MRCP Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the causes of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Adverse reaction to anti-psychotics
Dopaminergic medications stopped abruptly
Metoclopramide and lithium

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2
Q

What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome caused by?

A

sudden reduction in dopamine activity, either from blockade of dopamine receptors or withdrawal of dopaminergic agents

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3
Q

Good prognostic features in MS

A

female sex
aged 20 - 30 at onset
relapsing-remitting (recovers in between)
sensory symptoms only
long interval between 1st two relapses
complete recovery between relapses

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4
Q

1st line drug of choice for prophylaxis in cluster headaches

A

verapamil

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5
Q

How can you get iatrogenic Creutzfeld-Jakob disease?

A

Previous neurosurgery using a dual graft - method of transmission of the prion protein

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6
Q

Postural headache but normal imaging

A

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

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7
Q

MRI findings in multiple sclerosis

A

high signal T2 lesions
periventricular plaques
Dawson fingers (hyperintense lesions)
perpendicular to the corpus callosum

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8
Q

What is Stoke-Adams syndrome?

A

transient AV block and results in loss of consciousness

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9
Q

How do you assess suitability for a VP shunt in a patient with normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

CSF infusion test demonstrates raised CSF outflow resistance

Prominent gait disturbance also points towards an increased likelihood of surgical success

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10
Q

Optic neuritis, longitudinal extensive cervical transverse myelitis with CSF negative for oligoclonal bands is …

A

Highly suggestive of neuromyelitis optica

Antibody = NMO-IgG or antibodies against aquaporin 4

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11
Q

Why does SAH cause a fever?

A

Blood being irritating to the meninges

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12
Q

Tremor which worsens on posture, head nodding and lack of cerebellar symptoms

A

essential tremor

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13
Q

CSF in Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

raised protein with normal white cell count

  • albuminocytological dissocation
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14
Q

Cavernous sinus thrombosis involves which cranial nerves

A

6th nerve (abducens)
3rd and 4th nerve (occulomotor and trochlear)
Trigeminal nerve = hyperaesthesia of upper face and eye pain

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15
Q

Thrombectomy in acute brain stroke - time limit

A

6 hours from onset

6-24 hours considered if there is potential to salvage brain tissue

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16
Q

Drugs that may exacerbate myasthenia gravis

A

pencillamine
quinidine, procainamide
beta blocker
lithium
phenytoin
abx - gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracyclines

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17
Q

Memorable first occurence, attacks precipitated by touch or vibration and history of inappropriate dental treatment is a classical history of?

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

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18
Q

Parkinson’s disease vs Drug induced Parkinsonism

A

Drug induced is usually bilateral

Idiopathic Parkinsonism often presents asymmetrically

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19
Q

What is the on-off effect in Parkinson’s disease?

A

When levodopa becomes less effective over time

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20
Q

Gerst Mann syndrome is a tetrad of

A

acalculia
alexia
agraphia
R-L disorientation
finger agnosia

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21
Q

If only 1 lobe was affected in Wernicke’s aphasia

A

temporal lobe

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22
Q

Brain stem is made up of

A

midbrain - Weber, Benedict, Parinaud’s
pons - AICA
medulla - PICA

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23
Q

Vertical gaze is

A

ability to move eye up and down

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24
Q

Common peroneal nerve palsy vs L5 radiculopathy

A

Common peroneal nerve:
intact ankle inversion and flexion of big toe
sensory loss usually around lateral aspect of lower leg and dorsum of foot
- most common cause is trauma or compression at fibula head, classically by tight plaster casts

L5 radiculopathy:
- sensory loss is strip down the middle of the anterior lower limb

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25
Q

Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy features

A

facial muscles involved first - difficulty closing eyes, smiling, blowing
weakness of shoulder and upper arm muscles
abnormal prominence of borders of shoulder blades - ‘winging’
lower limb - hip girdle weakness, foot drop

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26
Q

Painful third nerve palsy

A

neurosurgical emergency

may indicate expanding posterior communicating artery aneurysm

needs urgent CT angiogram

manage = surgical clipping
- not happen quickly, risk of death from rupture or may be permanent ptosis and eye movement deficit

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27
Q

Late onset myasthenia gravis vs early onset with regards to thymus

A

Late onset - thymic atrophy
Early onset - thymic hyperplasia

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28
Q

Key points about Friedrich’s ataxia

A

progressive, limb and gait ataxia before 25 years
no deep tendon reflex, spasiticity, peripheral sensory neuropathy, dysarthria, difficulty swallowing, muscle weakness

equal sex incidence, AR

Most deaths are cardiac - LVH and ECG shows widespread T wave inversion

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29
Q

When would you not give dexamethasone in brain tumours?

