MQF Flashcards
1
Q
In cases where GEN 3 is the only remaining source of generator poiwer, the IPP will not shutdown automatically.
A
True
2
Q
An FCS/ENG reset____
A
A and C
3
Q
Refueling following total radio failure should only be undertaken:
A
B. When refuleing is essential due to the critical nature of the mission.
4
Q
After motoring the engine:
A
C. allow engine N2 RPM to reach 0
5
Q
AOA is limited to _____ degrees during a flyup. Thus , vely low G may be experienced during low speed recoveris and an initial unload may result if starting beyond____ degrees AOA. The control system commands MAX thrust in these cases.
A
A. 20
6
Q
If GEN FAIL 1&@ ICAW asert, GEN (ICC) 3 provides emegency electrical power to suppor additional electrical loads on the IPP, the system requests additional engine bleed pressure.
A
TRUE
7
Q
To signal that you must descend to the lowest practical altitude at night without a radio, the pilot:
A
C. Makes a rapid vertical movement with a flashlight
8
Q
The following are true with a BLOWN TIRE:
A
E. A, B, and C only
9
Q
thunderstorm penetration airspeed is ____ KCAS or optimum cruise airspeed, whichever is lower.
A
C. 300
10
Q
During a controllability check fly no slower than:
A
D. 50% of stick and rudder deflection required to maintain balanced flight.
11
Q
For FCS SURFACE DEGD maintain ____ KCAS.
A
C. 350-400
12
Q
Up to ___ routes and ___ regions can be part of the NAV data load and downloaded from the PMD.
A
C. 3,3
13
Q
In the case of a FLAMEOUT, the engine run switch should be positioned to OFF____
A
A. Only when committed to a flameout landing
14
Q
A visual engagement is defined as merges occuring within () NM of each other.
A
b. 5
15
Q
Boom Stowed, fully retracted is the visual signal for:
A
C. tanker refueling system inoperative
16
Q
After successful arresting gear engagement:
A
D. All the above
17
Q
The brakes will hold the aircraft stationary up to approximately ____ percent ETR on a dry surface. Above ___ percent ETR, the tires may skid.
A
C. 35
18
Q
With a FUEL LEAK and not within gliding distance of a suitable landing field:
A
D. all the above
19
Q
When AOA is greater than 26 degrees and the pedals are deflected more than 20 percent, CLAW tranistions into a high yaw rate commande mode.
A
true
20
Q
the in-flight signal to indicate an electrical problem is clench fist and hold at top of canopy, then hold up ____ fingers. the recieving pilot acknowledges the signal by repeating it.
A
B. 2
21
Q
At night with no assist aircraft available , the distressed aircraft with electrical failure flies _____ feet over tower/mobile cotrol while checking for other aircraft.At the far en of the runway pull up into a wide downwind leg and proceed with an approach and landing while watching tower control for signals.
A
C.1000
22
Q
If OCF recovery procedures are unsuccessful and the aircraft is still out of control. Initiate ejection above ____ feet AGL
A
D. 6000
23
Q
HYD DEGD A is an indication of
A
C. HYD A hydraulic pump failure
24
Q
ENG FADEC HOT with FUEL HOT is an indicator that both FADECs may overheat
A
True
25
Maximum g allowed with any externally mounted GBU-49 is
C. 5G
26
Which of the following has (have) fire suppression___?
E. C and D
27
The following is/are true concerning flight briefings/flights
D. all the above
28
The middle tic mark on the AOA bracket represents _____/
C. Optimum landing AOA
29
In the vent of an overrun by fighters, the receivers will pass ____ feet below the tanker to ensure positive vertical separation. the reciever(s) will decelerate and maintain air refueling heading.
A. 1000
30
touchdown with AOA less than ____ degrees is prohibited. a 3-point touchdown at high speed with AOA less than this may result in unrecoverable putch oscillations, resulting in significant airframe damage or loss of jet.
B. 9
31
The _____ primary function is to provide access to OFP load files, theaer data, aircraft specific data and application unique persistent data.
