Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

KC-135 > MQF > Flashcards

MQF Flashcards

1
Q

T/F - Pilots shall not exchange seats during flight if only two pilots are aboard the airplane?

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Verbal coordination between applicable crewmembers will be required when

A

A. Control of the airplane between pilot and copilot or when an autopilot mode or axis is engaged or disengaged
B. Repositioning fuel panel valves and switches or when an electrical power source is changed
C. A crewmember leaves position or leaves interphone or goes on/off oxygen
D. All the above

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Normal left and right hydraulic system pressure range

A

2400-3050

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Maximum EGT during engine start

A

725 C

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

EGT between ____ is limited to 5 mins duration. EGT between ____ retard the throttle to bring EGT within limits. Operation is allowed until the next landing. If EGT exceeds ____ shut down using the ENGINE FIRE/FAILURE DURING FLIGHT checklist.

A

870-905C
906-930C
930C

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Normal oil pressure limits are ____ psi. Oil pressure fluctuations of not more than ____ psi total are allowable, as long as fluctuations remain within normal limits.

A

11-92;
10

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F - Moderate to severe airplane buffeting can occur with simultaneous use of speed brakes and flaps. This buffeting can result in damage or loss of airplane surfaces

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Because of possible damage due to sonic airflow at certain angles of attack, do not extend flaps above ____ feet pressure altitude.

A

20,000 ft PA

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The takeoff and emergency procedures portion will be reviewed either just prior to:

A

A. Stepping to the aircraft
B. Engine Start
C. Takeoff
D. B or C

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Based on ____ the aircraft commander may elect single pilot preflight operations where one pilot proceeds to the aircraft with the boom operator to perform the exterior safety check and begin the interior preflight checks, while the other pilot accomplishes additional duties

A

A. Operational Need
B. Mission Requirements
C. Personal Preference
D. A or B

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

All crewmembers will inform the pilot when checking on and/or off interphone and will be on interphone during:

A

A. All ground operations except when accomplishing crew duties that preclude use of interphone
B. Formation flying, rendezvous, and AR
C. Flight under wx conditions, all T/O and ldgs
D. All the above

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Because of the magnitude of interrelated aerodynamic effects, flying two airplanes in close vertical proximity is:

A

Not Safe

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F - Speed Brakes are NOT used during approach and landing flare

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F - All snow and ice accumulations of any significant degree must be removed from the airplane surfaces prior to T/O

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If the ____ is not down and in the detent, ensure the the ____ is installed. Notify the aircraft commander and maintenance personnel immediately. No further preflight actions will be conducted until mx checks it out.

A

Landing Gear Lever; nose gear ground downlock and release handle

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The pilot will ensure that no personnel are standing near ____ when pressurizing left system.

A

Wheel well doors

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The copilot ANN DIM switch on the copilot overhead light panel must be out of DIM for the ____ to operate. Must be out of DIM until closing the crew entry/cargo door. Then it can be wherever

A

FDR

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Possible causes of a ____ are engaging the pilots interphone (yoke or tiller), pressing the pilots FD ANN TEST button, a cold hydraulic system, weak aux pump, and/or use of other hydraulic systems during the EFAS test. In this case the EFAS self-test is ____ indicating a system failure.

A

Failed EFAS test; incorrectly

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The speed brake warning horn sounds when the lever is pulled back more than ____ out of the full forward psn

A

2 degrees

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Proper adjustment of the ____ is especially critical for takeoff approach, and landing. To prevent inadvertent movement of the seat, ensure that the ____ is in the down and latched psn

A

seat and rudder pedals; seat horizontal adjustment lever

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If an APU with an operable generator is not available, an external power is not used, the start can be made with battery power. Which gauges will not display until power is available?

A

Oil Pressure and Fuel Flow

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Copilot checks fopr initial fuel flow peak of ____ pph (before ignition) and approximately ____ pph after igntion. If fuel flow exceeds ____ pph before lightoff, a hot start can occur.

A

300-680; 900; 680

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

For temperatures ____, failure to set the engine start switch to ignition may result in an engine flameout when throttles are retarded during taxi operations.

A

At and below 0C (32F)

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F - Items 18-29 of the starting engines and before taxi checklist may be accomplished while waiting for the ground crew report.

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Minimum taxiway width is ____ feet.

