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C130 MQF > MQF > Flashcards

MQF Flashcards

1
Q

A WARNING is an?

A

Operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed

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2
Q

A CAUTION is an?

A

Operating procedure, tecnique etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed

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3
Q

A NOTE is an?

A

Operating procedure, tecnique etc., that is considered essential to emphasize

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4
Q

Maximum airspeed if encountering severe turbulence is?

A

181 KIAS

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5
Q

Maximum landing gear and landing light extended speeds are?

A

168 KIAS and 250 KIAS

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6
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for 50% flaps?

A

183 KIAS

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7
Q

Maximum airspeed with inoperative windshield anti-ice protection below 10,000 ft MSL is?

A

187 KIAS

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8
Q

Turning with the brakes locked on the inside of the turn is prohibited. While turning the airplane, avoid braking to a stop, since damage may result. If use of the above is required during a turn:

A

Record it in the appropriat maintenance forms

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9
Q

The maximum tire speed (knots groundspeed) for the nosewheel is?

A

139

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10
Q

Which of the following must be operational prior to entering RVSM airspace?

A

Both A and B are correct (a: one autopilot, including alt hold; b: IFF, including mode C)

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11
Q

Static propeller feathering is limited to ___ cycles (feather to reverse and back to feather). Feathering is limited to ___ commands (fire handle pulled or prop control feather). If this is exceeded the propeller gearbox must be drained before the engine can be started.

A

2, 4

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12
Q

If aircraft is not pointed into the wind +/- 45 degrees and the crosswind is greater than 15 knots but less than 35 knots:

A

Do not not exceed 2,500 HP until airplane speed is greater than 35 knots

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13
Q

The APU start light should extinguish ____?

A

At approximately 50 % RPM

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14
Q

What is the APU starter duty cycle?

A

1 minute on and 4 minutes off

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15
Q

What are the limits for fuel unbalance between wings (excluding AUX tanks)?

A

1,500 lbs

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16
Q

What are the limits for fuel unbalance between a symmetrical pair of tanks (main or external)?

A

1,000 lbs

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17
Q

APU maximum continous EGT is ___ degrees C?

A

680

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18
Q

APU bleed air can be used during flight? True or false?

A

FALSE

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19
Q

The APU must be on speed and warmed up a minimum of ___ before applying a bleed air load.

A

1 minute

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20
Q

If APU EGT exceeds ___ degrees C for longer than ___ seconds, the APU OVERTEMP ACAWS alerts the crew to reduce APU loading.

A

710, 3 seconds

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21
Q

Do not operate with the autopilot engaged

A

All of the above (during ils coupled approaches below 200’/100’ AGL or when flying over the localizer transmitter; at or below 500’ AGL for non-approach ops; in RVSM airspace, unless the AP, in ALT HOLD mode, is able to maintain ALT +/- 65’)

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22
Q

What color denotes an extreme range on engine instrument indications?

A

Red

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23
Q

What color(s) on engine instrument indicators indicates the Normal Operating Range?

A

Green or White

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24
Q

During ground operations, limit horsepower to ___ with oil temperature between 0 and 45 degrees C

A

1,000 HP

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25
Q

The engine starter duty cycle is?

A

70 seconds on, 60 seconds off for 5 cycles, then a 20 minute cooling time is required

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26
Q

The minimum batteris voltage allowed for takeoff is ___ VDC. Replace battery if voltage is less than ___?

A

24, 22

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27
Q

Operating the aircraft in severe icing conditions or in freezing rain/drizzle is not recommended and should be avoided (true/false)?

A

TRUE

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28
Q

For a circling approach, maintain approach speed until established on final approach (true/false)?

A

TRUE

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29
Q

Engine starter cutout occurs at approximately ___ amd the starter light extinguishes. At this point continous ignition also terminates

A

65% NG

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30
Q

Normal hydraulic operating pressure should be indicated ___?

A

Within 30 seconds after NP is on speed

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31
Q

The engine ice protection system must be on for taxi and takeoff when operating in visible moisture with an ambient temperature of ___ degrees C or less

A

10

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32
Q

Entry and exit through the paratroop doors with engines running is prohibited in which condition

A

Engines in HOTEL mode and flaps extended

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33
Q

Descents below 5000’ with the wing and empennage ice protection systems operating require a minimum power setting on 2 engines of ___ horsepower per engine?

