Mpje Flashcards

1
Q

Federal CSA - enforced by

A

DEA, unit of US Dept of Justice

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2
Q

Schedule I drugs have…

A
  • HIGH potential for abuse
  • NO accepted medical use
  • Lack of accepted safety
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3
Q

Schedule II drugs have…

A
  • HIGH potential for abuse
  • Accepted medical use
  • physical: SEVERE
  • psych: SEVERE
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4
Q

Amendment 64

A

21+ years old can:

  • consume/possess up to 1 oz.
  • grow up to 6 plants
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5
Q

What can u change/add on a C2?

A
  • Dosage form
  • Strength
  • Quantity
  • Directions
  • Issue date
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6
Q

What can u NOT change/add on a C2?

A
  • Patient Name
  • Drug prescribed
  • Signature
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7
Q

Schedule III drugs have…

A
  • Lower abuse potential than C1 or C2
  • Accepted medical use
  • physical: MODERATE OR LOW
  • psych: HIGH
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8
Q

Schedule IV drugs have…

A
  • Lower abuse potential than C3
  • Accepted medical use
  • physical: LOW
  • psych: LOW
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9
Q

Schedule V drugs have…

A
  • Low potential for abuse v. C4
  • Accepted medical use
  • physical: LIMITED
  • psych: LIMITED
    (usually limited qty of narcotics)
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10
Q

Activities requiring DEA registration (8)

A
  1. Manufacturing
  2. Dispensing
  3. Distributing/reverse distributing
  4. Importing and exporting
  5. Prescribing by individual practitioners
  6. Conducting research
  7. Conducting narcotic treatment program
  8. Conducting chemical analysis
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11
Q

DEA registration renewed how often?

A

Every 3 years. Online or paper, but no more than 60 days prior to expiration date. Use Form 224a

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12
Q

DEA registration expired???

A

Can reinstate expired registration for 1 month after expiration date. If past that new registration is required.

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13
Q

New pharmacy registration

A
  • state license must be obtained (fed agencies are exempt)
  • complete Form 224
  • Form 223: Certificate of Registration - must be kept on site
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14
Q

Retail Chain Renewal

A

Form 224b + list of corporation’s registrations

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15
Q

Notify DEA prior to changing… (3)?

A
  1. Address
  2. Termination of business
  3. Transfer of business/change in ownership
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16
Q

Termination of Registration/business:

A
  • return registration certificate

- return unused order forms (like 222)

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17
Q

Transfer of business/change in owner:

A
  • submit in person or by registered/certified mail with return receipt requested
  • send to Special Agent in Charge in area
  • at least 14 days in advance of proposed transfer
    1. name/address/#/authorized activity of old and new
    2. whether business activities will be continued at old location or moved to new location - if so, list
    3. date on which transfer of CS will occur
  • on day of transfer: complete CS inventory. keep copy of inventory at both pharmacies. don’t need to send to DEA unless requested by Special Agent in Charge.
  • acquiring pharmacy keeps records for 2 years
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18
Q

DEA can deny, suspend, or revoke registration if:

A
  1. Falsified application
  2. Felony conviction related to CS
  3. State license denied/suspended/revoked
  4. Excluded from participating in Medicaid/Medicare programs
  5. Committed act inconsistent w/ public interest (recommendation of the board, conduct threatening public health/safety, etc.)
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19
Q

If Military exempt from DEA registration:

A
  • must state branch of service or agency on rx
  • must state service ID # (PHS is SSN)
  • for course of official duties..
    if they want to practice privately, they need to register
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20
Q

CS hardcopy requirements:

A
  1. Patient Full Name
  2. Patient Address
  3. Drug
  4. Strength
  5. Dosage form
  6. Quantity
  7. Directions
  8. Doctor name
  9. Doctor Address
  10. Doctor DEA
    (11. Refills if applicable)
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21
Q

CS Rx label requirements:

A
  1. Pharmacy Name
  2. Pharmacy Address
  3. Patient Name
  4. Rx#
  5. Doctor Name
  6. Directions
  7. Cautionary Statements
    * *(if filled at central fill pharmacy… must add Retail Pharmacy Name, Address, and the Central Fill’s DEA#)
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22
Q

Cautionary Statements for CS label:

A

for C2, C3, C4 * NOT C5!!*
“Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this dug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed”

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23
Q

C2 partial fill exceptions:

A

LTCF or “terminally ill” (documented with dx). Partial fills allowed for max of 60 days. Must document:

  • pharmacist
  • date of fill
  • # dispensed
  • # remaining
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24
Q

DEA 222 forms have…

A
- order form #
Registrant's:
- Name
- Address
- DEA#
- Authorized activity
- Authorized schedules
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25
Q

DEA 222 form Copy 1 goes to….

A

Supplier

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26
Q

DEA 222 form Copy 2 goes to…

A

DEA

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27
Q

DEA 222 form Copy 3 goes to…

A

kept by Purchaser

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28
Q

222 Form partial shipments must be completed by

A

60 days

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29
Q

CO Board of Pharmacy members

A
5 pharmacists (5+ years experience in CO)
2 non-pharmacists with no financial interest in pharmac
4-year overlapping terms (max 2 terms)
Balanced by political party, urban/rural, type of practice
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30
Q

Drug Regimen review includes (8):

A
  1. Allergies
  2. Rational therapy & contraindications
  3. Dose, duration, ROA
  4. Directions
  5. ADEs, interactions, CIs
  6. Therapeutic duplication
  7. Proper utilization & optimum outcomes
  8. Abuse/misuse
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31
Q

written II/FE Notice:

A
  • signed & dated by manager
  • manner of documenting II/FE, how it’s recorded & maintened. includes statement that all pharmacy personnel can print II/FE records
  • posted next to current board registration
  • keep for 3 years from date last used
  • new manager must sign & date II/FE Notice within 72 hours of starting
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32
Q

If license inactive/expired = 24 months:

A
  • 24 hours of CE, in past 24 months

- application & fee

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33
Q

If license inactive/expired > 24 months:

A
  • 1 hour of CE for each month inactive/expired
  • Pass MPJE
  • application & fee
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34
Q

if pharmacy manager terminates employment:

A
  • OWNER must transfer state board registration to new manager within 30 days
  • MANAGER must notify board IMMEDIATELY
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35
Q

Reinstatement of PDO registration ( in-state PDO):

A
  • application/fee
  • Articles of Incorporation or Certificate of Good Standing
  • list of shareholders (all if private, >/=5% if public)
  • accurate, to-scale floor plan
  • self inspection form
  • whether prescribers own > 10% of PDO
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36
Q

Reinstatement of PDO registration (non-resident PDO):

A
  • application/fee
  • current pharmacy registration
  • inspection report from resident BOP
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37
Q

Closure of outlet

A
  • manager must relocate Rxs to another PDO within 72 hours

- manager must make reasonable efforts to inform patients were records were relocated

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38
Q

CS inventory within ___ hours of manager change

A

72 hours

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39
Q

Pharmacy business hours

A
  • 2 days per week
  • 4 continuous hours each day
  • submit hours to board in writing if open less than 32 hours per week
40
Q

Pharmacist can supervise up to…

A
6 people 
(max 2 interns)
41
Q

Notify board of any criminal problems within…

A

30 days

42
Q

Notify board of any legal proceeding alleging a drug/device law or rule violation, including civil malpractice…

A

within 72 hours of service of process or knowledge, and 30 days of disposition

43
Q

Emergency kits may be provided to state-licensed or certified facilities, by PDOs or hospital other outlets…

A
  • Long Term Care Facilities (LTCF)
  • Acute Treatment Units (ATU)
  • Hospices (inpatient & outpatient)
  • Home Health Agencies (HHA)

one PDO/hospital other outlet per facility
pharmacy manager responsible for accuracy of contents

44
Q

Emergency kits: LTCF, ATU, inpatient hospices

A
  • contents determined by medical director & RPh
  • limited to 60 drugs, 12 may be CS
  • up to 30 doses of any dosage form or strength
  • oral dosage forms OK
45
Q

