MQF Flashcards
In cases where GEN 3 is the only remaining source of generator poiwer, the IPP will not shutdown automatically.
True
An FCS/ENG reset____
A and C
Refueling following total radio failure should only be undertaken:
B. When refuleing is essential due to the critical nature of the mission.
After motoring the engine:
C. allow engine N2 RPM to reach 0
AOA is limited to _____ degrees during a flyup. Thus , vely low G may be experienced during low speed recoveris and an initial unload may result if starting beyond____ degrees AOA. The control system commands MAX thrust in these cases.
A. 20
If GEN FAIL 1&@ ICAW asert, GEN (ICC) 3 provides emegency electrical power to suppor additional electrical loads on the IPP, the system requests additional engine bleed pressure.
TRUE
To signal that you must descend to the lowest practical altitude at night without a radio, the pilot:
C. Makes a rapid vertical movement with a flashlight
The following are true with a BLOWN TIRE:
E. A, B, and C only
thunderstorm penetration airspeed is ____ KCAS or optimum cruise airspeed, whichever is lower.
C. 300
During a controllability check fly no slower than:
D. 50% of stick and rudder deflection required to maintain balanced flight.
For FCS SURFACE DEGD maintain ____ KCAS.
C. 350-400
Up to ___ routes and ___ regions can be part of the NAV data load and downloaded from the PMD.
C. 3,3
In the case of a FLAMEOUT, the engine run switch should be positioned to OFF____
A. Only when committed to a flameout landing
A visual engagement is defined as merges occuring within () NM of each other.
b. 5
Boom Stowed, fully retracted is the visual signal for:
C. tanker refueling system inoperative
After successful arresting gear engagement:
D. All the above
The brakes will hold the aircraft stationary up to approximately ____ percent ETR on a dry surface. Above ___ percent ETR, the tires may skid.
C. 35
With a FUEL LEAK and not within gliding distance of a suitable landing field:
D. all the above
When AOA is greater than 26 degrees and the pedals are deflected more than 20 percent, CLAW tranistions into a high yaw rate commande mode.
true
the in-flight signal to indicate an electrical problem is clench fist and hold at top of canopy, then hold up ____ fingers. the recieving pilot acknowledges the signal by repeating it.
B. 2
At night with no assist aircraft available , the distressed aircraft with electrical failure flies _____ feet over tower/mobile cotrol while checking for other aircraft.At the far en of the runway pull up into a wide downwind leg and proceed with an approach and landing while watching tower control for signals.
C.1000
If OCF recovery procedures are unsuccessful and the aircraft is still out of control. Initiate ejection above ____ feet AGL
D. 6000
HYD DEGD A is an indication of
C. HYD A hydraulic pump failure
ENG FADEC HOT with FUEL HOT is an indicator that both FADECs may overheat
True
Maximum g allowed with any externally mounted GBU-49 is
C. 5G
Which of the following has (have) fire suppression___?
E. C and D
The following is/are true concerning flight briefings/flights
D. all the above
The middle tic mark on the AOA bracket represents _____/
C. Optimum landing AOA
In the vent of an overrun by fighters, the receivers will pass ____ feet below the tanker to ensure positive vertical separation. the reciever(s) will decelerate and maintain air refueling heading.
A. 1000
touchdown with AOA less than ____ degrees is prohibited. a 3-point touchdown at high speed with AOA less than this may result in unrecoverable putch oscillations, resulting in significant airframe damage or loss of jet.
B. 9
The _____ primary function is to provide access to OFP load files, theaer data, aircraft specific data and application unique persistent data.
A. AMD
Audio volumes are saved by conducting:
C. CNI reset
your wingman is NORDO and signals that he must land on your wing. You acknowledgte with an OK signal. Hen then raises 2 fingers. this signal indicates.
B. Increase approach speed from 130 to 150
If you go lost wingman
D. all the above
To recieve a green light from tower for landing clearance without a radio and assist aircraft, fly along the side of the landing runway at____ feet above field elevation, rocking wings until reaching the end of the runway. Then turn to downwind and check tower.