A

750 HP

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34
Q

The wing/empennage ice protection system should not be operated in ___ mode except during approach and landing

A

Anti-ice

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35
Q

Before shutdown, the engines are normally shifted to LSGI and operated for ___ before shutdown to more gradually cool engine components and prolong engine life

A

2 minutes

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36
Q

The engines can be safely shutdown from normal ground idle, if required (true/false)?

A

TRUE

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37
Q

For all engine shutdowns in flight, pull the FIRE handle and then place the ENGINE START switch to STOP, except for crew actions concerning UTIL SYS PRESS HI and BSTR SYS PRESS HI ACAWS (true/false)?

A

TRUE

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38
Q

For approaches when icing conditions have been encountered within 6 minutes of landing, increase approach and threshold speeds with 100% flaps by ___ knots, approach and threshold speeds with 50% flaps by ___ knots and approach and speeds with 0% flaps by ___ knots.

A

6, 10, 20

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39
Q

Fuel tank quantity indicators are reliable even in conditions other than level flight (true/false)?

A

FALSE

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40
Q

When performing cross-ship manifold priming, ensure FUEL PRESS indicator reads ___ PSI when the No 1 MAIN transfer switch is placed to FROM and the X SHIP switch is opened. Check FUEL PRESS indicator decreases approximately PSI when the No 4 MAIN transfer switch is placed to TO.

A

28 to 40, 20

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41
Q

What temperature would you use cold weather procedures?

A

32 degrees F/0 degrees C and below

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42
Q

The recommended fuel management for approach and full stop landing is?

A

Tank-to-engine operation

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43
Q

During the power up checklist, if battery voltage is between ___ and ___ VDC, recharge or replace the battery and rerun battery test

A

22, 24

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44
Q

The APU may be operating during application of de-icing fluid (true/false)?

A

FALSE

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45
Q

Low fuel state operations are defined as those operations that result in the airplane landing at destination with less than ___ lbs of fuel

A

6,000

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46
Q

When the airplane will land with less than ___ pounds of fuel, inform ATC that a FUEL EMERGENCY exists

A

3,000

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47
Q

The APU may shut down without an associated ACAWS message, If this occurs:

A

Maintenance is required before a restart is attempted!

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48
Q

When utilizing cold weather procedures, operate the engines in HOTEL mode until engine oil temperature is above ___ degrees C and rising

A

15

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49
Q

What is the minimum amount of fuel in the No 2 main tank that will normally allow the APU to start and run without setting the No 2 engine start switch to RUN?

A

2,000 lbs

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50
Q

It is permitted to select AUTONAV when only one of the CNI-MUs show the correct position (true/false)?

A

FALSE

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51
Q

Above what temperature would you use Hot Weather procedures?

A

95 degrees F/35 degrees C

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52
Q

After any full anti-skid braking operation at gross weights above ___ lbs, approximate ground cooling time is ___ minutes.

A

130,000, 65

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53
Q

If hot brakes are suspected, the area on both sides of the wheel will be cleared of personnel and equipment for at least ___ ft. If conditions require personnel to be close to any overheated wheel, approach shoul be from ___.

A

300, fore or aft

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54
Q

Peak temperatures occur in the brake assembly from approximately ___ minutes and in the wheel and tire assembly from approximately ___ minutes after a maximum braking operation.

A

1 to 5 minutes, 20 to 30

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55
Q

When using a ground check point to check VOR/TACAN accuracy, the bearing pointer/CDI error cannot exceed +/- ___ degrees and the TACAN distance must be within ___ NM or ___ percent of the distance to the facility.

A

4, 1/2, 3

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56
Q

Do not illuminate the landing lights for more than ___ seconds unless sufficient air flow exists from engine operation or taxi

A

10

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57
Q

Turn off the NESA system if

A

All of the above (electrical arcing is observed in any of the panels; the panels are excessively hot to touch; any of the panels containing thermistors are not heating)

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58
Q

Do not commence an engine start if MGT is above ___ degrees C. Motor the engine, if necessary.

A

175

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59
Q

Before attempting a ground engine restart, wait ___ seconds after NG reaches zero (0) to enable a successful test of the NG independent over-speed protection circuit

A

30

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60
Q

During a ground engine start, if fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition, motor the engine for at least ___

A

30 seconds

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61
Q

During a normal ground engine start, if an automatic shutdown occurs

A

Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP

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62
Q

Minimum bleed air pressure for sustaining an engine start is ___ PSI. A momentary drop below this is acceptable when the starter valve opens

A

22

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63
Q

Which of the following is not an ACAWS condition requiring the FIRE handle to be pulled and the ENGINE START switch to be placed to STOP during an engine start?

A

ENG 1 (2, 3, 4) FLAMEOUT caution

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64
Q

During ground starts, the FADEC automatically shuts down the engine start sequence for

A

Both A and C are correct (flameout; RPM stagnation)

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65
Q

Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP if no NG is present ___ seconds after placing the ENGINE START switch to START

A

10

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66
Q

The ENGINE START switch must be placed to STOP if no indication of engine oil pressure is indicated by ENG 1(2, 3, or 4) NO OIL PRESS (C) ACAWS message (true/false)

A

TRUE

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67
Q

The fire handle must be pulled if no indication of propeller gearbox oil pressure is indicated by GBOX 1(2, 3, or 4) NO OIL PRESS (C) ACAWS message (true/false)?

A

FALSE

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68
Q

During ground engine starts, pull the fire handle and place the ENGINE START switch to STOP if MGT rapidly approaches or exceeds ___

A

807 degrees C

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69
Q

If torching (visible fire in the tailpipe for more than a few seconds), sparks in the exhaust or excessive smoke occurs during engine start

A

Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP

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70
Q

If OAT is above ___ degrees F and the wing/empennage and vertical tail boot ice protection test must be repeated, wait at least ___ minutes to prevent overheating the vertical tail

A

70, 10

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71
Q

If the stick pusher test is attempted ___ consecutive times, allow a minimum of ___ minutes of cooling time before attempting another test

A

5, 5

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72
Q

The last autopilot engaged determines the flight director source (t/f)?

A

TRUE

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73
Q

The propeller overspeed governor test may be attempted with oil temperature greater than or equal to ___ degrees C, If te test fails, retest when oil temperature is greater than or equal to ___ degrees C.

A

45, 60

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74
Q

The propeller overspeed governor test may fail up to ___ consecutive time(s) before maintenance action is required

A

2

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75
Q

Turning the ___ switches on with 3 or more power levers at FLT IDLE or greater can result in the stick pusher automatically turning off

A

Pitot heat

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76
Q

The maximum crosswind compononent for takeoff is ___ at weights above 105,000 lbs. At lower weights the limit varies linearly down to 23 knots at 80,000 lbs

A

35

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77
Q

Vobs + 25 but not less than ___ KIAS is a conservative speed which approximates FUSS

A

135

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78
Q

Maximum recommended airspeed (Vh) must not be exceeded in greater than ___ turbulence or structural damage may occur

A

light

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79
Q

If required, wing/empennage anti-icing in anti-ice more should be turned on at least ___ minutes before lowering the gear to prevent the X-WIND LIMITED ACAWS message being displayed if icing is detected?

A

2

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80
Q

The normal flaps setting for landing is ___ %

A

100

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81
Q

At the first indication of directional control difficulties during 4 engine revers thrust, immediately return all power levers to the ___ position until the affected engine can be identified

A

Ground idle

82
Q

If one BETA indication does not illuminate after the power levers are brought to ground idle and no other associated ACAWS occurs, there is a remote possibility that directional control difficulties will occur as airspeed slows. If necessary for directional control:

A

The engine fire handle for the engine without BETA should be pulled.

83
Q

During landing, do not bring the power levers below FLT IDLE at speeds between ____ KTAS. This can result in prop overspeed, damage to components, and tripping of AC generators

A

155-145

84
Q

During a crosswind landing if continous BANK ANGLE or SIDE SLIP alerts occur or LEFT or RIGHT RUDDER altert occurs, crosswind may be too high to land safely (t/f)

A

TRUE

85
Q

To preclude excessive side loads on the landing gear, avoid crab angles over ___ degrees during landings

A

5

86
Q

For a WINDSHEAR alert during takeoff or approach, or GCAS PULL UP alert:

A

Botch A and C should be performed (Set TAKEOFF power and level the wings; Pitch immediately to 15 degrees nose up, then adjust pitch to maintain approximately 10 knots above the stall warning caret)

87
Q

To prevent an abnormal shutdown of the EGI, delay turning off AC power for approximately ___ seconds or until ECB 499 indicate open

A

35

88
Q

If planning an airstart, a feathered propeller may windmill with no oil supplied (fire handle pulled) at less then 3% NP for a total of ___ or greater than 3% for a total of ___-

A

6 hours, 2 hours

89
Q

If planning to attempt an airstart do not allow the propeller to windmill with oil supplied (FIRE handle in) at greater than ___ for more than ___

A

3%, 5 minutes

90
Q

During takeoff, if engine failure occurs after reaching refusal speed set ___

A

2-5 degrees of bank into the operating engines

91
Q

During two-engine operation, the FLAPS lever must be placed to at least ___ when below ___.

A

20%, 210 KIAS

92
Q

On a two-engine inoperative go-around, do not raise the FLAPS lever above ___ because low boost will be set and there may be insufficient rudder control available for full two engine power

A

20%

93
Q

If both tires of the right main landing gear are flat

A

Land on the left side of the runway

94
Q

When fuel must be dumped in a controlled environment

A

All of the above (do not dump fuel less than 5,000 ft above the terrain; Do not dump in a circular pattern; ensure the crossfeed valves are closed to prevent emptying the main tanks completely)

95
Q

During manual flap extension, is there protection against asymmetrical flaps operation?

A

No

96
Q

When either the CREW DOOR OPEN or RAMP OPEN PRESSURIZED ACAWS message is displayed, the pilot or copilot will immediately notify what?

A

Crew and passengers to fast seat belts

97
Q

An asterisk (*) item at the end of an ACAWS message indicates

A

Other associated components may have been affected by the failure

98
Q

During an airstart, the FADEC will not allow the starter to engage or the start sequence to begin if NG is ___ %

A

Greater than 29

99
Q

During the airstart procedure, allow up to __ after core (NG) comes on speed for onset of propeller (NP) rotation

A

2 minutes

100
Q

Select the correct statement concerning AC bus power sources

A

If only engine driven generators #1, #2 and #4 are on line, #1 will power the LH AC bus, #2 will power the essential AC bus, and #4 will poer the main and RH AC buses

101
Q

A main tank boost pump is turned on by

A

Rotating the appropriate ENGINE START switch to the RUN position

102
Q

Fuel transfer pumps are turned on by placing the transfer switch to

A

FROM

103
Q

What is the primary measure of engine power?

A

HP

104
Q

The takeoff performance rating at temperatures up to 39.4 degrees celsius (103 degrees F) at sea level with no bleed air is approximately ___ horsepower

A

4700

105
Q

Below 15,500 feet with the other engines running normally, when the FADEC detects autofeather criteria for an inboard engine it will

A

Autofeather after a two-second delay

106
Q

Above 15,500 feet, if the FADEC detects autofeather criteria it will

A

Both A and B (Autofeather an outboard propeller without delay; Windmill an inboard propeller at 100% RPM)

107
Q

If the oil cooler flaps switches fail, how can you operate the system?

A

Through the CNI-MU oil cooler flaps soft panel

108
Q

The fire and overheat detection system (F/ODS) monitors for indication of ____

A

Fire, overheat and smoke

109
Q

How many smoke detectors are there on the airplane and where are they?

A

4, 3 in the cargo compartment and 1 in the underdeck avionics compartment

110
Q

The engine FIRE handle when pulled:

A

Both A and B are correct (Closes the firewall fuel shutoff valve; Signals the FADECs tp feather the propeller and shutdown the engine)

111
Q

Manifold bleed air pressure can be read on the

A

Bleed air control panel

112
Q

Fuel for the APU is routed directly from the ___ fuel tank

A

number 2 main

113
Q

When the APU fire handle is pulled the following occurs

A

All of the above (APU door closes as RPM decreases to approximately 18% RPM; control power to the APU start circuit is interrupted; Fire extinguisher system directional flow valve is positioned)

114
Q

The booster hydraulic system supplies hydraulic power to

A

A portion of the flight control boost system

115
Q 
Identify the system powered by the Utility hydraulic system
A. nose landing gear emergency extension
B. Flaps
C. Emergency Brakes
D. Ramp and door
A

Flaps

116
Q 
Identify the system powered by the AUX hydraulic system
A. Flight controls
B. Nosewheel steering
C. Emergency brakes
D. Both B and C are correct
A

Emergency brakes

117
Q

The engine driven hydraulic pumps are provided with internal control mechanism to vary output volume with system demand, and to control pressure to maintain approximately ___ PSI

A

3,000

118
Q

When the flaps are extended more than approximately ___ percent and the landing gear is not down and locked, the landing gear warning audio will sound. It cannot be silenced until the landing gear is down and locked or the flaps are repositioned to less than ___ percent

A

70, 70

119
Q

Which of the following conditions automatically shut off both the air conditioning units?

