Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

mrcp part 1 > mrcp part 1 > Flashcards

mrcp part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

quinolones mechanism of action

A

inhibit topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

most common cause of viral meningitis

A

human enteroviruses- coxsackievirus/ echovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

specificity

A

people who DO NOT have the disease and test NEGATIVE

TN/ (TN + FP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

sensitivity

A

people who HAVE the disease and test POSITIVE

TP/ (TP + FN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

mechanism of action of cisplatin

A

can cause cross linking in DNA

( CC- Ciplatin= Crosslinking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mechanism of action of vincristine

A

inhibits microtubules formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

positive predictive value

A

the chance the person has the disease if the test is positive

PPV= TP/ (TP +FP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

negative predictive value

A

the chance the person DOES NOT have the disease if the test is NEGATIVE

NPV= TN/ (TN + FN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Burkitts lymphoma gene

A

c-myc gene translocation
normallt t(8;14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

receptor for EBV

A

CD21

(21 year olds can get EBV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

treatment for widened QRS in tricyclic overdose

A

IV sodium bicarb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Loffler’s syndrome

A

Transient respiratory illness (fever, cough, night sweats) causing blood eosinophilia and CXR shadowing.

Can be caused by parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment for acute eosinophilic pneumonia

A

highly responsive to steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

secondary messenger system stimulated by NO

A

cGMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Action of proteasome

A

Degredation of polypeptides through breaking polypeptide bonds

Found in nucleus and cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau method of inheritence and location of gene

A

Autosomal dominant
VHL gene on chromosome 3 (VHL=3letters= chromosome 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau associated tumours

A

cerebellar haemangiomas–> subarachnoid haemorrhages
retinal haemangiomas–> vitreous haemorrhage
renal cysts (premalignant)
phaeochromocytoma
extra-renal cysts: epididymal, pancreatic, hepatic
endolymphatic sac tumours
clear-cell renal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cancer associated with Hashimotos

A

MALT tumours

can present without typical B featuresf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CLL treatment regime

A

FCR
Fludarabine cyclophosphamide rituximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Non Hodgkins lymphoma treatment

A

RCHOP
Rituximab doxorubicin cyclophosphamide vincristine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Gene defect in AIP Acute intermittent Porphyria

A

Porphobilinogen deaminase

Aip- porphobilinogen deAminase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Gene defect in PCT porphyria cutanea tarda

A

uroporphinogen decarboxylase

pCt= uroporphinogen deCarboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

investigation for betathalasaemia trait

A

haemoglobin electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

causes of upper zone fibrosis

A

C - Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
H - Histiocytosis/ hypersensitivity pneumonitis
A - Ankylosing spondylitis
R - Radiation
T - Tuberculosis
S - Silicosis/sarcoidosis

Think up in the charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cause of soft S2

A

aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

LBBB heart sound

A

reversed (left) split S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

RBBB heart sound

A

widely split (right) S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cause of loud S2

A

hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

widely split S2 causes

A

RBBB
pulmonary stenosis
severe mitral regurg
deep inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

reverse split S2 causes

A

LBBB
patent ductus arteriosus
R ventricular pacing
severe AS
WPW syndrome type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

syphillis serology
Positive non-treponemal test and positive treponemal test

A

active syphillis infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

syphillis serology
Positive non-treponemal test + negative treponemal test

A

false positive

(e.g. SLE, RA, malaria, HIV, antiphospholipid syndrome, TB, leprosy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

syphillis serology
Negative non-treponemal test + positive treponemal test

A

previously treated syphillis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fabry’s disease

A

X linked disorder
deficiency in alpha galactosidase–> causes progressive lysosomal depositiion of Gb3 in various tissues causing multiorgan dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Budd Chiari symtoms

A

ascites, abdominal pain, and hepatomegaly

(thrombosis of the hepatic vein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when to suspect a diagnosis of MODY

A

individuals with persistent, asymptomatic hyperglycemia detected before the age of 25, without the typical features of Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

MODY 2 treatment

A

no specific treatment required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

MODY 3 treatment

A

low dose sulphonylurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

cyclosporin side effects

A

nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity
fluid retention
hypertension
hyperkalaemia
hypertrichosis
gingival hyperplasia
tremor
impaired glucose tolerance and hyperlipidaemia
increased susceptibility to severe infection

(everything is increased)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

symptoms of Pendred’s disease

A

autosomal recessive disorder found on chromosome 7 causing a defect in the organification of iodine

bilateral sensorineural deafness
mild hypothyroid
goitre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

causes of normal ion gap acidosis

A

ABCD

Addisons
Bicarb loss (diarrhoea or renal tubular acidosis)
Chloride excess
Diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

causes of high ion gap acidosis

A

lactate- sepsis
Ketones- DKA
renal failure
toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

main constituent of pulmonary surfactant

A

phospholipids, proteins and carbohydrates- dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine

=DPPC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

treatment of magnesium sulphate induced respiratory depression

A

calcium gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are Forrest plots/ blobbograms used for?

A

Blobbograms are used to display the results of all the constituent studies included in a meta-analysis.

Conventionally, each study is represented with a data point showing the odds ratio (e.g. of death in placebo vs control) with error bars representing a 95% confidence interval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are funnel plots used to show?

A

Publication bias in meta-analyses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are box plots used for

A

Used to show quantitative results

Can show the means and range etc as well as positive or negative skew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does a histogram show

A

Type of bar chart that shows how many times a variable occurs within a set range.

e.g. the number of myocardial infarctions on the y-axis against patient age by decade on the x-axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what does a symmetrical inverted funnel plot indicate?

A

publication bias is unlikely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which class of antibodies mediate hyperacute organ rejection

A

IgG

pre-exsiting IgG antibodies against HLA antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

3 reasons for hypertension in patients with neurofibromatosis

A

essential hypertension
phaeochromocytoma
renal vascular stenosis from fibromusculardysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

causative organism for bilateral pneumonia with cavitating lung lesions following a viral illness?

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

which type of bacteria is listeria

A

gram positive bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

therapy indicated for heart failure patients with a LVEF < 35% who are still symptomatic on ACE-inhibitors & beta-blockers

A

sacubitril-valsartan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

therapy for adrenaline induced ischaemia

A

phentolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

drugs which may cause an acute attack of AIP

A

barbiturates
halothane
benzodiazepines
alcohol
oral contraceptive pill
sulphonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

diagnostic criteria for patients with suspected COPD

A

FEV1/FVC less than 70% predicted and symptoms suggestive of COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

treatment for facial hirsutism

A

topical eflornithine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Treatment for GuillianBarre Syndrome

A

IV IG

(helps neutralise the antibodies which cause GBS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

severe hypokalaemia ECG changes

A

U waves
small or absent T waves (occasionally inversion)
prolong PR interval
ST depression
long QT

(U have no Pot and no T but a long PR and a long QT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Holmes Adie pupil

A

once the pupil has constricted it remains small for an abnormally long time

slowly reactive to accommodation but very poorly (if at all) to light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

McArdles disease symptoms

A

muscle pain and stiffness following exercise
muscle cramps
myoglobinuria
low lactate levels during exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

test used to investigate hypopituitarism

A

insulin stress test

Give IV insulin and measure GH and cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

spinal cord compression above level of L1 symptoms

A

upper motor neuron signs and a sensory level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

spinal cord compression below the level of L1 symptoms

A

lower motor nueron signs
increased tendon reflexes above the lesion
absent tendon reflexes at the lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

diagnostic criteria for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

Major criteria for the diagnosis are:
Clinical features of asthma
Proximal bronchiectasis
Blood eosinophilia
Immediate skin reactivity to Aspergillus antigen
Increased serum IgE (>1000 IU/ml)

Minor criteria:
Fungal elements in sputum
Brown flecks in sputum
Delayed skin reactivity to fungal antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

management for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

glucocorticoids

itraconazole is second line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

indicators for severe pancreatitis

A

hypocalcaemia
hyperglycaemia
age over 55
hypoxia
elevated LDH and AST
neutrophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

treatment of thyroid dysfunction for a patient recently started on amiodarone

A

continue amiodarone and give thyroid replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

first line treatment for myoclonic seizures in males

A

sodium valporate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

drugs which may exacerbate myasthenia gravis

A

penicillamine
quinidine, procainamide
beta-blockers
lithium
phenytoin
antibiotics: gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Miller Fisher syndrome antibodies

A

Anti-GQ1b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Myasthenia gravis antibodies

A

Anti-MuSK
Anti-AChR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Eaton Labert Syndrome antibodies

A

Anti-VGCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

VIP action

A

stimulates secretion from pancreas and intestines

inhibits gastric acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Gene mutation associated with CADSIL

A

NOTCH3 mutation

(CADSIL= cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukencephalopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Fabry disease gene mutation

A

GLA mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Examples of anthracyclines

A

doxorubicin and epirubicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

most common histological finding in rheumatic heart disease

A

Ashcoff bodies

(granulomatous bodies found in rheumatic heart fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

antiphospholipid syndrome clotting screen findings

A

prolonged APTT
low platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Leishmaniasis treatment

A

miltefosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

mechanism of renal protective use of ACEi

A

dilation of EFFERENT arteriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Cancer associated with schistosomiasis infection

A

Squamous cell bladder cancer

Schisto= Squamous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Histological finding associated with gastric adenocarcinoma

A

Signet cells

(large mucin containing vacuole pushes the nucelus to one side, giving the appearance of a Signet ring)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

plan for patients admitted with MI on metformin treatment

A

stop metformin as can cause lactic acidois

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

around 1 in 10 people diagnosed with renal angiomyolipomas are diagnosed with which condition?

A

tuberous sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

action of maltase

A

breaks down maltose into 2 glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

action of sucrase

A

breaks down sucrose into glucose and fructose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

action of lactase

A

breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

which type of vaccine is yellow fever

A

live attenuated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

gentamicin is nephrotoxic as it causes what?

A

acute tubular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

mercury poisoning symptoms

A

visual field defects, paraesthesias and hearing loss

can also cause hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

features of cholesterol emboli

A

renal failure
livedo reticularis
eosinophilila
purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

which layer are melanocytes found in?

A

stratum germinativum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

biochemical features associated with anorexia nervosa

A

HIGH Cs AND Gs

high cholesterol
high cortisol
carotinaemia

high glucose
high GH
high salivary Gland output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Dengue symptoms

A

fever
retro orbital headache
facial flushing
rash

bitten by mosquitos/returning traveller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

fever
retro orbital headache
rash
thrombocytopenia
facial flushing

A

dengue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Dengue treatment

A

’
Ipportive with fluids etc

(no anti retrovirals indicated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Dengue investigations

A

Bloods- thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, raised liver enzymes

NAATS for viral RNA
NS1 antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

testicular seminoma tumour marker

A

HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

pemphigus vulgaris- antibody is directed against what?

A

desmoglein
(components of desmosomes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

normal distribution

A

mean=mode=median
68% of values under the curve lie within 1 standard deviation of the mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

systemic mastocytosis symptoms

A

urticaria pigmentosa (wheals on rubbing)
flushing
abdo pain
mastocytosis on blood film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

best imaging modality for osteomyelitis

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

most common bacterial cause of osteomyelitis in patients with sickle cell disease

A

salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma gene translocation

A

t(11:15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma histology

A

‘starry sky’

lymphocytes sheets with interspersed macrophages containing dead apoptotic tumour cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

presents with
flu like illness less than 1 week–> brief period of remission –> jaundice and haematemesis

A

Yellow fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

NICE target after starting statin for 3 months

A

40% reduction in non-HDL 40% cholesterol in 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

oseltamivir/ tamiflu mechanism of action

A

neuraminidase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

mechanism of hypercalcaemia in sarcoidosis

A

Macrophages in the granulomas cause increased conversion of Vit D to it’s active form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

most important blood test for restless legs syndrome

A

ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

mechanism of action of NAC

A

replenishes glutathione

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

which cancer is most associated with ectopic ACTH production

A

small cell lung cancer

109
Q

treatment for C diff which does NOT respond to oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin?

A

oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole

110
Q

tumour marker associated with primary peritoneal cancer

A

CA 125

111
Q

vaccinations in patients undergoing splenectomy

A

HiB, pneumococcus, meningococcus types B and C

14 days AFTER splenectomy

112
Q

mycoplasm pnemonia diagnostic test

A

serology

113
Q

most important ECG change to monitor for in aortic valve endocarditis

A

PR prolongation

could indicate an aortic root abscess

114
Q

equation for power of a study

A

1- probability of making type 2 error

115
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies association

A

hyposplenism

(you’re not so jolly without a spleen)

116
Q

serotonin syndrome treatment

A

cyproheptadine

(H1 and non specific 5HT antagonist)

117
Q

Lofgrens syndrome

A

acute form of sarcoidosis

polyarthralgia
bihilar lymphodenopathy
erythema nodosum
fever

118
Q

diagnostic test for hereditary spherocytosis

A

EMA binding test

119
Q

P450 enzyme inducers

A

CRAP GPS induces rage

Carbamazepine
Rifampicin
Alcohol (chronic)
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitone
Sulphoylureas

120
Q

initial treatment for APML (acute promyelocytic myeloid leukaemia)

A

All-trans retinoic acid

(force immature granulocytes into maturation to resolve a blast crisis prior to more definitive chemotherapy)

121
Q

primary immunodeficiency caused by defect in B cell function

A

common variable immunodeficiency

122
Q

Wiscott Aldrich syndrome features

A

bloody diarrhoea
thrombocytopenia (low platelets)
eczema
recurrent bacterial infections

(X linked recessive condition affecting B and T cell signalling)

123
Q

rosacea treatment

A

mild flushing
–> topical brimonidine

mild to mod with pustules
–> topical ivermectin
(also topical metronidazole/azeliac)

mod to severe
–> topical ivermectin and oral doxycycline

124
Q

SSRI post MI

A

sertraline

125
Q

Immunoglobulin which activates B cells

A

IgD

126
Q

most common bateria in neutropenic sepsis

A

gram positive, coagulase negative

staph epidermidis

127
Q

cause of regular canon waves

A

AVNRT

128
Q

cause of irregular canon waves

A

complete heart block

129
Q

stain used to confirm diagnosis of pneumocystis carinii

A

silver stain

130
Q

sickle cell disease aplastic crisis symptoms

A

sudden drop in Hb
bone marrow suppression–> reduced reticulocyte count
assocaited with parovirus infection

131
Q

methaemogloblinaemia treatment

A

methylthioninium chloride

132
Q

SSRI with highest incidence of discontinuation symptoms

A

paroxetine

(Paroxetine causes Problems when it is dicontinued)

133
Q

drugs associated with photosensitivity

A

thiazides
tetracyclines
amiodarone
sulphonylureas and sulphonamides
psoralens

134
Q

NNT calculation

A

1- absolute risk reduction

134
Q

treatment for anthrax

A

ciprofloxacin

135
Q

pain in hands and feet
angiokeratomas
decreased ability to sweat
GI problems
tinnitus and hearing loss
corneal opacity or corneal verticillata

A

Fabry disease

136
Q

markers used to monitor haemochromatosis

A

transferrin saturations
ferritin

137
Q

cancer associated with CA15-3 tumour marker

A

breast cancer

138
Q

most common cardiac defect associated with Marfans syndrome

A

dilation of aortic sinuses

139
Q

mixed alpha and beta receptor antagonist

A

carvedilol

140
Q

management of stress incontinence

A
  1. pelvic floor exercises
  2. duloxetine
  3. retropubic midurethral tape procedures
141
Q

management of urge incontinence

A
  1. bladder retraining
  2. oxybutynin (avoid in frail and elderly- use mirabegron instead)
    tolterodine
142
Q

mechanism of action of duloextine in stress incontinence

A

increases the concentration of serotonin and noradrenaline in the presynaptic cleft of the pudendal nerve—>increased contraction of urethral sphincter muscles

143
Q

legionella treatment

A

macrolide e.g. clarithromycin

144
Q

autoantibody associated with polyarteritis nodosa

A

no antibody is likely to be positive

145
Q

common complication of PCP

A

pneumothorax

146
Q

DEXA scan result of -1.0 to -2.5

A

osteopenia

147
Q

DEXA scan result of less than -2.5

A

osteoporosis

148
Q

sarcoid CXR changes stages

A

stage 1: BHL
stage 2: BHL and infiltrates
stage 3: infiltrates
stage 4: fibrosis

149
Q

tumour lysis blood levels

A

high urate
high potassium
high phosphate
LOW CALCIUM

(high phosphate will chelate calcium in the blood)
(PUKE Calcium= Phosphate Urate Kpotassium Elevated. Calcium low)

150
Q

ethylene glycol antidote and mechanism of action

A

fomepizole

(competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase)

151
Q

most common type of Hodgkins lymphoma

A

nodular sclerosing

(associated with Reed Sternberg cells)

152
Q

What is the use of leukocyte alanine phosphatase levels

A

LAP is found in mature WBC

Low LAP levels are associated with conditions with high immature WBC -e.g. CML

high LAP levels are associated with conditions with mature WBC e.g. myelofibrosis

153
Q

how is cryptosporidium diagnosed?

A

stool sample- turns red on acid fast staining

154
Q

Features of Parkinsons malignant syndrome

A

presents like neuroleptic malginant syndrome with hyperthermia, confusion, rigidity and increased RR HR BP

caused by abrupt withdrawal of Parkinsons meds

treatment= BROMOCRIPTINE

155
Q

primary immunodeficiency disorders involving both T and B cells

A

SCID
Wiscott Aldrich Syndrome
Ataxic telangiectasia

SCID WAS ATAXIC

156
Q

first line treatment for lichen planus

A

POTENT topical steroids

157
Q

autoantibodies most specific for dermatomyositis

A

anti-Mi2

158
Q

causes of predominantly sensory neuropathy

A

uraemia
alcoholism
B12 deficiency
leprosy
amyloidosis
diabetes

159
Q

causes of predominantly motor neuropathy

A

Guillian Barre
Charcot Marie Tooth
porphyria
lead poisoning
diptheria
Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP)

160
Q

When is a Wilcoxon signed rank test used?

A

To compare a before and after following an intervention on the same group

(compares 2 sets of observations on a single sample)

161
Q

mechanism of action of amphotericin B

A

binds with ergosterol

(component of fungal cell membranes–>forms pores–>cell wall lysis–> fungal death)

162
Q

most common cardiac complication in myotonic dystrophy

A

1st degree heart block

163
Q

treatment for severe symptomatic mitral stenosis

A

percutaneous mital commissurotomy

164
Q

most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

165
Q

TTP symptoms

A

thrombocytopenia
neurological symptoms
renal failure
fever
anaemia

166
Q

autoantibodies associated with idiopathic membranous glomerulonephritis

A

anti phospholipase A2

167
Q

mechanism of action of vassopression in von Willebrands disease

A

induces release of von Willebrand factor from endothelial cells

168
Q

mechanism of action of tetanus toxin

A

inhibits GABA release

169
Q

absolute risk reduction

A

Control event rate - experimental event rate

170
Q

Number needed to treat

A

NNT= 1- absolute risk reduction

(absolute risk reduction= control event rate - experimental event rate)

171
Q

type of motor neurone disease with the worse prognosis

A

progressive bulbar palsy

172
Q

Why are ACEi contraindicated in HOCM?

A

ACEi reduce afterload which can worsen the LVOT (LV outflow tract obstruction) gradient

**nitrates and ionotropes should also be avoided

173
Q

Features of Familial Mediterranean Fever

A

Autosomal recessive

Attacks which normally last 3 days of:
Fevers
Abdominal pain (peritonitis)
Pleurisy
pericarditis
erysipeloid rash on lower limbs
arthritis

treat with CHOLCHICINE

174
Q

cardiac marker used to look for reinfarction after MI

A

CK-MB

175
Q

markers of bone turnover which would be rasied in Pagets disease

A

hydroxyproline
urinary N telopeptide
serum C telopeptide
Procollagen type 1 N terminal propeptide

176
Q

severe LVF pulse

A

pulsus alterans

177
Q

flu like illness–>brief remission–> jaundice and haematemesis

A

Yellow fever

178
Q

investigation of choice for bile acid malabsorption

A

SeHCAT test

(patient ingests Selenium-75-labelled homocholic acid taurine and then gets a whole body gamma scan 7 days after. Low retention- think bile acid malabsorption)

179
Q

tumour associated with high levels of bombesin

A

small cell lung cancer

180
Q

contents of cryoprecipitate

A

vWF Factor VIII and fibrinogen

181
Q

most important factor to consider when deciding whether to give cryoprecipitate

A

give if low fibrinogen levels (to help clot formation)

(normally used in DIC, liver failure, after massive transfusion)

182
Q

antibody associated with idiopathic membraneous glomerulonephitis

A

anti phospholipase A2

183
Q

rare causes of papilloedema

A

vitamin A toxicity
hypocalcaemia and hypoparathyroid

184
Q

mechanism of action of bicalutamide

A

androgen receptor blocker

(used in prostate cancer)

185
Q

anti Yo antibodies

A

related to paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration

(assoc with gynaecological cancers such as ovarian and breast)

186
Q

anti Hu antibodies

A

related to paraneoplastic neurological symptoms e.g. painful sensory neuropathies

(assoc with small cell lung cancer)

187
Q

conditions assoc with Eisenmenger’s syndrome

A

Atrial septal defect
Ventricular septal defect
PDA

188
Q

Condition associated with tear shaped piokilocytes

A

myelofibrosis

(myeloCRYbrosis)

189
Q

Function of peroxisomes

A

catabolism of long chain fatty acids

190
Q

first line agent for treatment of multifocal atrial tachycardia

A

verapamil

191
Q

testing for haemochromatosis

A

Screening: transferrin saturations> ferritin
Family members: HFE gene analysis

192
Q

renal transplant (mostly over 4 weeks ago) and new infectious symptoms likely cause?

A

CMV

193
Q

HIV, neurological symptoms and SINGLE homogenous ring-enhancing lesion on CTB

A

CNS Lymphoma

194
Q

Most common cause of brain lesions in HIV?

A

toxoplasmosis

195
Q

Conversion disorder symptoms

A

Functional neurological disorder usually acute loss of sensory or motor function

196
Q

most common symptoms of drug induced lupus

A

arthralgia
myalgia
skin (e.g. malar rash) and pulmonary involvement (e.g. pleurisy) are common
ANA positive in 100%, dsDNA negative
anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90%
anti-Ro, anti-Smith positive in around 5%

(normally resolves on stopping the drug)

197
Q

cavernous sinus thrombosis symptoms

A

headache
proptosis
unilateral facial oedema
photophobia
palsies of cranial nerves which pass through (CN III, IV, V, VI)

198
Q

treatment of Paget’s disease of the bone

A

IV bisphosphonates

198
Q

treatment options for metastatic bone pain

A

opioids
bisphosphonates
RT

198
Q

most common and severe form of renal disease in SLE patients

A

diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

199
Q

what must be excluded in a patient with a third nerve palsy and headache?

A

posterior communicating artery aneurysm

200
Q

investigation of choice for CLL

A

immunophenotyping

201
Q

most common cause of endocarditis less than 2 months post valve surgery

A

staph epidermidis

202
Q

most common cause of endocarditis 2 months after valve surgery

A

staph aureus

203
Q

thyrotoxicosis with tender goitre

A

de Quervians thyroiditis

204
Q

management of polycythemia rubra vera

A

aspirin (patients are at a higher risk of CVS events)
venesection
hydroxyurea (chemotherapy)

205
Q

role of IFN-γ

A

produced by Th1 cells to recruit macrophages

206
Q

oncogene associated with neuroblastoma

A

n-MYC

(think n for neuroblastoma)

207
Q

which cells mediate hyperacute organ rejection

A

B cells

208
Q

what is tolvaptan

A

a V2 receptor antagonist

(it reduces water absorption without sodium loss)

208
Q

Mechanism of action of hydrazine

A

Acts onsmooth muscle receptors of arterioles causing vasodilation and reduced systemic vascular resistance

209
Q

Mechanism of actionof monoxidine

A

Centrally acting antihypertensive
Stimulates imidazole receptorsin the brain–> reduced sympathetic outflow–> reduced SVR

210
Q

Metabolic causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

Hypokalaemia
Hypercalcaemia

211
Q

first line treatment for TTP

A

plasma exchange

212
Q

which treatment for Graves may make thyroid eye disease worse?

A

radio-iodine

213
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

Fever reaction with muscles aches, headache and transient rash which occurs 24 hours after starting abx for conditions suchs as Lyme disease and syphilis

214
Q

Golimumab mechanism of action

A

TNF alpha antagonist

215
Q

drug used to prevent calcium oxalate renal stones

A

thiazide diuretics

(increases distal tubular calcium resorption)

216
Q

contraindication for prescribing nicorandil in angina

A

LV failure

217
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot abnormalities

A

VSD
over-riding aorta
pulmonary artery stenosis
right ventricular hypertrophy

218
Q

mechanism of action of aciclovir

A

inhibits DNA polymerase

219
Q

mechanism of latanoprost

A

reduces uveoscleral outflow

219
Q

mechanism of action of timolol

A

reduces aqueous production

220
Q

mechanism of action of pilocarpine

A

muscarinic agonist –>pupil constriction–> increased uveoscleral outflow

221
Q

treatment of severe campylobacter infection

A

clarithromycin

222
Q

plasmodium species with the shortest erythrocyte replication cycle

A

p. knowlesi

(the accelerated cycle results in the rapid multiplication of the parasite, leading to notably high parasite counts in a brief timeframe.)

223
Q

long QT syndrome is associated with loss of function of which channels

A

loss of function/ blockage of K+ channels

224
Q

causes of hypokalaemia and hypertension

A

11 beta hydroxylase deficiency
Liddles syndrome
Conns syndrome
Cushings syndrome

225
Q

causes of hypokalaemia WITHOUT hypertension

A

Barters syndrome
Gitelmanns syndrome
diuretics
GI loss
Type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis

226
Q

Jervell Lange Nielsen syndrome

A

inherited long QT syndrome
sensorineural deafness

226
Q

organism associated with bacterial vaginosis

A

Gardnerella vaginalis
(Gram positive cocco bacilli)

227
Q

relative risk calculation

A

EER/CER

(experimental event rate/ control event rate)

228
Q

likelihood ratio for a positive test result

A

sensitivity / (1-specificity)

how much the odds of having the disease increase when the test is positive

229
Q

likelihood ratio for a negative test result

A

(1-sensitivity)/ specificity

how much the odds of having the disease decrease when the test is negative

230
Q

calculation for standard error of the mean

A

standard deviation / square root of the number of patients

231
Q

dabigatran mechanism of action

A

direct thrombin inhibitor

232
Q

MRIB findings associated with Wernickes syndrome

A

enhancement of mamillary bodies

233
Q

drug used in the management of Familial Mediterranean Fever

A

cholchicine

234
Q

Leiners disease

A

severe seborrhoeic dermatitis which begins in infancy
assoc with recurrent infections and diarrhoea
C5 deficiency

235
Q

how to tell if AKI is a pre renal uraemia or ATN

A

in pre renal uraemia, kidneys hold onto sodium to try to conserve volume

(low urinary sodium, high urine osmolality, raised serum Ur:Cr ratio)

236
Q

treatment of Ramsay Hunt

A

oral aciclovir and oral steroids

236
Q

teicoplanin mechanism of action

A

inhibits bacterial cell wall formation

236
Q

treatment for Chagas disease

A

Benznidazole

(kills the parasite Trypanosoma cruzi in both the acute and chronic phases.)

236
Q

antibiotic used to treat cholera

A

doxycycline

237
Q

mechanism of action of elvitegravir

A

anti-retroviral - blocks the enzyme which allows integration of viral genome into the host DNA

(-GRAvirs prevent inteGRAtion)

238
Q

pleural fluid with low glucose is suggestive of

A

rhematoid arthritis
tuberculosis

239
Q

pleural fluid with raised amylase is suggestive of

A

pancreatitis
oesophageal perforation

240
Q

pleural fluid with heavy blood staining is suggestive of

A

mesothelioma
PE
TB

241
Q

All patients with a pleural effusion assoc with sepsis or pneumonia should have pleural fluid sampled. What is the criteria for drainage?

A

If fluid is cloudy or turbid

pH less than 7.2

242
Q

indications for permanent pacemaker insertion in patients with bradycardia

A

symptomatic bradycardia
trifascicular block
sinus pause of over 3 seconds
mobitz type 2 HB

243
Q

Treatment of Legionella pneumonia

A

erythromycinor clarithromycin

(abx needs to penetrate the plasma membrane of alveolar macrophages where Legionella hides)

244
Q

immunosuppresive drug used in renal transplant associated with hyperkalaemia

A

tacrolimus

245
Q

mycobacterium avium treatment

A

rifampicin
ethambutol
clarithromycin

(Presents similar to mycobacterium TB but causes marked hepatomegaly compared to focal liver lesions seen in TB- it RECs the whole liver)

246
Q

Clinical findings of C8/T1 paralysis/ Klumpkes paralysis

A

loss of sensation medial hand and forearm
Flexed fingers
Supinated forearm
Wrist extension
May have forearm and intrinsic hand muscle atrophy

247
Q

most common cause of biliary disease in HIV patients

A

sclerosing cholangitis

most commonly caused by infections such as CMV cryptosporidium and microsporidia

248
Q

phenytoin mechanism of action

A

binds to Na channels and increases their refractory period

249
Q

Definition of SNP- single nucleotide pleomorphism

A

substitution of one nucelotide for another

(most commonly found in non-coding DNA, but can be clinically significant in coding DNA)

250
Q

serum osmolality concentration

A

(2x Na) + (2x K) + Glucose + Urea

251
Q

cisplatin toxicity

A

nephrotoxicity
neurotoxicity- neuropathy and hearing loss

252
Q

site of action of haloperidol

A

area postrema- an area of the medulla

253
Q

ropinerole mechanism of action

A

dopamine receptor agonist

254
Q

muscle responsible for torticollis

A

ipsilateral sternocleidomastoid muscle contraction (causes chin to deviate to the opposite side)

255
Q

aneuploid definition

A

abnormal number of chromosomes

256
Q

lung cancer most associated with cavitating lung lesions

A

squamous cell carcinoma

257
Q

drugs associated with lithium toxicity

A

thiazide diuretics
ACEi/ ARBs
NSAIDS
metronidazole

258
Q

Chvostek’s sign

A

test for HYPOCALCAEMIA

Facial muscle twitching when tapping over the area of the facial nerve

(Chvostek’s sign is more sensitive and specific for hypocalcaemia than Trousseau’s sign)

259
Q

Trousseau’s sign

A

test for HYPOCALCAEMIA

Inflate the BP cuff above systolic pressure for 2-3mins –> induces carpal spasm

260
Q

coronary artery and ECG changes assoc with anterolateral MI

A

proximal LAD
aVL I V1-V6

261
Q

coronary artery and ECG changes assoc with inferior MI

A

RCA
II III aVF

262
Q

coronary artery and ECG changes assoc with posterior MI

A

Left circumflex (but can also be RCA)

V1-V3 changes
-horizontal ST depression
-tall broad R waves
-upright T waves
-dominant R wave V2

ST evelation in V7-V9

263
Q

Coronary artery and ECG changes assoc with lateral MI

A

Left circumflex

I aVL V5 V6

264
Q

Pharmacological treatment for bulimia not responding to CBT

A

high dose fluoxetine

265
Q

treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

dantrolene

266
Q

marker used to assess prognosis in myeloma

A

B2 microglobulin

267
Q

CXR staging for sarcoidosis

A

stage 1: BHL
stage 2: BHL + infiltrates
stage 3: infiltrates
stage 4: fibrosis

268
Q
A

mrcp part 1 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions