MQF

Question 1

T/F Anytime an operational limit is exceeded an appropriate entry shall be made on AFTO Form 781.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

Anytime an operational limit is exceeded, the 781 entry shall state what limit or limits were exceed, ______, and any additional data that will aid maintenance personnel in the inspection that is required.

Answer 2

Range and duration

Question 3

T/F When power is interrupted or removed from the center MFD all exceedance information is erased.

Answer 3

True

Question 4

Nr green band

Answer 4

91-105%

Question 5

Normally, autorotation RPM will be set at approximately 91-105% and sea level, ____, at light gross weight (2 persons/ full fuel)

Answer 5

70 KIAS

Question 6

A helicopter can be started in a maximum steady state or peak gust wind speed of ___ knots or a maximum gust spread of ___ knots.

Answer 6

30, 15

Question 7

Three energized periods allowed per ___. Limit starter energizing time to:

Answer 7

hour; 35 seconds ON, 3 minutes OFF, 35 seconds ON, 30 minutes OFF, 35 seconds ON

Question 8

Center of gravity (CG) limits for loading purposes are located between fuselage stations ___

Answer 8

130-144

Question 9

When flying at an aft CG (____) terminate an approach at a minimum 5 foot hover prior to landing to prevent striking the tail on the ground.

Answer 9

Station 140 to 144

Question 10

Lateral CG limits

Answer 10

± 7.5 inches

Question 11

Towing the helicopter, with ground handling wheels installed, on rough surfaces at gross weights in excess of ___ pounds may cause permanent set in the aft cross tube.

Answer 11

9,500 lbs.

Question 12

Abrupt changes of flight controls causing negative “G” load are prohibited. Intentional flight below ___ is prohibited.

Answer 12

+0.5G

Question 13

T/F Intentional flight into severe or extreme turbulence is prohibited.

Answer 13

True

Question 14

The helicopter should not be towed for ___ minutes after the battery switch has been turned OFF to prevent damage to attitude and directional gyros. If the helicopter must be towed prior to the waiting period, the battery switch shall be turned ON. Wait ___ minutes after the switches are ON before moving the helicopter.

Answer 14

25, 5

Question 15

Maximum cross slope landing capabilities under normal conditions

Answer 15

10°

Question 16

Maximum nose up slope landing capabilities under normal conditions

Answer 16

10°

Question 17

Maximum nose down slope landing capabilities under normal conditions

Answer 17

7°

Question 18

Do not apply rotor brake above ___ Nr except for emergencies

Answer 18

20%

Question 19

Applying rotor brake above ___ Nr will increase the tendency for the aircraft to spin on smooth surfaces.

Answer 19

40%

Question 20

Dual tachometer (≤ to 91% Ng) Nr green band

Answer 20

91-105%

Question 21

Dual tachometer (≤ to 91% Ng) Nf green band

Answer 21

97-104%

Question 22

Dual tachometer: Red triangle at ___ (peak Nf). Transient range (from the Nf limit up to and including peak Nf) is limited to ___ seconds.

Answer 22

105%, 3 seconds

Question 23

Dual tachometer (> 91% Ng) Nr green band

Answer 23

91-105%

Question 24

Dual tachometer (> 91% Ng) choose Nf green band

Answer 24

97-102%

Question 25

Ng green band (maximum)

Answer 25

105.8%

Question 26

Engine oil temperature: green band (below 30°C FAT)

Answer 26

-55 to 93°C

Question 27

Engine oil temperature: yellow band (below 30°C FAT)

Answer 27

93-100°C

Question 28

Engine oil pressure: red band

Answer 28

0-25 psi

100+ psi

Question 29

Engine oil pressure: white band

Answer 29

25-80 psi

Question 30

Engine oil pressure: green band

Answer 30

80-100 psi

Question 31

Engine oil pressure up to ___ psi on start is normal and aircraft limits have not been exceeded. Do not advance throttle until the pressure is within normal operating limits.

Answer 31

105 psi

Question 32

EGT (prior to engine stabilization) green band:

Answer 32

0-950°C

Question 33

EGT (engine stabilized) green band

Answer 33

400-820°c

Question 34

EGT (engine stabilized) yellow band

Answer 34

820-880°C

Question 35

EGT (engine stabilized) white band:

Answer 35

0-400°C

Question 36

EGT (engine stabilized) red band:

Answer 36

880°C +

Question 37

Transmission oil temperature: green band

Answer 37

-55 to 110°C

Question 38

Transmission oil temperature red band

Answer 38

110°C +

Question 39

Transmission oil pressure red band:

Answer 39

0-30 psi

70 psi +

Question 40

Transmission oil pressure yellow band:

Answer 40

30-40 psi

Question 41

Transmission oil pressure green band:

Answer 41

40-70 psi

Question 42

Airspeed indicator (above 88% torque) red band:

Answer 42

80+ knots

Question 43

Airspeed indicator (at or below 88% torque) red band:

Answer 43

130+ knots

Question 44

Airspeed indicator (at or below 88% torque) green band:

Answer 44

0-130 knots

Question 45

Fuel pressure white band:

Answer 45

0-8 psi

25-50 psi

Question 46

Fuel pressure green band:

Answer 46

8-25 psi

Question 47

Torque indicator green band:

Answer 47

0-88%

Question 48

Torque indicator yellow band:

Answer 48

88-100% (5 minute limit)

Question 49

If main cargo door comes open while in flight, reduce airspeed below ___ knots and secure the door.

Answer 49

50 knots

Question 50

Do not operate the helicopter at airspeeds greater than ___ KIAS with cargo doors locked in the full open position

Answer 50

120 KIAS

Question 51

Sideward flight limits are

Answer 51

35 knots

Question 52

Rearward flight limits are

Answer 52

30 knots

Question 53

T/F When the battery switch is ON, it allows the battery to be charged by the generator.

Answer 53

True

Question 54

The fuel control assembly is mounted on the engine and consists of

Answer 54

metering section
computer section
overspeed governor

Question 55

The engine de-ice is a fail-safe system and will automatically come on ___

Answer 55

In the event of a DC electrical failure

Question 56

The compressor air-bleed band system and operation of the variable inlet guide vanes is controlled by

Answer 56

computer section

Question 57

Icing of the engine air inlet screens can be expected when operating at outside air temperatures of ___ or below

Answer 57

4.4°C (40° F)

Question 58

T/F The hydraulic switch, when in the OFF position, allows electrical current to flow to and close the hydraulic solenoid valve, thus denying hydraulic pressure to the servos. When in the ON position, current does not flow to the hydraulic solenoid valve leaving it open and hydraulic pressure applied to the servos

Answer 58

True

Question 59

T/F The 90° gearbox provides no gear reduction

Answer 59

False

Question 60

During a restricted visibility instrument takeoff, as the aircraft clears the ground, adjust attitude to a ___ degree nose low indication.

Answer 60

5°

Question 61

T/F A freewheeling unit is incorporated in the XMSN to provide a quick-disconnect from the engine if a power failure occurs.

Answer 61

True

Question 62

T/F Convective turbulence is the most frequently encountered turbulence

Answer 62

False

Question 63

Fuel flow will increase about ___ lbs per hour with the bleed air heat on and about ___ lbs per hour with de-ice on.

Answer 63

14lbs (2%)

21lbs (3%)

Question 64

T/F Collective pitch should never be applied to reduce rotor RPM below normal limits to extend your glide distance.

Answer 64

True

Question 65

Tail rotor failure can put the aircraft in such an attitude that the pilot naturally tends toward ___ cyclic to correct the attitude.

Answer 65

right-rear

Question 66

Following tail rotor failure, cyclic inputs combined with aircraft attitude can exceed the ___ and induce mast bumping.

Answer 66

12° flapping angle

Question 67

A failure within the irreversible valve may cause extreme stiffness in the

Answer 67

Collective or 2 of the 4 cyclic control quadrants

Question 68

Operating procedures, techniques, etc… that are considered essential to emphasize

Answer 68

Note

Question 69

Operating procedures, techniques, etc… that will result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed

Answer 69

Warning

Question 70

Operating procedure, technique, etc… that will result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed

Answer 70

Caution

Question 71

Do not store or place items under ___ seating. Failure to observe may cause injury to personnel, during hard landing where the seat my stroke down or collapse.

Answer 71

Any

Question 72

T/F Although Halon vapor has a low toxicity, its decomposition products can be hazardous.

Answer 72

True

Question 73

Because automatic acceleration, deceleration, and overspeed control are not provided with the GOV switch in the EMER position, throttle and collective coordinated control movements must be smooth to prevent ____.

Answer 73

compressor stall, overspeed & over-temp, engine failure

Question 74

T/F When manipulating the search light control switch (SEARCH CONT) inadvertent actuation of governor RPM switch (GOV RPM INCR/DECR) is possible

Answer 74

True

Question 75

The airspeed, vertical velocity and altimeter are unreliable below ___ because of rotor downwash on the pitot static system. During takeoff, do not rely on these instruments until at least ___.

Answer 75

20 KIAS and 20 KIAS

Question 76

On the marginal power takeoff, do not inadvertently allow airspeed to drop below ___ or critical settling to the ground may occur.

Answer 76

ETL (16-24 knots)

Question 77

If the aircraft cannot be stabilized at ___ without RPM bleed off, it is over-loaded for the current conditions.

Answer 77

a 2 ft. hover

Question 78

T/F Rapid increase in collective is most effective in controlling rolling motions and is the recommended procedure if conditions permit. Reducing the collective and landing is acceptable as long as the pilot is prepared for cyclic into the slope.

Answer 78

False

Question 79

When conducting a steep approach, reducing forward airspeed to zero before reaching hover altitude my result in

Answer 79

Vortex ring state

Question 80

Under certain conditions, the rotating main rotor blades my flex or droop, resulting in a low ground clearance ____ which may be hazardous to boarding or deplaning personnel.

Answer 80

As low as 5 ft.

Question 81

In the event the RPM audio sounds and/or warning light illuminates

Answer 81

Confirm engine malfunction by one or more other indications

Question 82

T/F If manual throttle corrects the overspeed, LAND AS SOOON AS PRACTICAL since there is little or no chance of impending engine failure due to the debris generated by the initial Nf failure.

Answer 82

False

Question 83

In the event of a complete loss of tail rotor thrust, failure to maintain ___ until touchdown may result in an uncontrollable and unrecoverable spin to the right.

Answer 83

60 knots

Question 84

In the event of a complete loss of tail rotor thrust, aft cyclic application should be ___ to avoid mast bumping.

Answer 84

Very slow and very small

Question 85

In the event of a complete loss of tail rotor thrust, simultaneous ___ should be avoided.

Answer 85

Aft cyclic and increased collective

Question 86

In the event of a complete loss of tail rotor thrust in a hover.

Answer 86

Immediately retard throttle to idle (off if possible)
Maintain level attitude
Make an autorotational landing

Question 87

T/F In the event of a complete loss of tail rotor thrust landing, a slide landing on the aft portion of the skids will tend to correct side drift and yaw.

Answer 87

True

Question 88

With ___ locked forward of neutral, attempted go around, loss of ETL or excessive collective increase could result in severe right yaw and uncontrolled flight.

Answer 88

The right pedal

Question 89

In the event of transmission malfunctions, engine power must be maintained by ___ and landing to aid in preventing seizure of the transmission.

Answer 89

Leaving the throttle full open throughout the approach

Question 90

T/F While operating with low hydraulic, autorotation capabilities exists despite high forces in all flight controls. Therefore, LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICAL

Answer 90

True

Question 91

In the event of hydraulic power failure, do not return the HYD CONT switch to the ON position for the remainder of the flight. This prevents:

Answer 91

Any possibility of a surge in hydraulic pressure and the resulting loss of control

Question 92

In the event the master caution light illuminates with no associated segment light

Answer 92

Do not reset the light until referencing the checklist

Question 93

Danger exists that the main rotor system could collapse or separate from the aircraft after a flight control malfunction.

Answer 93

A decision to exit the helicopter must be made before the emergency shutdown

Question 94

The ENG FIRE light will illuminate if ___

Answer 94

There is excessive heat in the engine compartment

Question 95

The synchronized elevator is connected to ___

Answer 95

The fore and aft cyclic control system

Question 96

T/F Electrical power is required to turn there hydraulic system off

Answer 96

True

Question 97

T/F Do not operate the windshield wipers on a dry or dirty windshield

Answer 97

True

Question 98

T/F You will get an RPM warning light and audio warning signal when you have a loss of signal from either the rotor tach or the power turbine tach

Answer 98

False

Question 99

During takeoff, if visual reference with the ground is lost due to a brown/white out condition, the pilot flying should accomplish a ___ takeoff.

Answer 99

Restricted visibility

Question 100

Rapid application of throttle ___ may result in inadvertent rotation of the aircraft when parked on ice.

Answer 100

40% Q

Question 101

Power margin is the difference between:

Answer 101

Power available and power required

Question 102

The pilot will brief ___

Answer 102

The type of approach
Significant terrain features and specific requirements
Pertinent information

Question 103

If power margin is less than ___, a second crew member will re-compute TOLD to verify power computations.

Answer 103

10%

Question 104

The (pilot not flying) PNF or other crew member will announce heading deviations of ___ degrees, airspeed deviations of ___ knots, altitude deviations exceeding ___ feet as well as deviations from the prescribed procedures being flown.

Answer 104

10, 10, and 100

Question 105

T/F When passengers are in the cargo compartment, the cargo doors will remain closed during flight unless a qualified aircrew member is also in the cabin.

Answer 105

True

Question 106

Any personnel who are required to be in close proximity___ to an operating helicopter require eye/ear protection.

Answer 106

Within 50 ft.

Question 107

VFR/SVFR: All training flights (other than student cross-country, student solo flights, and night/NVG) require

Answer 107

700 ft. ceilings and 2 SM of visibility

Question 108

Student cross-country, student solo flights and night/NVG flights requires a minimum of

Answer 108

1,000 ft. ceilings and 3 SM visibility

Question 109

Aircraft will takeoff with sufficient fuel for the planned sortie, to include minimum fuel reserve of ____ and alternate fuel, if applicable.

Answer 109

250 lbs.

Question 110

When the GOV switch is placed in the EMER position power available will be reduced by

Answer 110

11-15%

Question 111

The same TOLD will suffice for consecutive takeoffs and landings when the aircraft gross weight or environmental conditions have not increased by

Answer 111

5°C
200 lbs GW
500 ft. PA

Question 112

T/F Conduct all operations at or above 300 ft. AGL except when lower altitudes are required for terminal area operations, low-level training, takeoff, landing and operations in approved areas.

Answer 112

True

Question 113

T/F During crew changes and ground operations a minimum of one pilot will be secured via seat belt and shoulder harness will continue to monitor controls

Answer 113

True

Question 114

T/F Crewmembers sitting in the center observer seat may fly without shoulder straps. The shoulder harness need not be worn during actual and simulated emergency procedures.

Answer 114

False

Question 115

T/F When doors are open during flight, the aircraft commander may direct crew members to perform duties in the cabin unrestrained for brief periods.

Answer 115

False

Question 116

During EP training, all personnel in the cargo compartment will be in a seat and restrained by a

Answer 116

Seatbelt

Question 117

A(n) ___ will be used, when available, for all engine start

Answer 117

Fire guard

Question 118

Power required for landing is

Answer 118

Power required to hover over the point of intended landing at the intended hover height, OGE if landing to a pinnacle (smaller than 2 RD), will be at least 5 ft. hover power (for training restrictions)

Question 119

Power required for take-off is the power sufficient to clear obstacles by a minimum of

Answer 119

10 ft., considers the distance to the obstacles, will be no less than 5 ft. hover power (for training restrictions)

Question 120

If power required exceeds the power available, or the crew determines a suitable margin is insufficient to justify the risk

Answer 120

Lighten the helicopter, locate a more suitable landing site, abort the mission

Question 121

The following procedures/maneuvers are prohibited during training

Answer 121

Actual engine shutdown in flight and intentional flight into blade stall, deliberately entering vortex ring state or settling with power, pulling circuit breakers to simulate emergency procedures

Question 122

For unusual attitude recovery procedures training, conduct only

Answer 122

day, VMC and above 1,000ft AGL

Question 123

For unusual attitude recovery procedures training, maximum bank angle is

Answer 123

30°

Question 124

For unusual attitude recovery procedures training maximum nose high attitude is

Answer 124

20°

Question 125

For unusual attitude recovery procedures training maximum nose low attitude is

Answer 125

10°

Question 126

T/F Unusual attitude recovery procedures training may be conducted with passengers onboard

Answer 126

False

Question 127

To conduct EP training, wind direction will be within 90° of landing direction when wind speed (steady state or gusts) is

Answer 127

0-15 knots

Question 128

To conduct EP training, wind direction will be within 45° of landing direction when wind speed (steady or gusts) is

Answer 128

Above 15 knots

Question 129

Hovering maneuvers will be conducted within ___ degrees of wind direction (EP training)

Answer 129

20°

Question 130

Do not plan to touchdown in the last ___ of the landing area when conducting slide landings or touchdown autorotations.

Answer 130

500 ft.

Question 131

Normal takeoff: Initiate from the ground or hover using a target torque value of 5 ft. hover power plus

Answer 131

5-10%

Question 132

Maximum Performance Takeoff: Initiate from the ground or 5 ft. hover power plus ___. Simulate a 100ft. obstacle.

Answer 132

10-15%

Question 133

Normal and Maximum performance takeoffs are terminated upon reaching ____ KIAS airspeed.

Answer 133

70 KIAS

Question 134

For contact training: 300 ft. AGL, 70 KIAS and a 30° apparent angle are parameters for a

Answer 134

Normal approach

Question 135

For contact training: 300 ft. AGL, 70 KIAS, and a 10° apparent angle are the parameters for a

Answer 135

Shallow approach

Question 136

For contact training: 300 ft. AGL, 30 knots ground speed, and a 45° apparent angle are parameters for a

Answer 136

Steep approach

Question 137

For approaches terminating to a slide landing, maintain directional control with pedals. Other parameters include

Answer 137

Maximum touchdown speed of 50 knots ground speed

No lateral drift

Question 138

For a standard autorotation, minimum entry altitude is

Answer 138

500 ft. AGL

Question 139

For the 180° turning autorotation, minimum entry altitude is

Answer 139

800 ft. AGL

Question 140

Entry airspeed between 70 and 100 KIAS applies to

Answer 140

Standard, 180° and low-level autorotations

Question 141

For the low-level autorotation, minimum entry altitude is

Answer 141

100 ft. AGL or 50 ft. AHO

Question 142

Minimum altitude to initiate a simulated force landing is

Answer 142

500 ft. AGL

Question 143

Airspeed required to initiate a simulated force landing is

Answer 143

70-100 KIAS

Question 144

Following an SFL, begin a power recovery no lower than

Answer 144

350 ft. AGL

Question 145

Following an SFL, establish a normal climb

Answer 145

no slower than 60 KIAS and no lower than 200 ft. AGL

Question 146

Autorotations, when performed to the ground will touchdown between

Answer 146

5-25 knots ground speed

Question 147

If planning to terminate an autorotation with a power recovery, apply throttle after initiating the flare. Terminate:

Answer 147

No lower than 5 ft. between 0-15 knots ground speed

Question 148

When performing practice autorotations, at no less than ___ ft. AGL, the aircraft must be wings-level, aligned with the landing direction and in a safe position to land, airspeed must be a minimum of 70 KIAS, rotor RPM must be in the normal operating range, and sink rate must be under control. Otherwise, perform a power recovery.

Answer 148

150

Question 149

For autorotations, sink rate must be under control (less than ___fpm) to execute the flare.

Answer 149

3,000

Question 150

To simulate a hydraulic system malfunction, prior to moving the HYD CONT switch to the OFF position, the aircraft must be

Answer 150

Straight and level, 300 ft. AGL (minimum), and 70 KIAS (minimum)

Question 151

T/F SFL at a hover and hovering autorotations will only be initiated at a normal hover taxi altitudes and groundspeeds

Answer 151

True

Question 152

T/F An IFR-certified Global Positioning System (GPS) with available RAIM may be used to verify navigation equipment accuracy in lieu of a ground checkpoint

Answer 152

True

Question 153

The following describes PNF calls for which type of instrument approach: Call “100 ft. above minimums”,”minimums” at minimum descent altitude (MDA) and “runway in sight”. Call “go around” at the missed approach point if the runway is not in sight.

Answer 153

Non-precision

Question 154

The following describes PNF calls for which type of Instrument approach: Call “100 ft. above” when 100 ft. above decision altitude (DA). Then, if the runway environment is in sight and the aircraft is in a position for a normal landing, call “land” at decision height. Otherwise call “go around”

Answer 154

Precision

Question 155

When may a pilot in command (PIC) deviate from a flight rule or ATC clearance

Answer 155

To protect life for safety of flight or when an in-flight emergency requires immediate action

Question 156

When deviating from ATC clearance

Answer 156

Notify ATC of the action taken as soon as possible

Question 157

USAF aircraft cockpits must always be capable of providing which full-time references in each pilot position

Answer 157

Attitude, altitude, airspeed and the capability to recognize, confirm and recover from unusual attitudes

Question 158

Crew rest is compulsory for aircrew member prior to performing any duties involving aircraft operations and

Answer 158

Is a minimum of 12 non-duty hours before Flight Duty Period (FDP) begins, is free time and includes time for meals, transportation and rest, and must include an opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep

Question 159

The Flight Duty Period (FDP) begins when

Answer 159

An aircrew member reports for a mission, briefing or other official duty

Question 160

Maximum FDP for a basic TH-1H crew is

Answer 160

12 hours

Question 161

Aircrew members will not fly

Answer 161

If any alcohol is consumed within 12 hours prior to takeoff or impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, while self medicating; unless IAW with AFI 48-123, within 72 hours of donating blood, plasma or bone marrow

Question 162

T/F Aircrew members must maintain a medical clearance from the flight surgeon to perform inflight duties. Medical or dental treatment obtained from any source must be cleared by a flight surgeon prior to reporting for flight duty

Answer 162

True

Question 163

Crewmembers who require corrective spectacles while performing aircrew duties

Answer 163

Must only use Air Force provided spectacles as outlined in AFI 48-123 and must carry a spare set of clear Air Force provided spectacles while performing aircrew duties

Question 164

Each crew member must have a(n)____ flashlight for night operations

Answer 164

Operable

Question 165

T/F The PIC will prohibit the use of any PED suspected of creating interference with systems on the aircraft

Answer 165

True

Question 166

____ approval is required before using before any photo or video recording devices in the cockpit

Answer 166

OG/CC

Question 167

Obtain clearance from ATC before ___ at an airport with an operating control tower

Answer 167

Taxiing, proceeding onto a runway, and taking off or landing

Question 168

Precisely read back all ___

Answer 168

Traffic advisories, ATIS broadcasts, and taxi and hold short instructions

Question 169

T/F If a taxi route requires crossing any runway, hold short until obtaining specific clearance to cross each runway

Answer 169

True

Question 170

T/F Taxi clearance to a runway implies clearance to taxi onto the runway and across any runways along the taxi route

Answer 170

False

Question 171

Immediately report hazardous weather conditions, ___, or any other significant flight condition that may affect aviation safety to the appropriate controlling agency

Answer 171

Wake turbulence, volcanic activity, and large concentrations of birds or wildlife on or near the airfield

Question 172

For unpressurized operations without supplemental oxygen, altitude is limited to

Answer 172

14,000 MSL

Question 173

T/F Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other air traffic

Answer 173

True

Question 174

When converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on or approximately so) ___ has the right-of-way

Answer 174

The aircraft to the other’s right

Question 175

If aircraft are approaching each other head-on or approximately so

Answer 175

Each shall alter course to the right

Question 176

Do not allow the aircraft to be flown so close to another that it creates a collision hazard. Use ___ of separation as an approximate guide.

Answer 176

500 ft.

Question 177

Prior to ___ at civil airports, transponders will be ON in the altitude reporting mode. At all other airports, unless local procedures dictate otherwise, transponders should be turned ON to the normal altitude reporting mode.

Answer 177

Aircraft movement

Question 178

T/F Prior to each flight, ensure the Mode S Flight ID matches the call sign entered exactly on the flight plan with no embedded spaces, dashes, extra characters or added zeros.

Answer 178

True

Question 179

T/F Pilots are relieved of the responsibility for terrain and obstacle avoidance once the controller states “Radar Conflict”

Answer 179

True

Question 180

Helicopter aircrews may operate under SVFR if they

Answer 180

Obtain ATC clearance, remain clear of clouds, maneuver at a speed that will allow adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision

Question 181

When landing at a civilian airfield without a tower or arriving at a civilian airfield VFR/DVFR ____

Answer 181

The pilot is responsible for ensuring that flight plans are closed, either by contacting an FSS, the originating military base operations, or through an ATC facility

Question 182

Do not turn after takeoff until at least ___ above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless specifically cleared by the controlling agency, required by a published procedure, or when executing an closed pattern.

Answer 182

400 ft.

Question 183

T/F Published or ATC climb gradients do not account for low close-in obstacles in their climb gradient calculations; therefore, low close-in obstacle clearance his not assured when complying with the published or ATC climb gradient

Answer 183

True

Question 184

For IFR departures, ensure the aircraft can meet or exceed ___ or the published climb gradient, whichever is higher, to an appropriate IFR altitude

Answer 184

200 ft/NM

Question 185

T/F Do not takeoff with ice, snow, frost or other contamination adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets or other critical surfaces of the aircraft, unless authorized by a flight manual

Answer 185

True

Question 186

____ is the clearance authority for IFR or VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace

Answer 186

The PIC

Question 187

Operate over non-congested areas at an altitude at or above 500 ft AGL except over open water or in spacey populated areas. Under such exceptions, do not operate aircraft closer than 500 ft. to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure. helicopters in FAA airspace or operating IAW host-nation agreements may operate at lower altitudes and in closer proximity ____

Answer 187

If they do not create a hazard to persons or property on the surface

Question 188

Operate no less than 2,000ft. AGL (mission permitting) over ___

Answer 188

National Park Service monuments, seashores, lake shores, recreation and scenic driveways, US Fish and Wildlife Service refuges and US Forest Service wilderness and primitive areas

Question 189

T/F Operation in forecast or actual severe conditions (e.g. severe icing, turbulence) will be at the discretion of the PIC

Answer 189

False

Question 190

During Bird Watch Condition Severe, do not conduct flight operations except in an emergency without ___ approval

Answer 190

OG/CC

Question 191

If suitably equipped, monitor at least one emergency frequency at all times ___

Answer 191

As mission and operating conditions permit, and report distress or emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmissions to ATC

Question 192

Regarding use of RNAV systems on conventional routes and procedures, “alternate means” refers to

Answer 192

Using a suitable RNAV system in lieu of operable conventional NAVAIDs or installed and operational avionics

Question 193

Substitution of an RNAV system for the final approach segment of a VOR/TACAN/NDB approach is

Answer 193

Prohibited

Question 194

When using RNAV systems on conventional routes and procedures

Answer 194

Retrieve all NAVAIDS, fixes and procedure for current database; tune, identify, monitor and display the appropriate ground-based NAVAIDs whenever practicable, notify ATC when substituting for an out-of-service NAVAID

Question 195

Category A instrument approach minimums may be used regardless of approach speed. Additionally, visibility minimums may be reduced by ___, but no lower than ___ PV or ___ RVR

Answer 195

1/2, 1/4 SM, 1200 ft.

Question 196

Do not reduce the visibility minimums for instrument approaches

Answer 196

On helicopter approaches, for circling procedures, and if “Visibility Reduction by helicopters NA” is annotated on the procedure

Question 197

Maximum speed on conventional, non-copter approaches is

Answer 197

The upper limit of the highest Approach Category authorized by the procedure and 90 KIAS at the missed approach point in order to apply the visibility reduction

Question 198

Helicopters may operate from/to other than established landing areas (e.g. fields, highways, parks) if conducting an operational or training mission. For training missions:

Answer 198

Permission must be received to use the area and safeguards must exist to permit operations without hazard to persons or property

Question 199

T/F Rotary wing pilots are prohibited from accepting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearances

Answer 199

False

Question 200

The point at which it is necessary to proceed directly to the airport of intended landing due to also fuel. Declaration of this state is an explicit statement that priority handling by ATC is both required and expected.

Answer 200

Emergency fuel

Question 201

Night is defined in AFI 11-202 Vol 3 AETC SUP as

Answer 201

The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac

Question 202

In the absence of other MAJCOM guidance, USAF aircrews shall consider as mountainous those areas defined in 14 CFR 95.11 for CONUS, Alaska, Hawaii and Puerto Rico. In other areas, use ___ surface elevation change over a ___.

Answer 202

500 ft./ 1/2 NM

Question 203

The greatest horizontal visibility observed throughout at least half of the horizon circle. It need not be continuous throughout 180° consecutively

Answer 203

Prevailing visibility (PV)

Question 204

A standard formation is defined as a formation in which no participating aircraft is more than ___ horizontally and ___ vertically from the lead aircraft.

Answer 204

1 NM, 100 ft.