A

Both A and B are correct (during an engine start, an ENGINE START switch is placed to START; During the wing/empennage and vertical tail boot ice protection test)

120
Q

How is the underfloor heat turned on?

A

By placing the underfloor switch to the HEAT/FAN position

121
Q

In automatic mode, the aircraft should not begin to pressurize until

A

The power levers are advanced above flight idle

122
Q

Which of the following Ice Protection systems are not triggered by the ide detectors?

A

Pitot heat

123
Q

In the anti-icing mode, the zone control valves operate the same as the deice mode except the vertical tail zone control valves remain open continously (t/f)

A

TRUE

124
Q

What method of ice protection is used on the propellers?

A

Electric heat

125
Q

The oxygen system uses diluter-demand automatic pressure regulators and operates at an indicated pressure of ___ in a static system under a no-flow condition. Under a continous breathing condition the pressure should indicate ___

A

270-455 PSI, 270-340 PSI

126
Q

On a C-130J model the oxygen system uses ___ oxygen and the manual shutoff valve is located on the ___ side of the cargo compartment forward bulkhead

A

Liquid, Right

127
Q

The C-130J has ___ portable oxygen bottles

A

4

128
Q

The pilot is manually flying the aircraft level at 10,000 ft MSL. The HUD and PFD altitudes reference displays read 5,000 ft. Select the correct statement below

A

If the pilot presses the ALT SEL knob, the reference barometric altitude on the PFDs and HUDs will synchronize to the current 10,000 ft altitude.

129
Q

The altimeter setting reads “29.98 in HG” on the pilot’s PFD. The pilot is advised by Approach control that the altimeter setting is 1013 MB. Select the correct statement below

A

The pilot uses the AMU PFD page to select millibars. Next he presses the BARO SET knob to set the altimeter to 1013 MB, or he can rotate the BARO SET knob to achieve the correct setting

130
Q

The pilot presses the A/T ON (autothrottle) button. Select the correct statement

A

Autothrottles will engage and the IAS will be automatically set to the aircraft’s current indicated airspeed

131
Q

What will happen if both mission computers fail?

A

BIU back-up mode

132
Q

If one Mission Computer (MC) is lost, what is the reduction in capability?

A

None

133
Q

Select the correct statement
A. A new ACAWS message appears in inverse video for ten seconds
B. ACAWS audio is broadcast over the cargo compartment ICS
C. An ACAWS warning message can be stored
D. If a Caution and a Warning are activated simultaneously, both aural alerts are sounded simultaneously

A

A new ACAWS message appears in inverse video for ten seconds

134
Q

What are the alert levels for ACAWS?

A

Special alerts, Warnings, Cautions, Advisories

135
Q

Which interphone transmit setting ensures that transmissions are heard by all crewmembers regardless of the audio source selection on their ICS control panel?

A

CALL

136
Q

What radios may be operated from the Get Home Control panel?

A

UHF 1 and VHF 1

137
Q

Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the CAT 2 sub-mode of the HUD?

A

All of the above are correct (Both ILS are tuned to the same frequency; Localizer is selected as CDI source for both HUDs; HUD control panels CAT 2 button is pressed)

138
Q

GCAS alerts are given higher priority than TCAS alerts (t/f)?

A

TRUE

139
Q

TCAS is designed never to issue resolution advisories that would put the airplane outside the performance envelope (t/f)?

A

FALSE

140
Q

Which statements regarding TCAS are correct?

