led to the development of the Word Mental Health CIDI?

A

The fact that ECA and NCS did not comment on severity of MH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does WMH-CIDI take into account?

A

Severity of MH
Risk factors
Socio-demographics
Treatments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

First line treatment of Tourettes?

A

Clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which antipsychotics show evidence for treating Tourettes?

A

Haloperidol
Pimozide
Risperidone
Olanzapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When should valproate be considered with clozapine use?

A

Using high doses
Plasma levels >0.5mg/L
Patient has seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many people develop fatal agranulocytosis form clozapine?

A

1 in 10,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How many patients on clozapine develop neutropenia?

A

2.7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Risk factors for neutropenia?

A

Race - 77% increase in risk for Afro-Caribbeans
Age (reduces)
Low baseline WCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Is risk of neutropenia from clozapine related to dose?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Risk factors for clozapine induced agranulocytosis?

A

Age (increases)

Ethnicity - 2.4x more likely in Asians than Caucasians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does mutation of HPRT1 gene cause?

A

Lesch-Nyan syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What refers to the true meaning behind a dream?

A

Latent content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which factors are associated with poor prognosis of Anorexia?

A 
Long duration of hospital care
Psychiatric co-morbidity
Adopted
One-parent household
Young mother
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the primary metabolite of Paracetamol?

A

Benzoquinoneimine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How many databases are in the Cochrane Library?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What databases are in the Cochrane Library?

A

Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews
Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials
Cochrane Methodology Register
Database of Abstracts of Reviews of Effects
Health Technology Assessment
NHS Economic Evaluation Database

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Lifetime prevalence of use of cannabis

A

24%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Lifetime prevalence of use of amphetamines

A

7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Lifetime prevalence of use of magic mushrooms

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Lifetime prevalence of use of ecstacy, cocaine or LSD

A

4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Lifetime prevalence of use of transquilisers

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Lifetime prevalence of use of glue

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Lifetime prevalence of use of crack, heroin, anabolic steroids

A

<1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which antidepressants have a lower incidence os sexual dysfunction?

A 
Bupropion
Mirtazapine
Moclobemide
Nefazadone
Reboxetine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is transference based psychotherapy based on?

A

Otto Kernberg’s theory of BPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which herbal remedy has evidence to support its effectiveness for depression?

A

Hypericum Perforatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

M:F ratio of reading disorder

A

3-4:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

M:F ratio of autism

A

4-5:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

M:F ratio of Aspergers

A

5:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

M:F ratio of Tourette’s

A

2-5:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

M:F ratio of ADHD in children?

A

2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

M:F ratio of ADHD in adults?

A

1.6:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

M:F ratio of depression

A

1:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

M:F ratio of Type 1 Bipolar

A

1:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

M:F ratio of Panic with agoraphobia

A

1:3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

M:F ratio of Panic without agoraphobia

A

1:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

M:F ratio of GAD

A

1:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

M:F ratio of OCD

A

1:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

M:F ratio of specific phobia

A

1:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

M:F ratio of conversion disorder

A

1:2-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

M:F ratio of anorexia

A

1:9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

M:F ratio of bulimia

A

1:9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

M:F ratio of BPD

A

1:3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does Suboxone contain?

A

Naloxone and Buprenorphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

In the AESOP study, the incidence of schizophrenia in Black-African groups was increased by what factor?

A

9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Drugs recommended for PTSD by NICE?

A

Paroxetine
Mirtazapine
Amitriptyline
Phenelzine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What did Bleuler divide schizophrenia into?

A

Type A

Type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is indicative of Type A schizophrenia as per Bleuler?

A

Organic cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which type of schizophrenia is associated with the 4 A’s?

A

Type A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the 4 A’s of Bleuler’s schizophrenia?

A

Autism
Ambivalence
Affect
Associations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which sx does opiate misuse not lead to tolerance of?

A

Miosis

Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Maximum dose of clozapine

A

900mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Maximum dose of haloperidol

A

20mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Maximum dose of olanzapine

A

20mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Maximum dose of quetiapine for schizophrenia

A

750mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Maximum dose of quetiapine for bipolar

A

800mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Maximum dose of risperidone

A

16mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Maximum dose of amisulpride

A

1200mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Maximum dose of aripiprazole

A

20mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Maximum dose of flupentixol

A

400mg/week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Maximum dose of zuclopenthixol depot

A

600mg/week

86
Q

Maximum dose of haloperidol depot

A

300mg every 4 weeks

87
Q

Which psychiatric problem is maternal smoking most associated with?

A

ADHD

Conduct Disorder

88
Q

How many people with LD do not have an identifiable cause?

A

60%

89
Q

Who divided schizophrenia into Type I and Type II?

A

Crow

90
Q

Type I of schizophrenia

A

+ve sx

91
Q

Type II of schizophrenia

A

-ve sx

92
Q

What was suggested to cause Type I schizophrenia

A

Excess D2 receptors S

93
Q

What was suggested to cause Type II schizophrenia?