A. AMD
32
Audio volumes are saved by conducting:
C. CNI reset
33
your wingman is NORDO and signals that he must land on your wing. You acknowledgte with an OK signal. Hen then raises 2 fingers. this signal indicates.
B. Increase approach speed from 130 to 150
34
If you go lost wingman
D. all the above
35
To recieve a green light from tower for landing clearance without a radio and assist aircraft, fly along the side of the landing runway at____ feet above field elevation, rocking wings until reaching the end of the runway. Then turn to downwind and check tower.
B. 1000
36
if HYD HOT ICAW has asserted and the GMMP is providing emergency power.
A. GMMP failure is imminent
37
for CNVTR HOT caution or warning ICAWs, open NLG doors within
B. 2 minutes
38
When are formation landings authorized?
D. Never
39
For a reciever directed turn-on, the receivers airborn radar equipemnt will be the primary means to accompllish therejoin with the A/A TACAN as a backup. Ground radar asistance should be utilized to the max. receivers will maintain ____ feet below tanker base altitude until visual contact is made with the tankers.
b. 1000
40
Max range glide is acheived at approx ____ degrees AOA with the engine flamed out.
C. 6
41
Radar capabilities during the Heavy maneuver state are limited to ____.
D. A and C
42
NWS is limited to 10 degrees on landing roll above 40 KGS. if a skid exceeds 10 degrees, the nosewheel is destabilizing and counters the efforts to align the nose with the runwy using differential braking.
True
43
Perform a Bowed Rotor Start when starting withing 6 hours of an abnormal shutdown. T or F, Starting the engine then shutting down after two minutes at idle is an abnormal shutdown.
False
44
cockpit fogging may occur on throttle advance during takeoff and under normal circumstances should be expected to clear withing a few seconds. the likelihood of fog formation and be reduced by
D. all the above
45
An aircraft information at night signal a series of repeated intermittent flashes from a flaghlight, then assumes the wing position. This indicates
A. Aircraft emergency, land as soon as possible
46
For a Bowed Rotor STart, the 2 minute motoring timer begins after:
B. N2 has started to increase in RPM
47
Minimum pattern and touchdown spacing between landing aircraft is ___ for similar aircraft, ___ fordissimilar fighter aircraft or as directed by MAJCOM or the landing base, Whichever is higher
B. 3000 feet, 6000 feet
48
the F-35A speedbrakes aare located:
D. the F-35 has no dedicated speed brake
49
Minimum airspeed for low level navigation is _____ KIAS, minimum airspeed during low altitude offensive or defensive is ____ KIAS.
C. 300; 350
50
Boom in trail (Fully retracted) is the visual signal for ____.
A. Fuel offload complete
51
While flying in the precontact/contact position, you lose sight of the tanker. you should simultaneoously reduce airspeed _____ knots and descend ____ below the refueling altitude. hold refueling heading and after _____ seconds resume air refueling airspeed.
A. 10; 500;30
51
Expect the IPP to shut down automatically if a BLD LEAK IPP asserts (Unless Gen 3 is providing emergency power).
True
51
the aircraft antiskid system is adaptive. Without brake system degredations, it is more effective than the pilot. Use antiskid braking (brakinggreated than 50 percent pedal) on an icy runway rather than a light braking.
True
51
There are _____ boost pumps located in the feed box
B. 3
52
Upon Cold Iron with only the IPP running, after selecting IPP OFF then AUTO, if the IPP continures to run, the pilot should.
C. wait for the normal IPP cool down
53
Max wind speed allowable for canopy operation is ___ knots
C. 50
54
WEather criteria for a join-up underneath a ceiling is ___ ft ceiling/___ miles vis (day) and ____ foot ceiling/ ___ miles vis (night).
B. 1,500/3; 3,000/5
55
HYD FAIL DUAL is an indication that ____.
C. Total loss of HYD systems A and B
56
The normal cool down period for the IPP is ____ min.