B. 1000
if HYD HOT ICAW has asserted and the GMMP is providing emergency power.
A. GMMP failure is imminent
for CNVTR HOT caution or warning ICAWs, open NLG doors within
B. 2 minutes
When are formation landings authorized?
D. Never
For a reciever directed turn-on, the receivers airborn radar equipemnt will be the primary means to accompllish therejoin with the A/A TACAN as a backup. Ground radar asistance should be utilized to the max. receivers will maintain ____ feet below tanker base altitude until visual contact is made with the tankers.
b. 1000
Max range glide is acheived at approx ____ degrees AOA with the engine flamed out.
C. 6
Radar capabilities during the Heavy maneuver state are limited to ____.
D. A and C
NWS is limited to 10 degrees on landing roll above 40 KGS. if a skid exceeds 10 degrees, the nosewheel is destabilizing and counters the efforts to align the nose with the runwy using differential braking.
True
Perform a Bowed Rotor Start when starting withing 6 hours of an abnormal shutdown. T or F, Starting the engine then shutting down after two minutes at idle is an abnormal shutdown.
False
cockpit fogging may occur on throttle advance during takeoff and under normal circumstances should be expected to clear withing a few seconds. the likelihood of fog formation and be reduced by
D. all the above
An aircraft information at night signal a series of repeated intermittent flashes from a flaghlight, then assumes the wing position. This indicates
A. Aircraft emergency, land as soon as possible
For a Bowed Rotor STart, the 2 minute motoring timer begins after:
B. N2 has started to increase in RPM
Minimum pattern and touchdown spacing between landing aircraft is ___ for similar aircraft, ___ fordissimilar fighter aircraft or as directed by MAJCOM or the landing base, Whichever is higher
B. 3000 feet, 6000 feet
the F-35A speedbrakes aare located:
D. the F-35 has no dedicated speed brake
Minimum airspeed for low level navigation is _____ KIAS, minimum airspeed during low altitude offensive or defensive is ____ KIAS.
C. 300; 350
Boom in trail (Fully retracted) is the visual signal for ____.
A. Fuel offload complete
While flying in the precontact/contact position, you lose sight of the tanker. you should simultaneoously reduce airspeed _____ knots and descend ____ below the refueling altitude. hold refueling heading and after _____ seconds resume air refueling airspeed.
A. 10; 500;30
Expect the IPP to shut down automatically if a BLD LEAK IPP asserts (Unless Gen 3 is providing emergency power).
True
the aircraft antiskid system is adaptive. Without brake system degredations, it is more effective than the pilot. Use antiskid braking (brakinggreated than 50 percent pedal) on an icy runway rather than a light braking.
True
There are _____ boost pumps located in the feed box
B. 3
Upon Cold Iron with only the IPP running, after selecting IPP OFF then AUTO, if the IPP continures to run, the pilot should.
C. wait for the normal IPP cool down
Max wind speed allowable for canopy operation is ___ knots
C. 50
WEather criteria for a join-up underneath a ceiling is ___ ft ceiling/___ miles vis (day) and ____ foot ceiling/ ___ miles vis (night).
B. 1,500/3; 3,000/5
HYD FAIL DUAL is an indication that ____.
C. Total loss of HYD systems A and B
The normal cool down period for the IPP is ____ min.
B. Two
for CNVTR HOT emergencies, the ILS will be unavailable
True
Loading anything in SMS LIVE other than what is physically on the aircraft (except a LAU in place of a BRU or loading zero rounds live to eneable SMS train) is prohibited.
True
After successful cable engagement, be prepared to use wheel brakes to control rollback
False
Under AFMAN 11-214 IMC rules, inexperienced pilots may use up to ____ degrees of pitch while fighting in IMC.
A. 15
EPS FAIL 270 V is an indication that an electrical failure has occurred and the 270 VDC battery is discharging
True
A THROTTLE JAMMED may mean the throttle is frozen. Which of the following is available with a THROTTLE JAMMED
D. A and C only
Hand at top of canopy, palm down, fingers extended and joing, move hand forward and down is the visual signal for.
A. Descend to lower altitude
Minimum altitude for aircraft engaged in offensive and defensive air-to-air maneuvering is ____ feet AGL or pilot minimums, whichever is higher.
A. 300
In Air-to-Air LIMITED maneuvering, the engagement may continue until.
D. All of the above
the hook requires ____ to remain extended fully down.
D. A and B
_____ is displayed on the CNI status page when the CNI subsystem has experienced a serious malfunction that prevents it from operating.
B. INOP
if COM FAULT 02 displays on the SFD it may be cleared with an IBIT. IF unsuccessful:
D. accomplish cold iron
A bowed rotor start is defined as motoring the engine for ___ minutes. the engine must then be started within ___ minutes
A. 2, 20
MAximum speed with CATM-9X or AIM-9X loaded is:
C. 1.44M
the night visual signal of _____hold flashlight parallel with canopy rail and send a steady light while making a straight line from rear toward front of canopy indicates?
A. Lead change
HYD DEG B requires the use of alternate gear extention to lower the landing gear.
False
maximum crosswind component (dry), including gusts, is _____ knots for T/O and landing.
B. 25
Fuel dump continues until
C. FUEL FEED TANK asserts
if an FCS/ENG RESET is accomplished with AIR DATA FAIL and airspeed above ____ KCAS or ____ mach, loss of aircraft4 control may result.
B. 400, .9
with FUEL FEED TANK which of the following are true?
D. All of the above
in the event for GPS and INS failure, the SFD heading can be expected to drift at a rate of ____ deg/hour
B. 3
Maximum range flight is achieved at approximately ___ deg AOA with the engine running.
B. 4
Under AFMAN 11-214 IMC rules, when may experienced crew execute outs, aborts, exits and surface to air threat reactions with 135 degrees of bank in IMC
B. only with OG approval
HIgh gain NWS reverts to low gain NWS when wheel speed exceeds ____
A. 20
after landing with BATT FAIL 28V, the canopy should be opened prior to engine shutdown.
True
Nonstandard formation are those operating under the following conditions.
D. Both A and B
GEAR ALT EXTEND will have ____ effect if all 3 LG are out of the wheel wells.
A. no beneficial
if the BOS bottle lever is not ON, the indication to the pilot will be _____.
A. BOS DISABLED ICAW
if feasible, minimize maneuvering while troubleshooting cautions and warnings, and for FCS/ENG RESET. Min maneuvering is defined as minimum sideslip, airspeed less than ___ KCAS and 0.9 Mach, ! G and AOA less than ___
C 400, 15
Minimum taxi interval is ___ feet staggered and ___ in trail
B. 150, 300
AOA basic limit is ____ degrees in powered approach mode.
A. 20
with certain electical system failures resulting in radio loss, the BUR may be available to the pilot, but might not be automatically assigned.
True
Which of the following are the only approved cables for F-35 ARREST CABLE
D. A and B only
for RUDDER FAIL DUAL or STAB FAIL, maintain a minimum of ____ until ready to land.
B. 300
The flight controls can be expected to operate without cooling for
D. 30 minutes
the wet runway crosswind limit including gusts is ____ knts
C. 20
upon cold iron with only the IPP running, select IPP EMER OFF to interrupt the two minute IPP cool down.
false
fire supressing is available for the IPP bay and IPP exhaust bay, and is delayed on the ground until ____ seconds after a fire is detected. Fire detection is available ____ second after IPP start is commanded.
C 10, 10
during low temperature conditions, when turning on the battery, the 28 volt BATT LO indicator on the PTMS panel may illuminate with a steady or flashing light. if illuminated
B. The IPP switch must be rotated to START within 30 seconds or else the aircraft powers down.
aerobraking to less than 100 KGS can cause loss of directional control under high crosswind conditions.
True