A

If CNS lymphoma is suspected

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30
Q

CSF in Guillain Barre syndrome

A

normal white cells and glucose
raised protein

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31
Q

What vitamin excess can cause IIH?

A

Vitamin A excess

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32
Q

Meningitis which occurs as a complication of an ear infection is nearly always caused by

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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33
Q

Natalizumab and association with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is found…

A

only in those who are JCV antibody seropositive

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34
Q

Parameter for ventilator support in GBS

A

FVC IS < 15-20ml/kg

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35
Q

Features of Lyme disease
- on CSF
- extra CNS features

A

lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF

extra CNS features: arthralgia, peripheral neuropathy, 1st degree heart block

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36
Q

Myotonic dystrophy clinical features

A

Frontotemporal balding
Ptosis
Distal weakness
Depressed tendon reflexes
Myotonic (slow relaxation of muscles)

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37
Q

Lateral medullary syndrome

A

Wallenberg’s syndrome
occlusion of posterior inferior cerebellar artery

ataxia, nystagmus

ipsilateral: dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy
contralateral: limb sensory loss

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38
Q

What medication is containdicated for neuropathic pain if there is arrhythmias (particularly heart block)?

A

Amitriptyline

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39
Q

Scan findings in herpes simplex encephalitis

A

MRI - bilateral temporal lobe oedema

CT: medial temporal and inferior frontal changes

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40
Q
A
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41
Q

MRI findings for Alzheimer’s disease

A

medial temporal lobe atrophy

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42
Q

Axillary nerve injury

A

dislocation of shoulder joint, fracture of neck of humerus or serum and vaccine induced neuropathies

paralysis of abduction of the arm between 15 and 90 degrres, wasting of delotoid muscle and slight impairment of sensation over the oouter aspect of the shoulder

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43
Q

B12 deficiency is also known as

A

Cobalamin deficiency

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44
Q

Acephalgic migraine

A

experience aura without a headache

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45
Q

Anti-NMDA encephalitis classical features

A

prodromal headache followed by prominent psychiatric features
orofacial dyskinesia
insomnia
progression to seizures

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46
Q

Pontine haemorrhage

A

reduced GCS
paralysis
bilateral pin point pupils

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47
Q

MRI - hyperintense signals in the basal ganglia and thalamus

A

Creutzfeldt Jakob disease

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48
Q

Pneumothoroax and flying

A

fly 1 week after is complete resolution of pneumothorax after treatment

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49
Q

Thrombectomy in acute ischaemic stroke

A

extended target time of 6-24 hours may be considered

if CT perfusion or diffusion-weighted MRI sequences showing limited infarct core volume

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50
Q

Ergotism

A

concomitant use of ergotamine and macrolide may cause ergotism

confusion, headache, seizure, psychosis and global vasoconstriction leading to critical limb ischaemia, cardiac ischaemia and bowel hypoperfusion

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51
Q

Carotid artery stenosis
male 50-99%
female 70-99%

that corresponds to same side of stroke

How soon do you consider for CEA?

A

considered for an urgent carotid endarterectomy within 14 days

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52
Q

Nerve conduction study:
normal conduction velocity
reduced amplitude

A

Axonal pathology

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53
Q

Nerve conduction study:
reduced conduction velocity
normal amplitude

A

Demyelinating pathology

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54
Q

Increased T2 and FLAIR signal intensity in putamen and head of caudate on T2 weighted MRI
14-3-3 protein on CSF

A

Sporadic Creutzfeld Jakob disease

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55
Q

EEG - interical epileptiform discharges

A

bilateral, symmetrical 3Hz spike and wave pattern

Absence seizure

56
Q

Foster Kennedy syndrome

A

frontal lobe tumour

optic atrophy in ipsilateral eye
central scotoma in ipsilateral eye
papilloedema in contralateral eye
anosmia

57
Q

Commonest cause of intracerebral infection due to penetrating/direct skull injury

A

Staphylococcus aureus

58
Q

Lafora body disease

A

inherited progressive myoclonic epilepsy

59
Q

Anton syndrome

A

bilateral occipital cortex infarction
no vision
pupillary responses are intact and fundoscopy is normal
visual evoked potentials and optokinetic nystagmus are absent

extensive lesions = in denial of their blindness
normal CT scan
need MRI with DWI to confirm diagnosis

60
Q

Heterophile antibodies

A

Monospot test

indicates EBV (infectious mononucleosis)

61
Q

Scrub typhus key points

A

South East Asia

black eschar is key diagnostic clue

treat with doxycycline

62
Q

Antibiotics to use for the treatment of MRSA infections

A

vancomycin
teicoplanin
linezolid

63
Q

Factors that can lead to elevated levels of azathioprine

A

drugs that inhibit xanthine oxidase - allopurinol

drugs that can also cause myelosuppression - sulphonamides, trimethoprim

reduced activity of TPMT

64
Q

Profuse sweating associated with foul smell is typical of what infectious disease?

A

Brucellosis
‘hay-like’

65
Q

What is the benefit of starting early antiretroviral treatment in HIV as opposed to deferring the treatment?

A

reduced risk of AIDs and mortality

66
Q

Intensely pruritic, creeping, serpiginous erythematous cutaneous eruption that advances over time

A

cutaneous larva migrans

treat with ivermectin or albendazole

67
Q

1st line treatment for chlamydia

A

doxycycline - 7 day course

68
Q

Latent TB vs active TB

A

Latent TB = asymptomatic and non-infectious
positive tuberculin skin test or interferon-gamma release assay combined with normal CXR

69
Q

Treat latent TB

A

3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin
OR
6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine)

70
Q

Norovirus testing

A

faecal or vomitus viral PCR

71
Q

Most serious and frequent complication of typhoid

A

bowel perforation and haemorrhage

72
Q

IgM antibodies in CSF against a flavivirus

A

Tick borne encephalitis

73
Q

Viral haemorrhagic fever with exposure to caves/bats and primates

A

Marburg virus

74
Q

Urethritis in a male
negative for gonorrhoea and chlamydia

A

?Mycoplasma genitalium

75
Q

Syphilis tests

A

Non-treponemal: RPR and VDRL
negative after treatment

Treponemal: TP-EIA and TPPA
stays positive after treatment

76
Q

Most common fungal infection of the CNS in patients with HIV

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

77
Q

HHV 5

A

cytomegalovirus

  • seen in post-transplant patients
78
Q

Treat invasive diarrhoea - blood and fever with

A

ciprofloxacin

79
Q

Measles in developing countries

A

2 doses of vitamin A

80
Q

Treat plasmodium vivax

A

chloroquine and primaquine

81
Q

Treatment for multi-drug resistnat TB

A

18-24 months of at least 5 drugs

82
Q

Councilman bodies in liver

A

eosinophilic inclusion in liver

YELLOW FEVER

83
Q

Prophylaxis for contacts in meningococcal meningitis

who gets meds?

A

close contact within 7 days before onset

84
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in Saudia Arabia during Hajj

A

meningococcal meningitis type A

85
Q

Rabies treatment after bite and healed
- not vaccinated

A

rabies immunoglobulin and full rabies vaccination schedule

86
Q

river blindness = clouding of cornea
leopard print skin

A

onchocerciasis

Tx = ivermecthin

87
Q

Main disadvantage of IGRA - interferon gamma release assay

A

unable to distinguish between active or latent TB

88
Q

Manage staphylococcus aureus bacteraemia

A

IV flucloxacillin for 2 weeks

89
Q

Main side effect of trastuzumab

A

cardiotoxicity

90
Q

Drug to avoid in cocaine induced cardiovascular problems

A

beta blockers

risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm

91
Q

Medication that modifies diseases progression in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

decrease functional decline
prolong survival
reduce exacerbations

A

Pirfenidone and nintedanib

92
Q

Distinguish chylothorax from pseudochylothorax

A

triglycerides - in chylothorax

cholesterol in pseudochylothorax

93
Q

Angina management

A

Aspirin and statin
GTN spray

Beta blocker
Calcium channel blocker
Then B + C

Long acting nitrate
Ivabradine
Nicorandil
Ranolazine
add 3rd in whilst awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG

94
Q

Prinzmetal’s angina

A

coronary artery spasm
pain at rest with ECG changes
ECG changes resolve as pain abates

normal or artery disease on angio

Avoid precipitants
CCB, nitrates and/or nicorandil

95
Q

Chronic heart failure management

A

ACE inhibitor
Beta blocker

Aldosterone antagonist
SGLT2 inhibitors

Ivabradine - HR > 75, LVF < 35%
Sacubitril-valsartan - LVF < 35%
Digoxin - if coexisting AF
Hydralazine in combination with nitrate - Afro Caribbean patients
Cardiac resynchronisation - widened QRS on ECG

96
Q

Posterior STEMI

A

recipricol changes in anterior leads V1 - V3

horizontal ST depression
tall, broad R waves
upright T waves
dominant R wave in V2