B. Two
57
for CNVTR HOT emergencies, the ILS will be unavailable
True
58
Loading anything in SMS LIVE other than what is physically on the aircraft (except a LAU in place of a BRU or loading zero rounds live to eneable SMS train) is prohibited.
True
59
After successful cable engagement, be prepared to use wheel brakes to control rollback
False
60
Under AFMAN 11-214 IMC rules, inexperienced pilots may use up to ____ degrees of pitch while fighting in IMC.
A. 15
61
EPS FAIL 270 V is an indication that an electrical failure has occurred and the 270 VDC battery is discharging
True
62
A THROTTLE JAMMED may mean the throttle is frozen. Which of the following is available with a THROTTLE JAMMED
D. A and C only
63
Hand at top of canopy, palm down, fingers extended and joing, move hand forward and down is the visual signal for.
A. Descend to lower altitude
64
Minimum altitude for aircraft engaged in offensive and defensive air-to-air maneuvering is ____ feet AGL or pilot minimums, whichever is higher.
A. 300
65
In Air-to-Air LIMITED maneuvering, the engagement may continue until.
D. All of the above
66
the hook requires ____ to remain extended fully down.
D. A and B
67
_____ is displayed on the CNI status page when the CNI subsystem has experienced a serious malfunction that prevents it from operating.
B. INOP
68
if COM FAULT 02 displays on the SFD it may be cleared with an IBIT. IF unsuccessful:
D. accomplish cold iron
69
A bowed rotor start is defined as motoring the engine for ___ minutes. the engine must then be started within ___ minutes
A. 2, 20
70
MAximum speed with CATM-9X or AIM-9X loaded is:
C. 1.44M
71
the night visual signal of _____hold flashlight parallel with canopy rail and send a steady light while making a straight line from rear toward front of canopy indicates?
A. Lead change
72
HYD DEG B requires the use of alternate gear extention to lower the landing gear.
False
73
maximum crosswind component (dry), including gusts, is _____ knots for T/O and landing.
B. 25
74
Fuel dump continues until
C. FUEL FEED TANK asserts
75
if an FCS/ENG RESET is accomplished with AIR DATA FAIL and airspeed above ____ KCAS or ____ mach, loss of aircraft4 control may result.
B. 400, .9
76
with FUEL FEED TANK which of the following are true?
D. All of the above
77
in the event for GPS and INS failure, the SFD heading can be expected to drift at a rate of ____ deg/hour
B. 3
78
Maximum range flight is achieved at approximately ___ deg AOA with the engine running.
B. 4
79
Under AFMAN 11-214 IMC rules, when may experienced crew execute outs, aborts, exits and surface to air threat reactions with 135 degrees of bank in IMC
B. only with OG approval
80
HIgh gain NWS reverts to low gain NWS when wheel speed exceeds ____
A. 20
81
after landing with BATT FAIL 28V, the canopy should be opened prior to engine shutdown.
True
82
Nonstandard formation are those operating under the following conditions.
D. Both A and B
83
GEAR ALT EXTEND will have ____ effect if all 3 LG are out of the wheel wells.
A. no beneficial
84
if the BOS bottle lever is not ON, the indication to the pilot will be _____.
A. BOS DISABLED ICAW
85
if feasible, minimize maneuvering while troubleshooting cautions and warnings, and for FCS/ENG RESET. Min maneuvering is defined as minimum sideslip, airspeed less than ___ KCAS and 0.9 Mach, ! G and AOA less than ___
C 400, 15
86
Minimum taxi interval is ___ feet staggered and ___ in trail
B. 150, 300
87
AOA basic limit is ____ degrees in powered approach mode.
A. 20
88
with certain electical system failures resulting in radio loss, the BUR may be available to the pilot, but might not be automatically assigned.
True
89
Which of the following are the only approved cables for F-35 ARREST CABLE
D. A and B only
90
for RUDDER FAIL DUAL or STAB FAIL, maintain a minimum of ____ until ready to land.
B. 300
91
The flight controls can be expected to operate without cooling for
D. 30 minutes
92
the wet runway crosswind limit including gusts is ____ knts
C. 20
93
upon cold iron with only the IPP running, select IPP EMER OFF to interrupt the two minute IPP cool down.
false
94
fire supressing is available for the IPP bay and IPP exhaust bay, and is delayed on the ground until ____ seconds after a fire is detected. Fire detection is available ____ second after IPP start is commanded.
C 10, 10
95
during low temperature conditions, when turning on the battery, the 28 volt BATT LO indicator on the PTMS panel may illuminate with a steady or flashing light. if illuminated
B. The IPP switch must be rotated to START within 30 seconds or else the aircraft powers down.
96
aerobraking to less than 100 KGS can cause loss of directional control under high crosswind conditions.
True
97
the hook is able to be fully-stowed by the pilot by pushing the hook button.
False
98
When unable to maintain the requisite weather for VMC operations:
D. A and C above
99
The F-35 is approach cat E, however, Approach cat D mins may be used for straight in approaches to an emergency/divert field if.
D. All the above
100
The FADECS are cooled by:
D. Fuel
101
Certain CNI errors that are indicated by inverse video on the CNI page require the pilot to hands on " acknowledge" the error prior to attempting to resolve it.
True
102
If RUDDER FAIL DUAL asserts, minimum airspeed-gear up and before ready to land is:
B 300 KCAS
103
When A-A SLP is selected, which of the following are true:
D: All of the above
104
Following engine start with power, cooling available, and authentication, the radar automatically begins initialization and BIT
True
105
the recommended ejection airspeed is ___ KCAS
B. 250
106
IF ground communication is lost with maintenance personnel or cannot be established prior to start or if ICAW tones are lost, accomplish an ACE RESET
True
107
If ENG COMM FAIL asserts while airborne and ETR is greater than 100 percent, engine respense is commanded to the last communicated value above MIL for ___ minutes, then resets to MIL
D. 1
108
EPS DEGD may cause the IPP to fail
True
109
Powered apprach mode of the CLAW can be entered by ____
C. A or B
110
Before initiating ejection, sit erect, ensure visor is lowered, close eyes tightly, and:
D: all the above
111
Aerodynamic braking can be flown between ____ and ____ degrees AOA/ altitude.
D. 9, 15
112
fuel dump will not shut off at BINGO, unless the FUEL CUTOFF has been set to the same value as BINGO
TRue
113
On landing, NEW engages automatically in low gain mode at ____ KGS
145
114
Tankers and receivers will include altimeter settings with the RV initial call if other than 29.92 is used.
True
115
Use ___ seconds takeoff spacing when carrying live air to ground ordnance
C. 20
116
If the weather is below 1500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibliltiy, following takeoff each aircraft/element will cimb on takeoff heading____ before initiating any turns, except when departure instructions specifically preclude compliance.
C to 1000 ft AGL
117
the CABIN PRESS ICAW asserts when the cabin altitude is greater than 25K or is off schedule
True
118
for an approach end ARREST CABLE, touch down at least ____ feet in front of the cable.
A. 500
119
No more than ___ aircraft may participate in the same visual engagement. for multirole aircraft, a max of 4 similar aircraft may participate in an unlimited maneuvering visual engagement.
C. 8
120
AGCAS commands are limited to 0.5g less than the G limits to account for possible overshoots. Aiding pilot inputs are not necessary and may result in transient exceedance of G limits and possible overload.
True
121
With fuel DUMP selected, fuel will dump from all tanks except.
D. A and C only
121
If taxiing out of an aircraft shelter, ETR should be set to 15 percent for ___ minutes to clear any possible contaminates, to prevent CO accumulation, and to ensure sufficient PTMS pressure is available at the OBOGS inlet supply.
C. 10
122
The voltage converters are located in:
C. Nose landing gear well
122
LImit aerobraking on landing rollout.
D. B and C only
122
ENG START ASSIST will be present with the ____ and GEN 3 is generating sufficient power to assist engine rotation.
D. A and C only
123
the primary display for control of search volume AZ and EL, search technique to search volume assignment and enable/disable radar active air search is___
A. SRCH page
124
The PIC will not exceed 250 kts below 10,000 MSL. Exceeding 250 below 10,000 is only permitted when
D. All of the above
125
In-flight signal to indicate an engine problem is to clench fist and hold at top of canopy then hold up 5 fingers. the receiving pilot acknowledges the signal by repeating it.
True
126
After giving a fuel check, a dissimilar aircraft pilot responds by holding up 3 fingers. this indicates the dissimilar aircraft has ____ of fuel remaining.
C. 30-39 minutes
127
if IPP FAIL does not clear, the following should be accomplished for cooling. Land as soon as practical and/or CABIN PRESSURE switch should be set to ____.
C. RAM
128
If the tanker turn the lower rotating beacon ON and/or flashes the receiver director lights, you should
C. Breakaway
129
The inflight signal to indicate a fuel problem is clench fist and hold at the top of the canopy, then hold up ___ fingers. the receiving pilot acknowledges the signal by repeating it.
C. 3
130
ENG THRUST LO indicates engine thrust has degraded __ percent or more.
B. 7
131
the F-35 has two ESG and on ISG
False
132
Which of the following is correct initial lost wingman actions for a two-ship or three- ship on the Outside of turn.
B. Reverse the direction of turn using 15 degrees of bank for 15 seconds
133
with the IPP operating in the burn mode___>
B. the IPP may overheat and fail within 10 min
134
Per AFMAN 11-214 once a KNOCK IT OFF is called, only flight leads will acknowledge on the primary frequency. flight members will acknowledge the call on the interflight freq.
True
135
Specifically with OG commander approval, AFMAN 11-214 allows experienced pilots to execute Surface to air threat reactions in iMC with ____ degrees of bank and ____ degrees of pitch for a maximum of 3 heading reversals not to exceed 90 degrees.
C 135, 30
136
During trail formation, basic instrument fluing is the first priority and will not be sacrificed while performing secondary trail tasks, the pilot will
D. All the above
137
after ACE reset, it is necessary to reset PTT assignments and set proper communication frequencies
True
138
GEN OIL FAIL 1 &2 caution ICAW indicates
B. ESG oil pressure is low or completely lost
139
Regulated BOS oxygen with full bottle lasts approximately ____ to 30 min. under than optimal conditions less than ___ mino f backup oxygen may be available with the full bottle
C. 15
140
Specifically with operations group commander approval. AFMAN 11-214 allows experienced aircrew to execute outs, abort , and exits in IMC with 135 deg of bank and 30 deg of pitch for no more than ___ deg of turn
C. 180
141
Rapid lateral stick inputs when maneuvering above the 80 percent design limit max exceed aircraft overload G limits in roll
True
142
BUR GUARD MON is displayed in yellow invers video immediately below the CNI active List. this indicates ____
B. BUR Guard monitor capability is unavailable and has experienced failure.
143
with CNVTR FAIL DUAL, once the 20 vdc battery depleates, the LG cannot be extended and the brakes and hook are not functional.
True
144
The following are true with an ENG FADEC FAIL
D. All of the above
145
The night visual signal of making a large circular motion with a flashlight at the escort aircraft indicates
Radio inop
146
The standard signal given by the boom operator to clear the receiver to the astern position is.
C. Lowering the boom
147
For CNVTR FAIL DUAL, the 28 VDC battery can be expected to drain within
c. 6 min
148
the HOT BRAKES danger area is located laterally on either side fo the aircraft +/- 45 deg out to
C. 300 feet
149
Placing the cockpit BATT switch to the TOW position with external power applied to the aircraft with the IPP, or engine running may cause damage to electrical components.
True
150
While landing on a non-dry runway, to avoid setting up a significant downwind drift
D. All of the above
151
Emergency fuel will be declared whenever it becomes apparent that an aircraft may land at the intended destination or alternate, with less than___
D. 1000
152
the engine is controlled by ___ FADECS
A. 2
153
Normal cooling envelope best air cooling accurs at ___ KCAS and ___ feet MSL
300, 25,000
154
F-35s may not transition any block unless
D. all the above
155
While landing on non-dry runway, if the aircraft enters a small or mod skid.
D. all the above
156
As AOA increases from 20 degrees to __ degress, the CLAW blend from low AOA to the high AOA design
A. 26
157
Minimum fuel will be declared whenever it becomes apparent that an aircraft may land at the intended destination or alternate with less than ____.
B. 1600
158
Engage the barricade in a 3 point attitude, as close to the centerline as possible, brakes off, with the aircraft aligned with the runway
True
159
Lowering the LG for ___ seconds then retracting it, may improve handling qualities with FCS DATA FAIL present.
B. 6
160
at planned roation speed, rotate toward ___ deg of pitch attitude. this attitude should be held until reaching climb airspeed.
B 12-15
161
cycling the taxi light may result in undesirable VMC degrades and CNI Resets
True
162
Under AFMAN 11-214 IMC Rules, experienced pilots may use up to ____ degrees of pitch while fighting in IMC
B. 30
163
if ENG CTRL FAIL asserts while airborne, the engine may be stuck in a ___
D. all of the above
164
With LEF LOCK, the good LEF will move to match the failed LEF and both should indicate failed on the FCS page.
True
165
The F-35 is approach Cat
E
166
With CNVTR FAIL DUAL, 28 VDC batt depletion is expected in approx
B: 6 min
167
Although the control system attemps to limit overload exposure, it is pilot responsibility to limit lateral stick inputs when beyond 80% design G limit so as to remain within the symmetric G regime
True
168
The BUR is a virtual radio whose waveforms are constructed by the CNI racks
False
169
Gear alt extend is required if the pilot attempts to lower the gear during a CNVTR FAIL DUAL
True
170
Minimum TOLD requirements on MDC are
D all the above
Accel check speed, rot, tos, tod, rs, norm/heavy ldg dist.
171
Likely follow-on failure to GEN OIL 1&2 is
D. GEN FAIL 1&2
172
In the event of a flameout only waypoints 0-19 are available to pilot. Additionally, TACAN and ILS are inop
True
173
After successful cable engagement, be prepared to use Wheel brakes to control rollback
false
174
For certain PTMS emergencies with cooling failures, ILS is lost with CABIN PRESSURE in NORM. Selecting RAM may allow recovery of ILS functions on the CNI page
True
175
EPS DEGD may cause power interruptions which could cause certain systems to restart, such as the CNI.
True
176
the AFMAN 11-214 IMC fight floor is defined as:
C. 5,000 ft AGL or the MSA whichever is higher
177
The CNI subsystem can be commanded to stop the current configuration and perform a system reset by selecting RESET option. When the CNI is reset, the system restarts in the ____ configuration.
B. Current (last commanded)
178
Normal pressurization at 10,000 feet MSL should yield a cockpit pressure altitude of approx
C. 8000 ft
179
During an IPP FAIL, RAM air cooling is adequate to support flight and PAO-cooled avionics.
False
180
Do not taxi during snow and/or icy conditions until the taci route and runway have been checked for safe conditions. In this case, taxi on the centerline with a minimum of ___ feet spacing.
C. 300
181
For a departure end ARREST CABLE, lower hook at least _____ feet prior to the cable.
A. 800
182
During a breakaway the receiver pilot should
D. All the above
Disconnect, descend, drop aft
183
Signal acknowledgement of a night NORDO distress signal is the observing pilot pointing a flashlight at the signaling aircraft and:
B. Making a steady light
184
With an OBOGS FAIL ICAW in flight, BOS ON will___.
B. Automatically assert if oxygen is inadequate and cabin altitude is greater than 10,000'
185
Which of the following si/are landing restrictions
D. All the above
landing roll greater tahn 80%
raised web barrier
rcr below what is allowed in FSD
186
GEN HOT 1&2 is an indication that the ____ is overheated.
B. ESG
187
Once the canopy is down, the switch must be held in the DOWN position for 6 seconds to ensure the hooks completely disengage. the following is (are) also true
D. B & C
Lock engaged power removed from canopy switch
switch need not be held in up only down
188
For a normal shutdown, the throttle must be idle for a minimum of 5 minutes following any engine operation at greater than ___ percent ETR
B. 15
189
The visual signal of "close fist and hold to top of canopy with thumb extended down then move arm up and down rapidly"
C. I must land immediately
190
HYD COLDmay assert if sys hydraulic fluid temps are below -11 deg C. VS BIT can still pass with HYD COLD present. if HYD COLD is still present when ready for T/o, cycle the ___ to warm up the hyd fluid until HYD COLD extinguishes.
C. WBDs
191
Under AFMAN 11-214 IMC Rules, experienced pilots may use up to ___ deg of bank while fighting in IMC.
D. 90
192
When maneuvering below 5,000 AGL, the max dive angle is the lesser of ___ deg or 1% of AGL alt.
C. 45
193
The night visual signal of repeated intermittent flashed with a flashlight at the escort aircraft, followed by two flashes at the top of the canopy, then assume the wing position indicates:
C. Aircraft emergency (land as soon as possible) approach speed 150 KIAS
194
In the F-35 approach cat D mins may be used for straight-in approaches to an emer/div field if no Cat E mins are published for the airfield. The final approach speed must not exceed __ KIAS and the missed approach must not be flown faster than ___ KTAS.
B 165,255
195
Perform a Bowed Rotar STart when starting between ___ min and ___ hours after any normal engine shutdown
C. 20, 6
196
Boom in train (extended) is the visual signal for
A. Cleared contact
197
If the WBD are opened asymmetrically, and AOA exceeds ___ deg, the opposite door will be opened to make the WBD symmetric
D. 15
198
FCS POWER LIMIT warning is an indication that the flight controls are operating on ____
D. A and B
Batt fill in and less that designed gen power
199
if a BLD LEAK ENG or BLD LEAK IPP asserts and clears you may continue the mission.
False
200
The __ failure is a single point failure which result in a total loss of audio, to include BUR
D. ACE
201
VS BIT NO GO advisory will be shown prior to running a VS BIT. the following is also true.
D. All the above
if successful no icaws
flight controls move in test
if ETR varies more than 1% above idle during BIT it may fail
202
Greater than 50 pounds stick pitch command with the paddle switch engaged
D: A and B
Triggers dangerous condition tone
Overrides the G limit
203
if NWS pulls to one side, it can be trimmed to center using the RUDDER trim switch between ___ KGS
D. 20-30
204
If departing the runway at high speed
C. Consider ejecting
205
the LITES page controls aircraft lights operation. During Before Taxi operations, if the LITES page selections are greyed out, the ____ needs to be cycled to recover lights operation.
C. DMC-H
206
When unable to maintain the req weather for VMC operation.
B. Aircrew will conduct operations above the IMC flight flood
207
Immediate actions for BLD LEAK ENG are to:
B. BOS to BOS and rapid descend below 17,000
208
In night/IMC a max of ___ aircraft will fliy in close formation on each wing of the tanker, and additional aircraft/ elements will fly in a 1- 1.5 NM trail.
C. 3
209
While taxiing, some EPs can result in high idle thrust causing excessive taxi speed. control speed with smooth and continuous gentle breaking.
True
210
While landing on an non-dry runway, if the aircraft enters a large skid/slide (nose 10 deg off)
D. all the above
Paddle NWS off
Differential braking
Crosswinds greater than 10 kts NWS needs to be reselected.
211
Airspeed greater than mach 1.4 with ETR greater than ___ is limited to ___ seconds cumulative per flight
B. 100% , 90
212
the IPP danger area is located approx ___ ft behind the IPP
A. 15
213
Controlled ejection altitude is
A. 2000
214
I both generators are lost with a BATT FAIL 270V, GEN 3 will not come on fast enough to prevent loss of control.
True
215
Use of external power will operate the battery heaters and improve the performance of the 270 Vdc and 28 Vdc batteries.
True
216
Under AFMAN 11-214 IMC Rules, inexperienced pilots may use up to __ deg of bank while fighting in IMC.
D. 90
217
Min weather for air to su9rface weapons employment below a ceiling is.
B. 1550 AGL or at least 500 ft above highest portion of the weapons delivery pattern, whichever is higher.
218
IPP FAIL will assert shortly after CNVTR FIAL DUAL due to loss of cooling; and without converter power, RAM cooling will not be available because the ram valve will not be powered.
True
219
A safety observer in a chase aircraft will maneuver with nose/tail clearance out to a range of ___ ft, from which he/she can effectively clear and/or provide assistance.
D. 1000
220
Normal recovery fuel at the FAF or initial is ___ lbs
C. 2000
221
THe following is true about CNI activities displayed in the ready list in yellow ____.
B. activity can start, but will impact active list
222
To prevent possible un-commanded throttle lever movement during accel/decel, set the throttle friction knob in the___ position.
D 6 oclock
223
with FUEL CRITICAL present, feed tank quantity is less than ___ pounds.
B. 1000
224
The system has the ability to place ___ air tracks on the a-a shoot list and ___ surface tracks on the A-S shoot list.
B 8, 16
225
for FCS SURFACE FAIL maintain a minimum of ___ KCAS until ready to land.
A. 250
226
Which of the following chase formation directives apply to the F-35?
D. All the above
Any pilot may fly chase for emer
all chase events may be flown by IP/FE
Qual pilots may chase for simulated inst flight and hung procedures
227
Which of the following EMER/ICAW RULES are true?
D. A &B
Checklist coolingenvelope and best emer ram cooling 300 KCAS at 17,000W
228
When rejoining on a tanker in reduced visibility, receivers with an airborne intercept radar must
E. All the above
MAintain lock insind 1/2 nm
continue closure no more thant 10 kts
maintain 500 ft vert sep
close to no closer than 1500ft until vis
229
Under AFMAN 11-214, when may inexperienced aircrew execute outs, aborts, exits, and S to A threat reactions with 135 deg of bank in IMC?
C. Never
230
The thrustometer is usually ___ in color, but will turn __ or ___ to match the status of the worst case out of limits engine parameter.
C. Green, Yellow, red
231
Damage to the HMD and abnormal displays may occur if the HMD is connected to the QDC when the HMD ONAD rotary switch is on and 270 VDc is present
True
232
For any flight control related ICAW where a surface is lost or the aircraft is operating on reduced power, the max recommended crosswind is ___ knots. For crosswinds above this accomplish a approach end ARREST CABLE
C. 15
233
BOS LOT cauition means ___
D. Either A or C
BOS quanitty is less than 100 liters
The BOST Battery has low voltage
234
Following FLAMEOUT, the IPP automatically transitions to burn mode. Successful transition is indicated by ___
E. All the above
IPP COMBUST ON
stead BURN on FAB
STadly IPP combust light
235
Minimum altitude for low approaches are
D. All the above
300 ft for chase during an EP
100 ft for form low approach
50 ft for IP/FE chase
236
the no radiation (NO RAD/Ceiling fan) symbol is displayed
D. All the above
whenever the radar is commanded to sil or WOW
During BIT
At startup when ICP started load radar files
237
The inflight signal to indicate a hydraulic problem is clench fist and hold at top of canopy then hold up ___ finger. Receiving pilot acknowledges by repeating it.
A. 1
238
if FIRE WPN BAY L asserts while airborns the first checklist step is
A. open the WBDs
239
For lost wingman procedures, the flight leader should acknowledge the lost wingman radio call and when appropriate transmit
D. All the above
Alt
airspeed
heading
240
When crossing uneven terrain maintain positive G and do not exceed ___ degrees of bank below 5,000 AGL
D. 135
241
a HYD DEGD ICAW indicated a pump is failing or has failed.
True
242
Perform a Bowed Rotor Start when starting within 6 hours of an abnormal shutdown. T or F: starting the engine then shutting down immediately after a 17 percent ETR run-up is an abnormal shutdown.
True