A

The limits of TCAS detection are 40Nm off the nose, 15 Nm off the sides, and 12 Nm on the tail

141
Q

TCAS resolution advisories are displayed ___

A

Both B and C are correct (As a “fly to” box on the HUD with corner tics; Using a tape type VVI in color with the fly-to area in green on the PFD)

142
Q

The target symbol for a traffic advisory (TA) is a ___

A

Yellow-filled circle

143
Q

In the weather mode of the radar, turbulence information is not available

A

For range scales greater than 80 Nm

144
Q

Excessive preciptation, the most severe rate, is depicted as ___ on the color weather radar

A

Magenta

145
Q

Turbulence is depicted as ___ in the weather radar mode

A

White

146
Q

Windshear hazard is processed and displayed for up to ___ NM of range coverage

A

5

147
Q

Select the correct statement concerning the common cursor

A

Provides capability to do all the above simultaneously (provides capability to locate a particular position on the full channel NAV-radar display; … digital map display; … HUD)

148
Q

The common cursor modes available via the cursor control panel include all the following except

A

Aircraft

149
Q

Pulling the computer cursor switch to its first detent and releasing causes the cursor mode to change to

A

Computer Cursor

150
Q

Normal bleed includes all but

A

Wing and empennage ice protection

151
Q

Closing the nacelle shutoff valves will not provide bleed off torque schedules. For bleed off engine performance:

A

Do all of the above (Turn both air conditioners off; Set the UNDERFLOOR switch to FAN; Set the WING/EMP ice protection switch to OFF)

152
Q

In preparation for takeoff, the tower reports the wind with a 6 knot gust increment. You should add

A

6 knots to the rotation speed

153
Q

Increase the rotation speed due to crosswind only when evaluating maximum effort takeoff procedures (t/f)

A

TRUE

154
Q

A WET runway condition (ICAO Medium) corresponds to a RCR of ___

A

12

155
Q

An ICY runway condition (ICAO Poor) corresponds to a RCR of ___

A

5

156
Q

Apply __% of headwind component to brake limits and takeoff and landing distances and __% of headwind component for climb out flight path calculations

A

50 / 0

157
Q

Apply __% of tailwind components to brake limits, takeoff and landing distances, and climbout flight path obstacle distances

A

150

158
Q

Always increase rotation speed, obstacle clearance speed, approach speed, threshold speed, and touchdown speed by the full gust increment not to exceed 10 knots (t/f)

A

TRUE

159
Q

For a safe takeoff, the runway available must be ___ than the critical field length

A

A or B (equal to; greater than)

160
Q

___ is based on runway available and is defined as the maximum speed to which the airplane can accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available, with two-engines (symmetrical power) in revers, one engine in ground idle, one propeller feathered, and maximum anti-skid braking.

A

Refusal speed (Vr)

161
Q

The Automatic Thrust Control System (ATCS) decreases which of the following?

A

Both B and C (One-Engine-Inoperative Air Minimum Control Speed (Vmca); Ground Minimum Control Speed (Vmcg))

162
Q

Ground Minimum Control Speed is based on the following conditions and restrictions except

A

Nosewheel steering

163
Q

Adjusted maximum effort rotation speed is scheduled to ensure that liftoff speed is greater than

A

Both A and B (One-engine-inoperative air minimum control speed; Three engine minimum liftoff speed)

164
Q

All the following conditions determine one-engine-inoperative air minimum control speed except

A

A bank angle greater or equal to 5 degrees towards the failed engine

165
Q

Ground minimum control speed is not considered for both the maximum effort and adjusted maximum effort speed schedules (t/f)

A

TRUE

166
Q

For normal operations, planning a takeoff and climb-out over an obstacle should be done on the basis of ___ performances

A

3-engine

167
Q

Cruise ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continous power and best climb speed is ___ fpm

A

300

168
Q

Service ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continous power and best climb speed is ___ fpm

A

100

169
Q

Basic assumptions for the landing distance charts include a 1-second allowance for distance traveled durng transition from touchdown to taxi attitude and maximum anti-skid braking and power selection achieved upon reaching taxi attitude (t/f)

A

TRUE

170
Q

Even short term deviations outside of +/- ___ feet of the active flight plan entereded cruise altitude will cause misleading time navigation indications. Either returning the airplane to within programmed flight path parameters or changing the entered cruise altitude to reflect actual flight conditions will restore accurate time navigation predictions

A

2,150

171
Q

There is a limit of ___ waypoint spaces allotted for the flight plan and the alternate flight plan including the primary and alternate destinations

A

60

172
Q

Which of the following occurs when the MSTR AV ON function on the POWER UP page is initally selected?

A

VHF and UHF radios are turned on

173
Q

A VNAV profile on the LEGS page using an altitude suffix of “C” defines

A

A or B (Fixed start of climb (SOC); Fixed bottom of descent (BOD))

174
Q

The FROM/TO page allows for entry of two reference points and a selected groundspeed, and computes the bearing, distance, and time between the two points. To find bearing distance from your present to the DIK VORTAC, enter:

A

B or C (/DIK; PPOS/DIK)

175
Q

The Pilot in Command (PIC)

A

All of the above are correct (…)

176
Q

Basic crew flight duty period (FDP) is limited to ___ hours; ___ hours when both autopilots are inoperative or neither autopilot can be coupled to the flight director

A

16 / 12

177
Q

The minimum enroute crew rest period is __ hours before legal for alert or scheduled report time when self alerting

A

12

178
Q

A PIC who accepts an aircraft with failed or degraded equipment/systems is not committed to subsequent operations with the same failures/degradations (t/f)

A

TRUE

179
Q

The ___ will operate the landing gear and the ___ will operate the flaps

A

Right seat pilot, PM

180
Q

Any crewmember seeing a deviation of heading (+/-___ degrees), airspeed (+/-__ knots), or altitude (+/-___ feet), and no attempt being made to correct the deviation will immediately notify the PF

A

10, 10, 100

181
Q

All of the following are mandatory advisory calls for the pilot monitoring excepty

A

All of the above are mandatory advisory calls for the pilot monitoring

182
Q

If all stabilized non-tactical approach criteria are not met by 1000 feet AGL (IMC), the PM will ___. if not all stabilized Non-tactical approach criteria are not met by 500 feet AGL (IMC/VMC), the PM will ___

A

Announce the deviation, announce “unstable” go around

183
Q

Limit operations on snow, slush, and water covered runways to an RSC of 10 (t/f)

A

TRUE

184
Q

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding maximum effort operations

A

For peace-time, do not use runways less than 3,500 feet long unless waived by the MAJCOM/DO

185
Q

Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstruction by at least ___ ft

A

25

186
Q

With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ___ ft

A

10

187
Q

During reverse taxi operations, stop no less than ___ feet from an obstruction evein of using a wing walker

A

25

188
Q

If no RVR readout is available for the departure runway, visibility must be reported to be ___. When weather is below approach and landing minimums (ceiling or visibility) ___.

A

½ mile, a takeoff alternate is required

189
Q

File two alternates when

A

All of the above (…)

190
Q

Flights into areas of forecast or reported ___ turbulence are prohibited. Do not fly into an area of known or forecast ___ mountain wave turbulence.

A

Severe, moderate or greater

191
Q

Do not takeoff under conditions of freezing rain or freezing drizzle. Flight into areas of forecast or reported severe icing is prohibited (t/f)

A

TRUE

192
Q

At FL230 and above, aviod thunderstorms by at least ___. Below FL230, avoid thunderstorms by at least ___ . For tactical low-level operations, avoid thunderstorms by at least ___

A

20 nm, 10 nm, 5 nm

193
Q

When an aircrew assumes a preflighted spare or quick turn, a ___ will be performed

A

thorough visual inspection

194
Q

When configuring for CAT 1 operations, both pilots will verify that the INAV position alert 1 is set to 4 miles and the INAV positions alert 2 is set to 8 miles in the PROGRESS page (t/f)

A

TRUE

195
Q

When operating under CAT 1 navigation procedures, the non-controlling INAV solution must be placed to INS before losing NAVAID reception (t/f)

A

TRUE

196
Q

The C-130J is certified for RNP-10 and BRNAV/RNP-5 airspace, but with operational time restrictions (t/f)

A

TRUE

197
Q

Minimum runway length for 50% flap flight idle touch-and-go landing is ___ feet. Minimum runway length for all other touch-and-go landings is ___ feet

A

5,000 / 6,000

198
Q

What is the minimum amount of oxygen required to be on board?

A

5.0 liters

199
Q

Plan a ___ fuel reserve at destination or alternate (when an alternate is required). Calculate an additional ___ of contingency fuel. Reserve and contingency fuel will be computed using consumption rates providing maximum endurance at ___ feet MSL

A

45 minutes, 15 minutes, 10,000

200
Q

For oceanic corssings, routes will be planned at 300 KTAS or 290 KTAS, optimized for gross weight (t/f)

A

TRUE

C130 MQF (1 decks)

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