97
Q

Trifascicular block

A

1st degree AV block
RBBB
LAD

98
Q

Abx for prostehtic valve caused

blind therapy
caused by sthaphylococci

A

vanc, rifampicin and low dose gent

99
Q

Coved ST elevation in leads V1-V3

A

Brugada syndrome

100
Q

sustained non-displaced apical impulse on cardiology clinical examination

A

left ventricular hypertrophy

ECG - deep S waves in V1 and V3 and tall R waves in V5 and V6

101
Q

Deeply inverted or biphasic T waves in V2-V3

A

Wellen’s syndrome

high risk of critical LAD stenosis

102
Q

Valve disease associated with PCKD

A

mitral valve prolapse

103
Q

Native valve endocarditis caused by staphylococci

A

Flucloxacillin

104
Q

SVT management in asthmatics

105
Q

Kussmaul’s sign

A

paradoxical elevation of JVP on inspiration

106
Q

Causes of constrictive pericarditis

A

radiotherapy
TB
chronic pericarditis

definitive management = surgical pericardial stripping

107
Q

ECG shows T wave inversion in V1-3 with epsilon wave

A

Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy

108
Q

Chlortalidone

A

Thiazide like diuretic

109
Q

Hydralazine with nitrate in Afro Caribean patients with HF

A

improves prognosis

110
Q

Stages of HTN

A

1 = 140/90 OR 135/85
2 = 160/100 OR 150/95
Severe = >180 or >120

111
Q

Tall
long fingered
downward lens dislocation
Learning diifculty
DVT

A

Homocystinuria

112
Q

Definitive treatment for constrictive pericarditis

A

Pericardiectomy

113
Q

Broad complex tachycardia

A

VT

Shock
Amiodarone
Lidocaine - not in LV impairment

DO NOT USE VERAPAMIL

Drug therapy fails:
EPS
ICD

114
Q

Argyll Robertson Pupil

A

bilateral small pupils

don’t constrict in response to light

contrict when focusing on a nearby object

115
Q

3 cardinal features of Lewy Body Dementia

A

visual hallucinations
fluctuating confusion
features of Parkinsonism

116
Q

Alleviate cognitive impairment in Lewy Body Dementia

117
Q

Agitation in Parkinson’s disease

A

1st line - Quetiapine
2nd line - Clozapine

118
Q

Best way to differentiate between delirium and dementia

A

confusion assessment method

119
Q

Cyclophosphamide in granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

increased risk of bladder cancer
- TCC

120
Q

Cryptosporidiosis

A

protozoal cause of diarrhoea in immunocompromised

Dx = modified Ziehl Neelsen stain (acid fast stain) of stool may reveal charactersitic red cysts of cryptosporidium

Mx
- if HIV - then start HAART
- nitazoxainde
- rifaximin if severe disease

121
Q

Cimex lectularius

122
Q

Sarcoptes scabiei

123
Q

Best method to assess for strongyloides stercoralise eradication

A

repeat serology

post to pre treatment titre ratio of < 0.6 = good indicator of treatment success

124
Q

Trypanosomiasis

rhodesiensi vs gambiensi

A

both Africa

acute = rhodesiense
chronic = gambiense

125
Q

Urethritis in a male

negative for gonorrhoea and chlamydia

A

Mycoplasma genitalium

treat with doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days

126
Q

Immunosuppressed with no immunity to measles then exposed

A

Immunoglobulin following exposure
- within 72 hours but can be done until 6 days post exposure

127
Q

Management of hepatitis B

A

1st line = Pegylated interferon-alpha

128
Q

Lyme disease and doxycycline contraindicated

A

contraindicated in pregnancy
- give amoxicillin

129
Q

Flu management in immunosuppressed

130
Q

Zika virus and pregnancy

A

avoid pregnancy for at least 8 weeks after travel to Zika area

131
Q

Fentanyl to morphine

A

75 patch = 180mg of morphine

100 patch = 240mg of morphine

132
Q

Most common side effect of checkpoint inhibitors

A

dry, itchy skin and rashes

133
Q

Most common chemotherapy regime for small cell lung cancer

A

etoposide
cisplatin

134
Q

Treatment for small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome

A

rifaximin

co-amoxiclav or metronidazole also effective

135
Q

Chromosomal changes associated with poor prognosis in CLL

A

deletion of short arm of chromosome 17 - del 17p

136
Q

African trypanosomiasis types and key points

A

Gambiense = West Africa
CHRONIC

Rhodiesiense = East Africa
ACUTE