A

Structural abnormality

94
Q

Half-life (hours) of Diazepam

A

20-100

95
Q

Half-life (hours) of clonazepam

A

18-50

96
Q

Half-life (hours) of chlordiazepoxide

A

5-30

97
Q

Half-life (hours) of nitrazepam

A

15-38

98
Q

Half-life (hours) of temazepam

A

8-22

99
Q

Half-life (hours) of lorazepam

A

10-20

100
Q

Half-life (hours) of alprazolam

A

10-15

101
Q

Half-life (hours) of oxzazepa

A

6-10

102
Q

Half-life (hours) of zopiclone

A

5-6

103
Q

Half-life (hours) of zolpidem

A

2

104
Q

Half-life (hours) of zaleplon

A

2

105
Q

Street names of Nephedrone

A

Meow Meow
M-Cat
White magic

106
Q

Class of Mephedrone

A

Class B

107
Q

What is Mephedrone structurally similar to?

A

Cathinone

108
Q

Street names of Piperazines

A

BZP

Silver Bullet

109
Q

Class of Piperazine

A

Class B

110
Q

Street names of GBL

A

Liquid ecstacy

GBH

111
Q

Class of GBL

A

Class C

112
Q

What is GBL similar to?

A

Benzos
Baclofen
Alcohol

113
Q

Street names of cannibinoids

A

Spice

Black Mamba

114
Q

Class of synthetic cannibinoids

A

B

115
Q

Street name of Benzofuran compounds

A

Benzo fury

116
Q

Class of Benzofuran compounds

A

B

117
Q

Most common anxiety disorder in ECA?

A

Phobia

118
Q

How does Heroin bind to opiate receptors?

A

G-coupled

119
Q

What is mania a potu?

A

Pathological intoxication

120
Q

At what age can a child copy a triangle?

A

5

121
Q

At what age can a child hop on one foot?

A

4

122
Q

At what age can a child copy a cross?

A

4

123
Q

At what age can a child feed themself?

A

3

124
Q

At what age can a child speak 2-3 word sentences

A

2

125
Q

At what age can a child run

A

2

126
Q

At what age can a child climb up and down the stairs alone

A

2

127
Q

At what age can a child speak 10-20 words

A

18 months

128
Q

At what age can a child walk without assistance

A

18 months

129
Q

Which TCA is most associated with discontinuation sx?

A

Imipramine

130
Q

Which Class C drug can one possess for personal use?

A

Anabolic steroids

131
Q

Withdrawal features of opioids

A 
Piloerection
Insomnia
Dilated Pupils
Yawning/sweating
Abdominal cramps
132
Q

Withdrawal features of amphetamines and cocaine

A

Hypersomnia
Hyperphagia
Depression/irritability/agitation
Vivid Dreams

133
Q

Withdrawal features of ecstasy

A

Depression/insomnia

Depersonalisation/derealisation

134
Q

Withdrawal features of cannabis

A

Insomnia
Reduced appetite
Irritability

135
Q

Withdrawal features of hallucinogens

A

None

136
Q

Withdrawal features of ketamine

A

None

137
Q

Effects of opioids

A

Euphoria
Drowsiness
Pupil constriction
Respiratory depression

138
Q

Effects of amphetamine and cocaine

A 
Increased energy
Insomnia
Euphoria
Paranoia
Reduced appetite
139
Q

Effects of MDMA/ecstasy

A

Increased energy & sweating
Jay Clenching
Euphoria
Increased response to touch

140
Q

Effects of cannabis

A

Relaxation
Intensified sensory experience
Paranoia/anxiety
Injected conjunctivae

141
Q

Effects of Hallucinogens

A 
Perceptual changes
Pupil dilatation
Tachy/sweating
Palpitations
Tremors
Incoordination
142
Q

Effects of ketamine

A 
Euphoria
Dissociation
Ataxia
Hallucinations
Muscle rigidity
143
Q

Street names of Ketamine

A 
Vitamin K
Super K
Special K
K
Green
Donkey dust
144
Q

Street names of hallucinogens

A 
Trips
Tripper
Tab
Stars
Similies
Rainbows
Paper
145
Q

Street names of cannabis

A

Grass
Mull
Cone
Chronic

146
Q

Street names of ecstasy

A 
XTC
E
Eccies
Pills
Adam Many
147
Q

Street names of amphetamine

A

Ice

Uppers

148
Q

Street names of Cocaine

A

Snow

Rock

149
Q

Street names of opioids

A 
Smack
Horse
Junk
Skag
Brown
Harry
H
150
Q

What does Gudjonsson scale assess?

A

Suggestibility

151
Q

Which gender develop conduct disorder at a younger age?

A

Males

152
Q

What is each item of PANSS scored out of?

A

7

153
Q

How many patients with Dementia are <65?

A

2%

154
Q

What are the SCOFF questions?

A

Do you ever make yourself Sick because you feel uncomfortably full?
Do you ever worry that you have lost Control over how much you eat?
Have you recently lost more than One stone in a three month period?
Do you believe yourself to be Fat when others say you are too thin?
Would you say Food dominates you life?

155
Q

What SCOFF score indicates likely ED?

A

2 or more

156
Q

What are the cortical dementias?

A

Alzheimers
Picks
CJD

157
Q

What does ADI-R stand for?

A

Autism Diagnostic Interview-Revised

158
Q

What is ADI-R?

A

Semi-structured interview of caregivers of individuals with autism

159
Q

What does ADOS-G stand for?

A

Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule-Generic

160
Q

What is ADOS-G?

A

Semistructured use of observational schedules

161
Q

What does AAA stand for?

A

Adult Asperger Assessment

162
Q

What does AAA consist of>

A

2 screening instruments; Autism-Spectrum Quotient & Empathy Quotient
1 clinician-conducted diagnostic questionnare; Adult Asperger Assessment

163
Q

What does ASDI stand for

A

Asperger Syndrome Diagnostic INterview

164
Q

What is ASDI

A

Investigator-based interview developed for assessment of Aspergers in adults and children.

165
Q

What does ASDI consist of

A

Structured interview, 20 items divided into 6 behaviour areas

166
Q

What does RAADS-R stand for

A

Ritvo Autism Asperger Diagnostic Scale Revised

167
Q

What does RAADS-R consist of?

A

80-item self-rating scale for adults with averege/above average IQ

168
Q

Best antipsychotics if hyperprolactinaema

A

Aripiprazole
Quetiapine
Olanzapine

169
Q

After what age is enuresis diagnosed

A

5

170
Q

Which model of the mind includes the id, ego and superego?

A

Structural

171
Q

Prevalence of early onset schizophrenia

A

1 in 1000

172
Q

What proportion of completed suicide occur in people >65?

A

20%

173
Q

Risk of suicide following episode of DSH?

A

0.5-1.5%

174
Q

What do the Maudsley guidelines advice re augmentation with clozapine?

A 
Amisulpride
Aripiprazole
Haloperidol
Lamotrigine
Omega-3-triglycerides
Risperidone
Sulpiride
Topiramate
Ziprasidone
175
Q

What drugs are specifically advised not to be augmented with clozapine?

A

Pimozide

Olanzapine

176
Q

Options if clozapine ineffective

A 
Allopurinol + antipsychotic
Max dose amisulpride
Max dose aripiprazole
D-Alanine and D-Serine
ECT
High dose olanzapine
177
Q

What stage of sleep do night terrors occur?

A

4

178
Q

Duration of sx for diagnosis of schizophrenia?

A

1 months

179
Q

Prevalence of OCD per 1000

A

19

180
Q

Prevalence of avoidant PD per 1000

A

8

181
Q

Prevalence of schizoid PD per 1000

A

8

182
Q

Prevalence of paranoid PD per 1000

A

7

183
Q

Prevalence of BPD per 1000

A

7

184
Q

Prevalence of antisocial PD per 1000

A

6

185
Q

Prevalence of dependent PD per 1000

A

1

186
Q

Prevalence of schizotypal PD per 1000

A

1

187
Q

% neutropenia risk for clozapine

A

3%

188
Q

% agranulocytosis risk for clozapine

A

1%

189
Q

Treatment for refractory depression

A 
Add lithium
ECT
Add T3 (tri-iodothyronine)
Combined use of olanzapine and fluoxetine
Add quetiapine to an SSRI or SNRI
Add risperidone
Add aripiprazole
Bupropion and SSRI
SSRI and venlafaxine, mirtazapine, or mianserin
190
Q

Prevalence of conduct disorder in 5-15 year olds

A

5%

191
Q

Prevalence of anxiety and depression in 5-15 year olds

A

4%

192
Q

Prevalence of hyperactive disorder in 5-15 year olds

A

1%

193
Q

Prevalence of autism in 5-15 year olds

A

0.5%

194
Q

Prevalence of tic disorder in 5-15 year olds

A

0.5%

195
Q

Prevalence of ED in 5-15 year olds

A

0.5%

196
Q

Is hypersalivation from clozapine dose related?

A

No

197
Q

Which LD has cluttered speech?

A

Fragile X

198
Q

Most common anxiety disorder in National Comorbidity survey

A

Specific phobia

199
Q

Which medication is licensed for self-mutilating behaviour?

A

Lithium

200
Q

What is asthenic PD?

A

Dependent PD

201
Q

Which depot antipsychotic can be used as prophylaxis for mania?

A

Haloperidol

202
Q

According to the ECA, which disorder was found to be most prevalent?

A

Substance misuse

203
Q

Which SSRIs are licensed for treatment of OCD in young people

A

Sertraline

Fluvoxamine

204
Q

What is needed for diagnosis of HIV?

A

p24 antigen

205
Q

First line investigation to help differentiate type of dementia

A

HMPAO SPECT

206
Q

2nd line investigation for differentiating type of dementia

A

FDG PET

207
Q

Who created IPT?

A

Sullivan

208
Q

Which antipsychotics are recommended when avoiding TD?

A

Clozapine

Quetiapine

209
Q

Antipsychotics not associated with high prolactin?

A 
Clozapine
Aripiprazole
Quetiapine
Olanzapine
Ziprasidone
210
Q

Which family therapy concentrates on communication?

A

Strategic

Paper B targeted revision (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions