MR pharm Flashcards

1
Q

A 66 year old patient sees you in clinic. She is planning to undergo a prolapse repair. Her BP in clinic is 132/84. You note on her pre-op bloods that her Sodium is 129 mmol/l. Otherwise her U&Es and FBC are within normal parameters. Her medication list is below:

    Aspirin 75mg OD
    Atenolol 50mg OD
    Furosemide 40mg OD
    Ramipril 5mg OD
    Simvastatin 10mg OD

Which of her medications is most likely to cause hyponatraemia:

A

Cardiac Medications

Below are some common and important side effects encountered with commonly used medications. The lists are not exhaustive but should highlight side effects that you may be asked about in the exam.

ACE inhibitors eg Ramipril

    Dry Cough (10%)
    Joint aches
    Postural hypotension (infrequent)
    Renal Impairment (rare)
    Angio-odema (rare)

NOTE: Avoid in Pregnancy as skull defects, oligohydramnios and altered neonatal BP and renal blood flow reported.

Loop Diuretics eg Furosemide

    Postural Hypotension
    Hyponatraemia
    Hypokalaemia
    Hypocalcaemia and Hypomagnesaemia
    Gastrointestinal upset

Calcium Channel Blockers eg Amlodipine

Peripheral oedema
Abdominal pain
Nausea
Fatigue

NOTE The BNF advises most calcium channel blockers be avoided in pregnancy as they may inhibit labour and some have shown toxicity in animal studies

Beta Blockers eg labetalol

Bronchospasm
Cold extremities
Alteration in glycaemic control
Bradycardia

NOTE Labetalol has not been shown to be harmful except possibly in the 1st trimester. Other beta blockers may cause IUGR

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2
Q

An 26 year old patient currently 9 weeks pregnant. This is her 1st pregnancy. She has been suffering with nausea and vomitting that has failed to respond to conservative measures including ginger, dietary changes and acupuncture. She wants to start medical therapy. Which of the following is 1st line drug treatment according to NICE guidance?

  • Domperidone
  • Ondans
  • Promethazine
  • Haloperidol
  • Metoclopramide
A

Ans Promethazine

Antiemetics

  1. Cyclizine Histamine H1-receptor antagonist
  2. Promethazine Histamine H1-receptor antagonist
  3. Ondansetron Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
  4. Prochlorperazine Dopamine D2 receptor antagonist
  5. Metoclopramide Dopamine D2 receptor antagonist
    5-HT3 receptor antagonist
    5-HT4 receptor agonist
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3
Q

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Cyclizine?

A

Cyclizine is type of antihistamine that acts on the H1 receptor.

In pregnancy NICE guidelines advise oral promethazine or oral cyclizine should be used as 1st line drug management of nausea and vomitting. Both are H1 antagonists.

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4
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for Diazepam overdose?

A

Flumazenil

Flumazenil is used for benzodiazepine overdose.
Naloxone is used for opioid overdose.
Parvolex (N-acetyl cysteine) is used for paracetamol overdose.
Protamine can be used for Heparin reversal.
Beriplex can be used for Warfarin reversal.

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5
Q

You are asked to prescribe VTE prophylaxis for a 26 year old patient who is 37 weeks pregnant. She is 72Kg. What dose of Dalteparin would you use?

A

5000 U

Weight (kg) Enoxaparin Dalteparin Tinzaparin
<50 20mg 2500u 3500u
50 to 90 40mg 5000u 4500u
91-130 60mg 7500u 7000u
131-170 80mg 10,000u 9000u
>170 0.6mg/kg 75u/kg 75u/kg

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6
Q

Which of the following drugs is a Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) inhibitor?

A

Methotrexate

Tetrahydrofolate and its derivatives are essential for purine and thymidylate synthesis, which are important for cell proliferation and cell growth.
Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) enzyme catalyses the conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate.

In humans deficiency of DHFR can lead to folate deficiency and megaloblastic anaemia.

The 2 most commonly used DHFR inhibitors are:

Trimethoprim
Methotrexate. 

Some antimalarials are also DHFR inhibitors.

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7
Q

A patient is on the ward with a mechanical mitral valve. There is no history of VTE. What is the target INR?

A

2.5-3.5

With regard to warfarin therapy there are only 3 target ranges that are commonly used:

2. 0 - 3.0 Most common used for DVT,PE & tissue valve replacement treatment
2. 5 - 3.5 Used in mechanical mitral valve replacement & some aortic mech.valve replacements
3. 0 - 4.0 Used in mechanical valve replacement where PE has occurred despite anticoagulation at lower range

Warfarin

RCOG updated its Greentop guidelines on thromboprophylaxis in 2015.

Warfarin has a very limited role in pregnancy and as such there is limited scope for questioning but you should be familiar with the following

Key Points

People on warfarin should be converted to LMWH during pregnancy
Very few exceptions to above. Mechanical heart valves main one
Warfarin causes a characteristic warfarin embryopathy in 5% of foetuses exposed to warfarin between 6 and 12 weeks gestation
Warfarin is safe to use when breastfeeding
Women converted to LMWH from warfarin during pregnancy should be changed back 5-7 days after delivery
Also remember you may also be asked how warfarin works! It inhibits vitamin K dependent clotting factors (10,9,7,2)

Warfarin Embryopathy

    Hypoplasia of nasal bridge
    Congenital heart defects
    Ventriculomegaly
    Agenesis of the corpus callosum
    Stippled epiphyses
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8
Q

A 27 year old patient is maintained on warfarin during pregnancy due to a mechanical mitral valve. She has read about warfarin embryopathy. Which of the following is a typical feature?

A

Stippled epiphyses are multiple ossification centers that severely deform the long bone and give it a stippled appearance and a thickened shaft. It is a feature of Warfarin Emryopathy (AKA Fetal Warfarin Syndrome). Other features include:

    Hypoplasia of nasal bridge
    Laryngomalacia
    Pectus carinatum
    Ventriculomegaly
    Agenesis of the corpus callosum
    Telebrachydactyly
    Growth retardation
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9
Q

With regard to opioid receptors. Morphine acts primarily as a potent?

A

Opoids

Opioids may act at Mu, Kappa or Delta receptors.

Strong opioids commonly used in clinical practice i.e.

Morphine
Fentanyl
Methadone

are strong agonists of the Mu receptor.

Weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol are also agonists of the Mu receptor but also act as agonists at the Delta and Kappa receptors

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10
Q

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Promethazine?

A

Promethazine is type of antihistamine that acts on the H1 receptor.

In pregnancy NICE guidelines advise oral promethazine or oral cyclizine should be used as 1st line drug management of nausea and vomitting. Both are H1 antagonists.

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11
Q

How does Ranitidine work?

A

GORD

Reflux Medication

The Proton Pump of gastric parietal cells has 3 main receptors (histamine, gastrin and acetylcholine) that if agonised will stimulate proton (H+ or ‘acid’) release. H2 is the most significant receptor and stimulation of this pathway is thought to account for around 85% of proton pump stimulation. Ranitidine and other H2 antagonists block this receptor reducing proton pump stimulation

PPIs work by blocking the whole proton pump from working.

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12
Q

A fetus is noted to be small for gestational age (SGA) on the 20 week scan. One of the mothers medications is stopped at this time. Follow up scans reveal renal dysgenesis. Which of the below medications was stopped?

A

This is IUGR and renal dysgenesis. They are side effects of ACE inhibitor and ARB (angiotensin II receptor blocker) use in pregnancy.

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13
Q

What is the maximum dose of lidocaine (infiltrated as local anaesthetic) that should be used on a 70kg woman who is 12 weeks pregnant?

A

1% lidocaine =1g/100mL or 10mg/mL
Max dose for a 70kg patient is 210mg (3mg/kg)

21mL 1% plain lignocaine

Lidocaine

Lidocaine Key Points

Blocks fast voltage gated sodium channels
Anti-arrhythmic
Half life 2 hours
Safe to use in pregnancy
Hepatic metabolism
Max dose is 3mg/kg (7mg/kg with adrenaline)
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14
Q

A women is to undergo elective C-section. According to RCOG guidance antenatal steroids should be offered to which group undergoing elective C-section?

A

Antenatal Corticosteroids Key Points

Why use antenatal steroids?

Antenatal steroids are associated with a significant reduction in rates of neonatal death, RDS and intraventricular haemorrhage and are safe for the mother

What does ‘a course’ mean?

Betamethasone 12 mg IM x 2 doses or dexamethasone 6 mg IM x 4 doses are the steroids of choice to enhance lung maturation

Who should be offered antenatal corticosteroids?

All women at risk of iatrogenic or spontaneous preterm birth up to 34+6 weeks gestation.
All women for whom an elective c-section is planned prior to 38+6 weeks gestation

When should antenatal steroids be given?

A single course should be offered to women between 24+0 and 34+6 weeks gestation who are at risk of preterm birth

When are antenatal steroids most effective?

Risk of neonatal death reduces if steroid given within first 24 hours and therefore should still be given even if delivery is expected within this time
Most effective in reducing RDS in pregnancies that deliver 24 hours after and up to 7 days after administration of the second dose of antenatal corticosteroids
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15
Q

Warfarin embryopathy is typically the result of the mother taking warfarin during which stage of pregnancy?

A

6-12 weeks
Warfarin

RCOG updated its Greentop guidelines on thromboprophylaxis in 2015.

Warfarin has a very limited role in pregnancy and as such there is limited scope for questioning but you should be familiar with the following

Key Points

People on warfarin should be converted to LMWH during pregnancy
Very few exceptions to above. Mechanical heart valves main one
Warfarin causes a characteristic warfarin embryopathy in 5% of foetuses exposed to warfarin between 6 and 12 weeks gestation
Warfarin is safe to use when breastfeeding
Women converted to LMWH from warfarin during pregnancy should be changed back 5-7 days after delivery
Also remember you may also be asked how warfarin works! It inhibits vitamin K dependent clotting factors (10,9,7,2)

Warfarin Embryopathy

    Hypoplasia of nasal bridge
    Congenital heart defects
    Ventriculomegaly
    Agenesis of the corpus callosum
    Stippled epiphyses
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16
Q

Which of the following best describes Clomiphene?

A

Clomiphene has both estrogen agonist and antagonist properties. It is often referred to as a Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM).

It binds to estrogen receptors throughout the body. It is the inhibition of estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus that is thought to account for its effect on ovulation induction. Here, by inhibiting the negative feedback effect of estrogen on gonadotropin release there is up-regulation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.

GnRH stimulates pituitary gonadotrophins that drive ovarian follicular activity.

17
Q

Fentanyl is approximately how many times more potent than morphine?

A

Fentanyl is approximately 80 to 100 times more potent than morphine

18
Q

Which of the following antifungals mechanism of action involves inhibition of squalene epoxidase?

A

Terbinafine (and amorolfine) act by inhibiting squalene epoxidase. Squalene epoxidase is an enzyme that catalyses the conversion of squalene to lanosterol. Lanosterol is a precursor for Ergosterol (a vital component in fungal cell walls).

19
Q

You are asked to prescribe a course of antenatal steroids for a patient undergoing planned C-section at 37+0 weeks. Which of the following is the most appropriate regime according to RCOG guidelines

A

Dexamethasone 6 mg given IM x 4 doses or Betamethasone 12 mg IM x 2 doses are the most studied regimes and these are the ones advised by the RCOG.

Corticosteroids

Antenatal Corticosteroids Key Points

Why use antenatal steroids?

Antenatal steroids are associated with a significant reduction in rates of neonatal death, RDS and intraventricular haemorrhage and are safe for the mother

What does ‘a course’ mean?

Betamethasone 12 mg IM x 2 doses or dexamethasone 6 mg IM x 4 doses are the steroids of choice to enhance lung maturation

Who should be offered antenatal corticosteroids?

All women at risk of iatrogenic or spontaneous preterm birth up to 34+6 weeks gestation.
All women for whom an elective c-section is planned prior to 38+6 weeks gestation

When should antenatal steroids be given?

A single course should be offered to women between 24+0 and 34+6 weeks gestation who are at risk of preterm birth

When are antenatal steroids most effective?

Risk of neonatal death reduces if steroid given within first 24 hours and therefore should still be given even if delivery is expected within this time
Most effective in reducing RDS in pregnancies that deliver 24 hours after and up to 7 days after administration of the second dose of antenatal corticosteroids
20
Q

You are asked to infiltrate a patients perineum with local anaesthetic prior to episiotomy. What is the maximum dose of lidocaine (without adrenaline)?

A

Lidocaine

Lidocaine Key Points

Blocks fast voltage gated sodium channels
Anti-arrhythmic
Half life 2 hours
Safe to use in pregnancy
Hepatic metabolism
Max dose is 3mg/kg (7mg/kg with adrenaline)
21
Q

Clomiphene is thought to trigger ovulation by acting as antagonising oestrogen receptors in which part of the body?

A

Clomiphene

Clomiphene has both estrogen agonist and antagonist properties. It is often referred to as a Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM).

It binds to estrogen receptors throughout the body. It is the inhibition of estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus that is thought to account for its effect on ovulation induction. Here, by inhibiting the negative feedback effect of estrogen on gonadotropin release there is up-regulation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.

GnRH stimulates pituitary gonadotrophins that drive ovarian follicular activity.

22
Q

A patient is stated on Warfarin due to a Pulmonary Embolism. What is the target INR?

A

With regard to warfarin therapy there are only 3 target ranges that are commonly used:

2. 0 - 3.0 Most common used for DVT,PE & tissue valve replacement treatment
2. 5 - 3.5 Used in mechanical mitral valve replacement & some aortic mech.valve replacements
3. 0 - 4.0 Used in mechanical valve replacement where PE has occurred despite anticoagulation at lower range
23
Q

Which of the following drugs is a Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) inhibitor?

A
Tetrahydrofolate and its derivatives are essential for purine and thymidylate synthesis, which are important for cell proliferation and cell growth.
Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) enzyme catalyses the conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate.

In humans deficiency of DHFR can lead to folate deficiency and megaloblastic anaemia.

The 2 most commonly used DHFR inhibitors are:

Trimethoprim
Methotrexate. 

Some antimalarials are also DHFR inhibitors.

24
Q

Warfarin inhibits which clotting factors?

A

Warfarin inhibits the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors 10,9,7 and 2

25
Q

Tamoxifen is which of the following?

A

Tamoxifen (like clomiphene) is a Selective Estragen Receptor Modulator (SERM)

Tamoxifen

Tamoxifen Key Points

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator
Contraindicated in patients with personal or family history of VTE
Increases risk of endometrial cancer
Should be avoided in pregnancy
Licensed for use in oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer & anovulatory infertility
26
Q

Which of the following antifungals mechanism of action involves binding to fungal cell membrane phospholipids and subsequent inhibition of ergosterol biosynthesis?

A

The Imidazole group of antifungals work via binding to phospholipids in the fungal cell wall and inhibiting the biosynthesis of Ergosterol and other sterols. The change in cell permeability leads to cell death. Examples of imidazoles include Clotrimazole, Ketoconazole Miconazole and Fluconazole.

Nystatin and Amphotericin B are a different class of anti fungal (polyenes) but they also work via inhibition of Ergosterol.

Ergosterol is unique to fungal cell walls, toxic effects of these antifungals in humans are due to binding to some mammalian sterols.

27
Q

Yellow staining of teeth in babies is caused by the mother taking which of the following during pregnancy?

A

Lymecycline

Yellow tooth staining is a side effect of tetracycline antibiotic use during pregnancy

28
Q

A 66 year old patient sees you in clinic. She has delayed a prolapse repair for 12 months in order to get good blood pressure control. Her BP in clinic is 132/84. Her medication list is below:

    Lansoprazole 15mg OD
    Amlodipine 10mg OD
    Ramipril 5mg OD
    Atorvastatin 10mg OD
    Cetirizine 10mg OD PRN 

She reports her lower legs have been swollen for the past 3 months and thinks its one of the medications. Which of her medications is most likely to cause this:

A

Ans: amlodipine

Cardiac Medications

Below are some common and important side effects encountered with commonly used medications. The lists are not exhaustive but should highlight side effects that you may be asked about in the exam.

ACE inhibitors eg Ramipril

    Dry Cough (10%)
    Joint aches
    Postural hypotension (infrequent)
    Renal Impairment (rare)
    Angio-odema (rare)

NOTE: Avoid in Pregnancy as skull defects, oligohydramnios and altered neonatal BP and renal blood flow reported.

Loop Diuretics eg Furosemide

    Postural Hypotension
    Hyponatraemia
    Hypokalaemia
    Hypocalcaemia and Hypomagnesaemia
    Gastrointestinal upset

Calcium Channel Blockers eg Amlodipine

Peripheral oedema
Abdominal pain
Nausea
Fatigue

NOTE The BNF advises most calcium channel blockers be avoided in pregnancy as they may inhibit labour and some have shown toxicity in animal studies

Beta Blockers eg labetalol

Bronchospasm
Cold extremities
Alteration in glycaemic control
Bradycardia

NOTE Labetalol has not been shown to be harmful except possibly in the 1st trimester. Other beta blockers may cause IUGR

29
Q

Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following?

A

Tamoxifen is an oestrogen antagonist in breast tissue but it acts as a partial oestrogen agonist on the endometrium increasing the risk of hyperplasia and has been linked to endometrial cancer.

Tamoxifen improves bone density in post-menopausal women.
It is an off license treatment for gynaecomastia.
Reduced lactation is a potential side effect of Tamoxifen.

Tamoxifen

Tamoxifen Key Points

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator
Contraindicated in patients with personal or family history of VTE
Increases risk of endometrial cancer
Should be avoided in pregnancy
Licensed for use in oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer & anovulatory infertility
30
Q

Lidocaine works by blocking which of the following ion channels?

A

Lidocaine Key Points

Blocks fast voltage gated sodium channels
Anti-arrhythmic
Half life 2 hours
Safe to use in pregnancy
Hepatic metabolism
Max dose is 3mg/kg (7mg/kg with adrenaline)
31
Q

You are called to review a baby with cyanosis when feeding immediately after birth. Subsequent investigation and imaging reveals choanal atresia. Upon questioning the mother reveals she had been getting repeat prescriptions from her GP in Poland without her UK GPs’ or your knowledge. Which of the following medication was most likely to cause this?

A

Carbimazole

Choanal atresia
GIT defects
Omphalocoele
Aplasia cutis
32
Q

An 18 year old patient currently 9 weeks pregnant. This is her 1st pregnancy. She has been suffering with nausea and vomitting that has failed to respond to dietary changes and acupuncture. She wants to start medical therapy. Which of the following would be the LEAST appropriate choice of antiemetic?

A

Cyclizine and Promethazine are 1st line in pregnancy according to NICE. Oral metoclopramide, prochlorperazine and ondansetron should be considered if there is inadequate response to initial treatment.

Metoclopramide however is not licensed for people under 20 years old and is known to cause oculogyric crisis, especially in young adults. It would therefore not be an appropriate choice for this patient.

If using metoclopramide treatment should be limited to 5 days

33
Q

A 66 year old patient sees you in clinic. She has delayed a prolapse repair for 12 months in order to get good blood pressure control. Her BP in clinic is 132/84. Her medication list is below:

    Lansoprazole 15mg OD
    Amlodipine 10mg OD
    Ramipril 5mg OD
    Atorvastatin 10mg OD
    Cetirizine 10mg OD PRN 

She reports having had a dry cough for the past 3 months and thinks its one of the medications. Which of her medications is most likely to cause this:

A

Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor.

ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) converts Angiotensin 1 to Angiotensin 2 and also plays a role in Bradykinin breakdown.

Treatment with an ACE inhibitor causes Bradykinin levels to rise and this can result in a dry cough. About 1 in 10 people treated with an ACEi will develop a cough.

34
Q

The RCOG greentop guideline number 7 outlines the appropriate use and benefits of antenatal corticosteroids. What are the benefits to the mother?

A

No known maternal benefits

Antenatal Corticosteroids Key Points

Why use antenatal steroids?

Antenatal steroids are associated with a significant reduction in rates of neonatal death, RDS and intraventricular haemorrhage and are safe for the mother

What does ‘a course’ mean?

Betamethasone 12 mg IM x 2 doses or dexamethasone 6 mg IM x 4 doses are the steroids of choice to enhance lung maturation

Who should be offered antenatal corticosteroids?

All women at risk of iatrogenic or spontaneous preterm birth up to 34+6 weeks gestation.
All women for whom an elective c-section is planned prior to 38+6 weeks gestation

When should antenatal steroids be given?

A single course should be offered to women between 24+0 and 34+6 weeks gestation who are at risk of preterm birth

When are antenatal steroids most effective?

Risk of neonatal death reduces if steroid given within first 24 hours and therefore should still be given even if delivery is expected within this time
Most effective in reducing RDS in pregnancies that deliver 24 hours after and up to 7 days after administration of the second dose of antenatal corticosteroids
35
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for heroin (diamorphine) overdose?

A

Opoid overdose is typically treated using naloxone. Doctors should be aware that Naloxone is short acting. This is particularly important if the patient has respiratory depression as they may respond to treatment then relapse as the initial dose wears off.

Flumazenil is used for benzodiazepine overdose.
Parvolex (N-acetyl cysteine) is used for paracetamol overdose.
Protamine can be used for Heparin reversal.
Octiplex can be used for Warfarin reversal.