Emergency kits: outpatient hospice, HHA

A
  • contents determined by nursing director & RPh
  • limited to 60 drugs, NO CS
  • up to 30 doses of any dosage form or strength
  • NO oral forms… only injectables!
46
Q

Emergency kit requirements:

A
  • must be sealed with tamper-evident or electronic seal
  • Expiration: earliest of any drug in kit, OR 1 year from sealing
  • Written kit contents attached to kit
  • Pharmacist/designee inspect contents annually or within 72 hours of kit being opened
  • Kit drugs only for facility patients pursuant to practitioner order
47
Q

The following may register as an “other outlet”

A
  • hospitals without a registered PDO
  • Federal Qualified Health Centers
  • Family planning, Community, or Rural Health Clinics
  • Colleges, universities, schools
  • County/district public health agencies
  • Ambulatory surgical centers
  • Med clinics operated by a hospital that administer meds to patients while being treated in the facility
  • Jails, hospices, Acute Treatment Units, Telepharmacies, Convalescent Centers
48
Q

Other Outlet’s Consultant pharmacist is responsible for:

A
  • Registration & overall operation
  • Developing protocols and review annually
  • Developing inspection form & documenting visits
  • Recordkeeping of procurement, compounding, dispensing and/or distribution of drugs
  • Initial interpretation of prescription orders or have a protocol for unlicensed persons
  • Be available for professional consultation
49
Q

2 types of Collaborative Practice Agreements:

A
  1. CDTM (Collaborative Drug Therapy Management)

2. Statewide Protocols (Contraception)

50
Q

CDTM: 2 components

A
  1. Protocol for disease management

2. Agreement between pharmacist(s) & provider(s) that is reviewed annually

51
Q

Pharmacist requirements for Collaborative Pharmacy Practices:

A
  1. PharmD or 5 years experience
  2. Current CO license & actively practicing
  3. MUST carry liability insurance
  • Additional qualifications for CDTM:
    4. Completion of residency, OR
    5. Completion of 1 year training + 40 hours supervised clinical training, OR
    6. ACPE certificate program (or 50 hours CE) + 40 hours supervised training, OR
    7. BPS certification
52
Q

CDTM: Agreement

A
  1. names of participating pharmacists/prescribers (physicians or APNs)
  2. lists the protocol
  3. method & frequency of communication
  4. effective date & signatures of participants
53
Q

CDTM: Protocol

A
  1. Required patient information
  2. Specific drugs/dosages
  3. Specific labs
  4. Pharmacist Training
  5. Treatment plan based on evidence
  6. Referral criteria
  7. effective date & signatures of participants
54
Q

CDTM: records

A
  • copy of written Agreement & Protocol
  • Evidence/literature the protocols are based on
  • Documentation of pharmacist training requirements
  • keep for 3 years from last date of service
55
Q

Training required for immunizations:

A
  • Didactive & live hands-on training, accredited by ACPE (20 hours for RPh/intern, 4 hours for techs)
  • CPR certification
56
Q

For board inspection (for immunizations):

A
  • proof of completion of ACPE training
  • CPR certification
  • Immunization records x 3 years
  • Written policy - contaminated supplies
57
Q

Immunization records must contain:

A
  • pt name, address, Dob
  • pt responses to indication/CI questions
  • date & site of injection
  • name, dose, manufacturer, lot#, expiration
  • name & address of PCP
  • name/initials of pharmacist (& intern)
  • pt’s signed informed consent
  • VIS version & date provided
58
Q

may outsource portions of dispensing to other pharmacies if (Central Prescription Processing):

A
  • same owner or entered into a central prescription processing contract
  • share electronic file or have appropriate technology or interface
  • registered with board as prescription drug outlets or non-resident prescription drug outlet
59
Q

Central Prescription Processing: Policy and Procedure Manual

A
  • must be reviewed annually by pharmacy manager
  • outline responsibilities of each involved pharmacy
  • include list of involved pharmacies (name, address, number and license/registration
  • delineate which pharmacy name and address appears on the Rx label
60
Q

Manufacturer or Wholesaler can sell to:

A
  • another wholesaler
  • hospital
  • PDO
  • practitioner
61
Q

Casual sale:

A

Rx drug outlet, or hospital, selling to:

  • Rx drug outlet
  • Wholesaler
  • Prescribing practitioner

no more than 10% of sales!

62
Q

Pharmacy can REGISTER as compounding PDO if:

A
  • Accredited (can then compound more than 10% of total sales for practitioners or PDO with same owner)
  • PDO must be owned solely by pharmacist
63
Q

REGISTERED compounding PDO may dispense compounded drugs..

A

without 10% limitation to practitioners and other PDO’s with same owner

64
Q

Registered compounding PDO CANNOT:

A
commercially available drug, except:
- if significantly different, OR
- best medical interest of patient (dye allergy)
AND
- must notify patient
65
Q

Hospital employee may dispense 24 hour drug supply to registered ER patient if:

A
  • ordered by practitioner

- employee is authorized to administer or dispense meds

66
Q

Compounding overview:

A
  • up to 90 day supply (based on prior 6 month history)
  • only distributed to a practitioner’s Rx (or chart) order
  • Formulation & compounding records must be kept ** except if compounded per manufacturer’s labeling instructions**
  • “Casual Sales” distributions allowed only by in-state PDOs to practitioners and hospitals located and licensed/registered in Colorado
67
Q

Compounding: labeling

A
  • sterilenon-sterile
  • Rx/chart orders/for practitioners/within hospitals as floor stock… includes:
    (* except radiopharmaceuticals prepared from FDA approved, commercially available kits and/or drug products)*
  • BUD
  • Batch (lot) number
  • Storage directions if appropriate
  • Statement: compounded by the pharmacy
68
Q

Policy & Procedure Manual for non-sterile (Non-CSP):

A
  • required of all PDOs
  • annually reviewed & signed by manager
  • new manager… sign within 30 days of starting
69
Q

Policy & Procedure manual for Sterile (CSP)

A
  • required if sterile compounding performed

- follows USP 797

70
Q

CSP: Immediate Use

A
  1. where low-risk would add risk due to delays
  2. NO storage or batch compounding
  3. continuous compounding process lasts NO MORE THAN 1 HOUR
  4. administer less than 1 hour after preparation begins
  5. simple transfer of sterile, non-hazardous drugs
71
Q

CSP: Low-Risk

A
  1. using only sterile ingredients/components
  2. simple volume transfers of sterile dosage forms (ampules, bottles, bags, and vials using sterile syringes and needles)
  3. Simple aseptic measuring & transferring with NO MORE THAN 3 PACKAGES of manufactured sterile products
72
Q

CSP: Low-Risk with < 12 hour BUD

A
  1. usually in rural sites

2. used in facilities that don’t need longer BUD (infusion centers, operating room pharmacies)

73
Q

CSP: Medium Risk

A
  1. uses only sterile ingredients
  2. batch preparations
  3. complex manipulations (TPN)
  4. preparation over several days
  5. making or using PRESERVATIVE FREE components
74
Q

CSP: difference between Low & Medium Risk

A
  • NO batch compounding v. batch compounding
  • multi-dose vials vs. single use vials
  • using = 3 drugs vs. > 3 drugs in a product
75
Q

CSP: High Risk

A

examples. ..
- using non-sterile (bulk powders) ingredients
- open system transfers
- sterile products must be terminally sterilized (filtered, autoclaved)

76
Q

Pure Food & Drug Act

A

ADULTERATION & MISBRANDING
prohibited adulteration/misbranding of foods & drugs in interstate commerce.

it did NOT require listing ingredients, be safe/effective, directions, or provide warnings.

77
Q

FDCA (Food Drug and Cosmetic Act)

A

required drugs to be SAFE for intended use & approved by FDA before they could be marketed

required labels to have directions & warnings about habit-forming properties of some drugs.

First law to apply to both cosmetics/devices AS WELL AS food/drugs

78
Q

Durham Humphrey Amendments

A

established 2 classes: Rx and OTC

authorized ORAL prescriptions and refills

79
Q

Kefauver Harris Amendment

A

required drugs to be not only safe, but EFFECTIVE

established GMP (Good Manufacturing Practices)

required “informed consent” of subjects in trials

80
Q

Medical Device (Regulation) Act

A

requires medical devices to be SAFE and EFFECTIVE

established 3 classes based on impact on health:
Class I: minor potential impact
Classs II: moderate…
Class III: major potential - requires premarketing approval

81
Q

Orphan Drug Act

A

incentivize companies to make meds for rare diseases (< 200,000 occurrences in USA)

82
Q

Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act

A

sped up approval of GENERIC DRUGS by extending the ANDA (Abbreviated New Drug Application) process to all generics

extended patent life for new BRAND DRUGS: 5 additional years of patent protection

83
Q

Prescription Drug Marketing Act

A
  • requires STATE licensing of wholesalers
  • bans sale, trade, or purchase of Rx samples
  • bans community pharmacies from receiving samples
  • specified storage, handling, recordkeeping requirements for drug samples
  • bans resale of Rx drugs purchased by hospitals or healthcare facilities
  • bans re-importation of Rx drugs produced in the US
84
Q

Food and Drug Modernization Act

A
  • prescription labels must contain “Rx Only”
  • clarified compounding by pharmacists
  • manufacturer has to do only 1 clinical trial to supplement their NDA
  • fast track approval for drugs for serious or life-threatening diseases
85
Q

Priority Review

A
  • used for BLA (Biologics License Application) or NDA submission
  • reduces FDA review period from 10 months to 6
  • drugs qualifying for Breakthrough Therapy, Accelerated Approval, and Fast Track.. can also be eligible for Priority Review
86
Q

Fast Track

A
  • may be requested for IND application and prior to BLA or NDA submission
  • for drugs that address unmet medical need (no tx exists, or substantial benefit over existing tx)
  • sponsors get extra opportunities to meet with FDA to discuss study design & how to best expedite development
  • sponsors may have early reviews of their product marketing before complete application has been submitted
87
Q

Breakthrough Therapy

A
  • may be requested as early as IND application… preferably prior to end of Phase 2 meeting
  • similar to Fast Track, but Breakthrough drugs must show early clinical evidence of substantial improvement over existing txs
88
Q

Accelerated Approval

A
  • for drugs with long term endpoints, such as increased survival/decreased morbidity, that are difficult to measure efficiently in trials
  • allows approval based on easily measured outcomes that are reasonably likely to predict clinical benefit, like shrinking tumor
  • sponsors required to confirm dug efficacy in post market clinical trials
89
Q

ANDA (Abbreviated New Drug Application)

A
  • for generics
  • must prove PK properties, bioavailability, and clinical activity similar to innovator product
  • first generic to market gets 6 months exclusivity
90
Q

SNDA (Supplemental New Drug Application)

A
  • after marketing new dug, manufacturer might want to change the synthesis, production procedures, manufacturing locations, packaging, labeling etc.
91
Q

PPPA (Poison Prevention Packaging Act)

A

child-resistant packaging

92
Q

HITECH (Health Info Portability & Accountability Act)

A

EHR implementation

93
Q

Dental Hygienist: prescriptive authority?

A
CO License needed
IN COLLABORATION WITH LICENSED DENTIST:
- fluoride
- antimicrobial solutions for mouth rinsing
- non-systemic antimicrobial agents
94
Q

Direct Entry Midwife (CPM)

A

CO Registration AND Designated Authority needed.

  • no Rx drugs or CS. (OTCs ok)
  • they can procure shit
95
Q

Naturopathic Doctor (ND)

A

CO Registration needed

only: epi, barrier contraception

96
Q

Optometrist (OD)

A

CO license, ** certified as Therapeutic Optometrist (TPA)

  • any Rx drug
  • C2: ONLY hydrocodone combos
  • C3-5 any
  • NO INJECTABLES EXCEPT EPI!!!