A

74 feet

AFMAN 11-2KC-135 Vol 3, Paragraph 5.9.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Do not taxi or tow an aircraft within ____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between the aircraft and the obstruction. Do not taxi aircraft closer than ____ feet to any obstruction.

A

25; 10

AFMAN 11-218, Para 3.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Do not operate aircraft within 25 horizontal feet of any obstruction without ____ .

A

Wing Walkers

AFMAN 11-218, Para 3.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Available crewmembers should assist in clearing during:

A

A. Taxi Operations
B. Receiver AR
C. Any time the aircraft is below 10,000 AGL
D. All of the above

AFMAN 11-2KC-135 Vol 3. Para 5.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When operating in non-standard formation, flight leaders:

A

A. Are required to advise ARTCC on initial contact of separation being used
B. Ensure wingman echo separation on check in calls with ARTCC
C. Should indicate non-std formation in remarks sections of the flight plan
D. A and C

AFMAN 11-2KC-135 Vol 3, Para 18.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Marshallers are required to use ____ during night or low visibility conditions.

A

Illuminated Wands

AFMAN 11-218, Para 2.3.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Air Force pilots may passively participate in LAHSO. PIC is the final authority whether to takeoff, land or continue a touch-and-go when a merging aircraft has recieved a LAHSO clearance.

A

True

AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3, Para 18.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When must aircraft anti-collision lights be displayed?

A

From just prior to engine start until after engine shutdown

AFMAN 11-218, Para 3.10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

You are approaching another aircraft on the ground head-on. What should you do?

A

Alter course to the right to remain well-clear, or stop

AFMAN 11-218, Para 3.5.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

An AC or IP will make all heavy weight landings greater than ____ and landings during emergencies, unless conditions prevent compliance.

A

235,000 pounds

AFMAN 11-2KC Vol 3, Para 5.4.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In those situations where runway/taxi conditions or performance considerations are such that safety could be compromised,

A

A static takeoff should be made

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

For a takeoff, approach or landing with fuel in any main tank below ____ pounds, open all tank to engine manifold valves. Open the line valve for all takeoffs when gross weight is greater than ____ pounds. ensure line valve is closed for all takeoffs when gross weight is at or below ____ pounds.

A

10,500; 200K; 200K

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Exercise caution during throttle application to prevent asymetric thrust. Engine thrust should be stabilized at a minimum of ____ prior to advancing throttles to the takeoff thrust setting.

A

40% N1

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Uncommanded stabilizer trim input is a safety-of-flight issue. Terminate the mission (and in-flight, land as soon as practicable) any time uncommanded stab trim input is encoutered.

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If any engine does not reach the charted N1 setting ____ , the engine is not providing the required rated thrust, and the takeoff shall be aborted.

A

Bewteen 40-80 knots

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T/F - Illumination of the amber EGT caution light near or after S1 indicates that EGT may be approaching takeoff limit. This indication is for crew awareness and does not indicate an engine operatiing limit has been exceeded. Continue normal operation and monitor EGT to prevent exceeding the takeoff EGT limit.

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When ____ throttle is advanced near OPEN, the warning horn sounds if the speed brake lever is more than 2 degrees our of the full forward position, if the flap lever is at or near the 0, 40, or 50 degree detent, or the leading edge flaps are not fully extended.

A

No. 3

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Sudden reversal of rudder direction at high rudder deflections, due to improper rudder application or abrupt release, can result in ____.

A

Overstressing the vertical fin

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

If stabilizer trim has moved from setting selected during the taxi checklist, ____.

A

Abort the mission

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When experiencing a loss shear on takeoff, anticipate a loss in indicated airspeed and altitude. This situation is potentially dangerous if the airplane is close to the ground. If this loss is expected to be ____ knots or more, the takeoff shall be delayed, if possible until more favorable conditions exist.

A

15 knots

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

T/F - When the airplane is definitely airborne and a positive rate of climb is established (VVI above zero) retract the landing gear

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Follow Dash One procedures until reaching ____, obstacle clearance height, or the altitude associated with departure procedure climb, whichever is higher.

A

[BLK40] 800 feet above the runway
[BLK45] 2000 feet above the runway

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Leave ignition on if engine anti-ice is on. If anti-ice is not required, turn starter switches off ____.

A

5 mins after established at cruise

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T/F - Do not climb at a speed more than the recommended three engine climbout speed

A

False

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Maneuvering at speeds below three engine climbout speed ____ knots is not recommended. A bank angle of 30 degrees at climbout speeds with flaps down could reduce climbout capability by as much as ____ fpm.

A

50, 400

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

50
Q

Without TCTO 1823 if an airplane is to remain in closed traffic after takeoff, thrust will be adjusted to climb out at the same speed to be used on the downwind leg and a rate of climb approximately ____ fpm.

A

1000

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

51
Q

if an engine failure occurs during climbout, continue to follow the command bars. with inoperative command bars, if an engine failure occurs during or immediately after takeoff, ____; if an engine failure occurs after attaining three engine climbout speed, do not reduce airspeed but continue to climb at the speed attained at the point of engine failure.

A

Climbout at recommended three-engine climbout speed.

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

52
Q

T/F - Flap retraction in a turn is not recommended. Retracting flaps from 20 degrees to 0 reduces available lateral (OTBD ailerons) control and increases initial buffet speed considerably and rapidly as the trailing edge and leading edge flaps retract.

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

53
Q

T/F - After setting climb thrust, no further throttle adjustment should be necessary during climb if the PMC system is NOT operating.

A

False

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

54
Q

A departure alternate is required if weather is below landing minimums for the lowest suitable approach. To qualify as an alternate, the airfield must be:

A

A. Within 30 minutes of flying time, existing wx is equal to or better than the published approach mins and forecast to remain so until 1 hour after takeoff.
C. Within two hours flying time, the existing wx is at least 500-1 above the lowest compatible published approach mins, but not less than 600-2 (precision) or 800-2 (non-precision) and forecast to remain so for 1 hour after the ETA at the alternate.

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

55
Q

Manual damping of dutch roll is to be accomplished ONLY with

A

Lateral (aileron) control

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

56
Q

For an unplanned thunderstorm penetration, use the lower of 280 KIAS or cruise Mach (.77 to .80) and do NOT change the ____.

A

Stab trim setting

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

57
Q

T/F - No HF transmissions are to be made from a tanker or receiver when a reciever is in contact or about to make contact and all HF equipment must be switched to STANDBY/MONITOR where possible.

A

True

ATP 3.3.4.2 Chapter 2, Section V, Para 2.55b

58
Q

For all ____ AARs, do not transmit on the HF radio when the rcvr is within 1/2 NM; this includes datalink.

A

foreign aircraft

ATP 3.3.4.2 US SRD Appendix 8D, 8D-1, Page 8-9 Warning

59
Q

Pilots must use extreme care in those cases when the speed brakes are required for deceleration. Ascertain that the receiever ____ prior to speed brake actuation

A

Will not overrun the tanker

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

60
Q

For airplanes equipped with standard speed booms, if airspeed must be increased above ____ KIAS/.85 Mach, the pilot will notifty the boom operator to stow the boom.

A

335

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

61
Q

During any air refueling which requires the indicated airspeed to be less than 220 KIAS, ____ for dry contacts to preclude fuel siphoning from the forward body tank, causing unexpected CG changes.

A

Keep the A/R line valve closed

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

62
Q

When the receiver is in or near the contact position, the pilot ____ at the first indication of autopilot malfunction, including an inadvertent autopilot disconnect, if accompanied by out of trim control forces.

A

Will initiate a breakaway

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

63
Q

T/F - Air refueling for the rcvr that required a controlled tension disconnect will be terminated except during fuel emergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

64
Q

Unless dictated otherwise by ATP 3.3.4.2 (Chapter 2, Section I, Warning) or by mission requirements, tankers will establish the applicable contact air refueling airspeed before the rcvr reaches ____. If the tanker is off airspeed by more than ____ knots, the rcvr pilot will be informed prior to tanker airspeed changes

A

1NM; 5 Knots

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

65
Q

Following an inadvertent brute force disconnect, air refueling ____.

A

Will be terminated except during fuel emergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

66
Q

The position approximately 50 ft behind and slightly below the tanker boom nozzle where the rcvr stabilizes with zero rate of closure before being cleared to the contact position is called

A

Astern/Pre-Contact (USAF rcvrs)

ATP 3.3.4.2 Chapter 1, Section II, Para 1.11 & US SRD Appendix 8D

67
Q

Tanker responsibilities during a rdvz delta are to:

A

A. Be at the base AAR Altitude
B. Enter the refueling orbit from any direction
C. Attempt to arrive at least 10 mins before ARCT, and normally establish a left hand orbit pattern using the ARCP as an anchor point
D. All the above

ATP 3.3.4.2 Chapter 2

68
Q

When planning to conduct a RDVZ G, a common track length equivalent to ____ minutes flying time should be planned to allow for tanker descent to RV FL/Alt/Height, visual acquistion and timing corrections.

A

15 minutes

ATP 3.3.4.2 Chapter 2

69
Q

T/F - Tankers will only refuel those acft listed in the ATP 3.3.4.2 & US SRD or specifically authorized by MAJCOM, ATO, OPORD, Exercise Order, or on approved flying schedule. Rcvrs not previously certified for AR must be certified with ATP 3.3.4.2 prior to refueling.

A

True

AFMAN 11-2KC-135 Vol 3

70
Q

Unless otherwise directed, an altimeter setting of ____ is to be used for AAR operations at or above transition altitude, or when over water operting IAW ICAO procedures. Regardless of whether or not the acft are operating on standard pressure settings, tanker crews ____ to include the altimeter setting in the RV Initial Call.

A

29.92; are required

ATP 3.3.4.2 Chapter 2

71
Q

T/F - Tanker pilots should ensure the boom operator notifies rcvr pilots when any axis of the AP is not used. If a tanker pilot or rcvr pilot is required to fly an AP off for qualification training, the PF flying the opposite aircraft will be qualified.

A

True

AFMAN 11-2KC-135 Vol 3

72
Q

The tanker will note the rcvrs distance when ____ through the turn back to the ARCP. This is the best time to determine if an overrun condition exists and the best time for visual sighting. Except for overtaking point parallel rdvz, the distance to the rcvr should be approximately 1/3 of the turn range when ____ through the turn.

A

Halfway, Halfway

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

73
Q

T/F - Tanker aircrew will advise ATC of tanker and rcvr end AR altitude requests at least 5 minutes prior to AREX.

A

True

JO 7610.4V Para 10-1-6a.10

74
Q

After experiencing two-way comms failure while conducting AR, tanker aircraft will discontinue AR and continue flight by doing what?

A

A. Squawk 7600 for at two mins prior to exiting
B. If altitude instructions beyond the exit point have not been received, exit the track or anchor at the highesgt altitude in the AR clearance
C. Proceed IAW DoD FIH procedures
D. All the above

FIH, Two Way Radio Failure, Page A-7

75
Q

Normally, tanker orbit patterns are located within a rectangle 60NM long, 25NM wide with left turns. While established in and awaiting their rcvrs, tanker aircraft:

A

Must receive clearance from the box to the IP, if airspace is desired

JO7610.4V, Para 10-2-5

76
Q

Closely monitor airplane CG during reverse AR, as the aft CG limit can be quickly exceeded when operating at ____ gross weights.

A

Light

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

77
Q

T/F - Routing and altitudes of acft extablished on an approved ALTRV must not be changed except in the interest of safety of flight or as outlined in Chapter 3 of JO7610.4 Para 3-3-8

A

True

JO 7610.4 Para 3-3-8

78
Q

To avoid datalink initialization failure, the flight crew ensures that the flight-specific information entered into the acft system is the same as the corresponding details filed ____.

A

In the flight plan

GOLD Manual, Para 1.2.2.2.3

79
Q

The flight crew should monitor the forward estimate for oceanic entry, and if this changes by ____ minutes or more, unless providing position reports via ADS-C, pass a revised estimate to ATC

A

3 Minutes

North Atlantic Ops and Airspace Manual [NAT Doc 007 (EN)] Para 5.1.7

80
Q

For oceanic crossings, aircrew will use __.

A

Only the MAJCOM Stan/Eval MDS-specific checklist posted on the Aircrew Pubs Sharepoint. If an MDS-specific checklist is not posted, aircrew may use the Sample Oceanic Checklist, published via NAT OPS bulletin.

11-202Vol3 AMC Supp

81
Q

If an operating on an ALTRV and mission is to be delayed beyind the AVANA time, rescheduling the ALTRV:

A

A. Will normally be in 24-hour increments after the original schedule
B. Is at the discretion of the mission commander
C. Can be in less than the time specified above, subject to CARF discretion and after approval from the affected ARTCC/CERAP/HCF
D. A or C

JO 7610.4 Para 3-4-4

82
Q

[Oceanic Plotting Chart] While flying the oceanic route, crews will maintain situational awareness to include positional awareness and accurate fuel readings. In order to assist with this, crews will:

A

All the above

202v3

83
Q

T/F - [CPDLC] The lead acft will initiate a logon at the correct time. Once in formation, only the lead acft will make position reports.

A

True

GOLD Manual Para 6.4.2

84
Q

If a login request has been initiated with incorrect aircraft identification and aircraft registration, the logon process will fail the flight crew will need to __.

A

Correct the information and reinitiate the logon request

GOLD Manual, Para 4.2.1.1

85
Q

Approximately ____ minutes after exiting CPDLC and/or ADS-C service areas, the flight crew should ensure there are no active CPDLC or ADS-C connections.

A

15 minutes

GOLD Manual, Para 4.2.5.1

86
Q

Experience has shown that many track keeping errors in the NAT HLA occur as a results of crews programming the navigation system with incorrect waypoint data. These are refered to as waypoint insertion errors. They frequently result from:

A

A. Failure to observe the principles of checking waypoints to be inserted in the navigation systems, againstthe cleared route
B. Failure to load waypoint information correctly
C. Failure to cross-check on-board navigation systems
D. Any combination of the above

North Atlantic Operations and Airspace Manual

87
Q

T/F - Steep idle thrust approaches, or all approach angles and rates of descent requiring large changes in pitch attitude during the landing flare, will be avoided.

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

88
Q

For approach purposes, the KC-135R is considered a Category ____ airplane. In those cases where the seed for a circling approach exceeds 166 knots, Category ____ minima will be applied.

A

Cat D, Cat E

1C-135(K)R(II)-1 page 2-94, Note

89
Q

A speed brake lever position of less than ____ degrees is not recommended due to the tendency to over control at these settings.

A

40 degrees

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

90
Q

For all FMS approaches, at 2NM prior to the FAF ensure the system in the ____ mode (as indicated by the blinking ____ CDU annunciation), or discontinue the approach

A

Approach, &laquo_space;approach&raquo_space;

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

91
Q

If multiple instrument approach patterns are flown in the clean configuration, maintain a minimum of ____ KIAS until crossing the initial approach fix or turning base leg if receiving radar vectors.

A

Vref +70

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

92
Q

Unless fuel consumption is a factor, hold at ____ for all gross weights up to 170K. At gross weights above 170K pounds use ____ as holding speed.

A

220 KIAS; best endurance +10

93
Q

Occupants of the pilot and copilot seats may remove shoulder harness during cruise flight, but shall fasten them prior to ____.

A

AR RDVZ
Descent for Landing

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

94
Q

As a minimum the pilot flying the approach will brief the crew on the transition level, planned descent rate, DH/MDA/VDP, missed approach procedures and assign crew responsibilities for backing up the pilot flying the airplane ____.

A

If an unplanned go-around occurs

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

95
Q

From 500 AGL to the runway, the PF will execute a go-around/missed approach when which of the parameters are exceeded

A

Airspeed +10/-5
Bank Angle +/-15
VVI +/- 300 from target

11-202vol3 AMC Supp

96
Q

T/F - During the descent checklist, an accurate check of the electric and hydraulic systems consists of the pilot checking switches and pressure in the left, right, reserve brake and powered rudder systems while the copilot checks electrical power system indicators and hydraulic quantities

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

97
Q

When landing with less than full flaps, avoid excessive flare with resultant floating in an attempt for a smooth landing. Make normal flare and touchdown at ____.

A

Threshold speed -10 Knots

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

98
Q

Application of ____ brakes during landing ground roll may override the ____ antiskid brake system and lock the airplane brakes resulting in possible blown tires or reverted rubber hydroplaning.

A

Copilot; Pilot

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

99
Q

T/F - Engine acceleration from ground idle to touch and go target thrust may require up to 20 seconds. Attempting a go-around after the engines have decelerated to ground idle results in an extended ground run. Consider aborting the takeoff if the engines go to gorund idle.

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

100
Q

Touchdown with a crab angle and with wings level may result in a rapid rising of the ____ wing and may cause the ____ engine nacelles to drag on the runway

A

Upwind; Downwind

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

101
Q

Do not allow the bank angle at touchdown (4-6 deg pitch) to exceed ____ degrees due to possibility of dragging an outboard engine nacelle

A

8 Degrees

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

Two Point Attitude

102
Q

During landing ground roll, do not allow the airplane to bank beyond ____ degrees due to possibility of dragging an engine nacelle.

A

4 Degrees

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

Three Point Attitude

103
Q

Prior to initiating turns, visually check for other traffic. The first turn should not be initiated until ____ .

A

Reaching min Manuever Speed
A Safe Altitude
Passing the end of the runway

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

All the Above

104
Q

Remove crab ____ , maintaining a slight wing low attitude into the wing as necessary to counteract drift.

A

Prior to TOUCHDOWN

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

105
Q

N1 settings, pattern, approach, and reference speeds will be recomputed when:

A

GW change 10K
Temp change 3C (5F)
PA change 500 feet
Airplane configuration changes
Wind changes req adjustment to charted speeds

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

106
Q

[Go-Around] The minimum airspeed for retracting flaps to ____ degrees is flaps 50 Vth speed.

A

30 Degrees

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

107
Q

Due to the lack of surge protection features, reverse refueling is prohibited.

A

[ARR E]

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

108
Q

Except in an emergency, do not engage or disenage the ____ while in the contact position, as an unscheduled attiude change can occur about the vertical/longitudinal axes.

A

Series Yaw Damper

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

109
Q

When transferring fuel, only ____ A/R pump shall be operated at a time. This precludes the possibility of over-pressurizing a fuel tank if a fuel level control valve fails in the open position.

A

1 pump

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

110
Q

Monitor the fuel quantity gauges to avoid exceeding airplane ____ limits. Maintain symmetrical fuel quantities in the wing tanks to prevent lateral unbalance.

A

CG

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

111
Q

[Manual Boom Latching] The rcvr pilot must initiate all disconnects before ____.

A

Exceeding any of the limits

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

112
Q

The ____ valve will be CLOSED before operation of the air refueling pumps because fuel pressure surges could cause rupture of the ____ manifold in the cockpit area.

A

Main ARR/IFR; AAR

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

113
Q

A controlled tension brute force disconnect will be accomplished only ____.

A

as a last resort, after all other normal and emergency methods of disconnect have failed.

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

114
Q

The rcvr pilot must use caution not to overrun the tanker. If overunnning does occur, under no conditions should a turn either left or right be made until ____.

A

A breakway has been completed.

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

115
Q

Approaching boom limits at relatively high velocity can cause ____ due to binding action of the boom nozzle.

A

Structural damage as a result of an a inability to disconnect

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

116
Q

The rcvr will stabilize in the astern position with a ____ rate of closure. If the rcvr fails to attain a stabilized position, or it becomes apparent that a closure overrun will occur, a breakaway will be initiated. Failure to initiate a breakaway under closure overrun conditions can result in a mid-air collision.

A

Zero Rate of Closure

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

117
Q

If the rcvr director lights fail to illuminate when contact is established, the ____ will inform the ____ if refueling operatiions are to be continued. If refueling is continued, verbal corrections from the boom operator may be requested.

A

RCVR Pilot; Boom Operator

118
Q

T/F - The boom operator is unable to release the boom toggles during manual boom latching.

A

True

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

119
Q

One of the greatest potential hazards during air refueling is ____. On becoming fatigued. or if for any reason large oscillations develop which require increasing amounts of control disoplacement, break contact and ____ the airplane in the astern position for a few minutes.

A

Fatigue; let the other pilot fly

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

120
Q

Attempts to effect a contact during loss of any air refueling lighting that results in less than desired illumination will be at the discretion of the ____.

A

Boom Operator

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

121
Q

If the rcvr is more than ____ in trail with the tanker, airspeed may be increased to ____ KIAS for closure. The normal speed schedule will be resumed at 3NM in trail.

A

4NM; 330 KIAS

1C-135(K)R(II)-1

KC-135 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions